WEEK 5 Flashcards

1
Q

All the cells of the immune response come from the same progenitor cell. What is said cell called?

A

Hematopoetic stem cell

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2
Q

Name, and describe, the various stages of the three different types of immune response elicited by the body.

A
  1. Innate immunity: immediate (0-4hrs)
    - infection
    - recognition by preformed non specific effectors
    - removal of infectious agent (ia)
  2. Early induced response: early (4-96hrs)
    - infection
    - recruitment of effector cells
    - recognition and activation of effector cells
    - removal of ia
  3. Adaptive immune response
    - infection
    - transport of antigen to lymphoid organs
    - recognition by naive B & T cells
    - clonal expansion of effector cells
    - removal of ia
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3
Q

What happens to microorganisms once across the epithelial barrier?

A

They are recognised & ingested by mononuclear phagocytes or macrophages

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4
Q

Describe each of the following (i) monocyte (ii) neutrophil (iii) eosinophil (iv) basophil.

A

(i) one of 3 types of phagocytic cel of immune system
- they circulate the bloodstream, becoming macrophages when in tissue.
(ii) (PMN) - most numerous & important cell of innate response
- are v. short lived (2 days)
(iii) (PMN) - parasite defence. Important in getting rid of gut pathogens
(iv) (PMN) - function is similar to that of eosinophils & mast cells. They are the least common PMN.

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5
Q

What are mast cells?

A

granules.
When releases, they release a number of substances that affect the vascular system
ie. IgE mediated triggering in allergies

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6
Q

Name the two types of lymphocytes and what they produce.

A

B cells = produce antibodies

T cells = cytotoxic T cells (CD8) OR helper T cells (CD4)

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7
Q

What is the function of dendritic cells?

A

most important immune cell
they bridge the gap between the innate and adaptive immune response
are specialised in antigen uptake and presentation

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8
Q

What are NK cells? What is their role within the body? How do they stop themselves from destroying healthy cells?

A

Large granular lymphocytes
Recognise virally infected cells non-specifically
Play and early defence role against viral infection
Have receptors on their cell surface to prvent them from destroying healthy cells.

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9
Q

What is the difference between NK cells and CD8 cells ? (HINT: there’s two)

A
  • NK cells aren’t antigen specific

- NK cells don’t require clonal expansion of T cells in lymph nodes when the virus is detected.

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10
Q

What are the 3 pathways of the complement cascade? Describe each one.

A
  1. Classical pathway:
    - initiated by activation of the C1 complex
    - antibodies binding onto the surface of bacteria
    - C1Q acts with the antibody
    => triggering the classical pathway
  2. Lectin pathway
  3. Alternative pathway:
    - cause by spontaneous hydrolysis of serum C3
    - this binds to factor B
    - factor B is cleaved by factor D into Ba and Bb
    - the resulting soluble C3 convertase cleaves C3 -> C3b
    - C3b binds to membranes and acts to increase phagocytosis
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11
Q

How is the membrane attack complex (MAC) assembled? What can prevent the final assembly of MAC?

A

It is comprised of C6, 8, 9 which form a pore
=> the internal contents of bacteria leak out & bacteria dies
CD59 - at the C8 -> C9 stage

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12
Q

What is an atheroma?

A

degeneration of the walls of the arteries caused by accumulated fatty deposits and scar tissue, and leading to restriction of the circulation and a risk of thrombosis.
- the fatty material which forms deposits in the arteries.

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13
Q

What are the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis? (HINT: there’s 7)

A

Age: prime age = 40-60
Sex: males are more predisposed compared to woman PRE menopause
Genetics: diabetes, hypertension
Hyperlipidaemia: increased cholesterol (dietary factors)
Hypertension: more likely
Smoking
Diabetes Mellitus

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14
Q

What is the pathogenesis of atherosclerosis? (HINT: there’s 6)

A
1. Chronic Endothelial Injury
increased:
-􏰃Endothelial permeability
􏰃-Leukocyte adhesion
-Monocyte adhesion and migration
2. Role of lipids
 Hyperlipidaemia (LDL cholesterol)
– Impairs endothelial function
– Accumulates within intima
– Causes oxidative modification of LDL:
Ingested by macrophages via SCAVANGER receptors = foam cells
3. Role of macrophages
Engulf oxidised LDL = foam cells 
Secret IL1, TNF, MCP1 and growth factors
FATTY streak
4. Smooth muscle proliferation
Collagen and Extracellular matrix deposition
=> Fattystreak -> Mature fibro-fatty Atheroma
5. Fibro-lipid plaque formation
6. Injury to plaque: thrombus formation
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15
Q

Describe the morphology of atherosclerosis. Where do they develop? (name a few examples)

A
Atheromatous plaque
> patchy & raised, white to yellow
> lipid core, fibrous cap
Abdominal aorta
coronary arteries
popliteal arteries
descending thoracic aorta
internal carotid artery
vessels of circle of willis
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16
Q

What are the complicated lesions that can occur in atherosclerosis?

A
calcification
rupture/ulceration
haemorrhage
thrombosis
aneurysmal dilation
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17
Q

What results in complications within atherosclerosis?

A

thrombosis
calcification
aneurysmal dilation
ischaemic events

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18
Q

Describe the primary and secondary preventions of atherosclerosis.

A
Primary (preventing atheroma)
- stop smoking
- control hypertension
- weight loss
- lower total LDL (statin)
- reduce calorie intake
Secondary (one complication has arisen)
- prevent complication
- anti-platelet drugs in thrombosis
- lower blood lipid levels
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19
Q

What is haemostasis?

A

The arrest of blood loss from damaged blood vessels via:

  • vascular constriction
  • formation of a platelet plug
  • formation of a blood clot (as result of coagulant)
  • growth of fibrous tissue into blood clot to close the hole permanently
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20
Q

What is drug therapy used for?

A

to modify:
- blood clotting
- platelet adhesion & activation
and to affect processes involved in fibrin removal

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21
Q

What are the two ways in which you can develop coagulation defects?

A
Genetically
- haemophilia
Acquired
- e.g. liver disease, vit K deficiency
- treat with either natural or synthetic vitamin K
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22
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vitamin K?

A

acts as a co-factor in the post translational processing of factors II, VII, IX, X

23
Q

What are the clinical uses of vitamin K?

A
  1. treatment/prevention of bleeding from excessive oral anticoagulant use
  2. prevent hemorrhagic disease of newborns
  3. Vit K deficiencies in adults
24
Q

What factors (i) increase the effect and (ii) decrease the effect, of anticoagulants?

A
(i) decreases in availability of vitamin K
broad spectrum of antibiotics
liver disease
drugs that impair platelet function
(ii) drugs thatincrease drug metabolism
oral contraceptive
25
Q

What is warfarin?

A

it prevents the reduction of vitamin K (Vit K antagonist)
it takes many hours to act due to having to degrade factors already formed
a side effect can be haemorrhage => patients have to be monitored (PT/INR)

26
Q

Name, and describe, the two types of injectable anticoagulants.

A
  1. Heparin (e.g. Dalteparin)
    - naturally occurring
    - found in mast cells, plasma & endothelial cells
    - immediate actin
  2. Heparan sulphate (not used therapeutically)
    - occurs extracellularly
    - important endogenous anticoagulant
27
Q

What is the mechanism of action of heparin?

A

Its activity is related to its electronegative charge
Acts mainly on fibrin formation
- it acts on ATIII & other serine proteases in the coagulation cascade (XIIa, XIa, IXa, Xa)
- ATIII forms a 1:1 complex with thrombin
- heparin accelerates the rate of this inhibition

28
Q

What are the two direct Xa inhibitors? Describe them.

A
Rivaroxaban or Apixaban
- orally active
- no monitoring needed
- few hours to act
- effects last 8-12 hours (Xa activity normal after 24hrs)
BUT there's no antidote
29
Q

What is the role of antiplatelet drugs? Name, and describe, two.

A

Decrease platelet aggregation & inhibit thrombus formation

  1. Aspirin
    - inhibits cyclooxygenase
  2. Clopidogrel
    - inhibit P2Y(12) purinergic receptors
30
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

set in motion when the intrinsic coagulation system is acitvated
it involves the generation of plasminogen activators
(plasminogen = proenzyme)
plasminogen activators release the active enzyme plasmin from its plasminogen precursor.

31
Q

What is plasmin?

A

Trypsin like enzyme acting on ARG-LYS bonds

  • digests fibrin and other blood proteins (factors II, V, VII)
  • acts locally on fibrin meshwork of clot
  • when it escapes into circulation it is inactivated by inhibitors
32
Q

Name a fibrinolytic agent and a tissue plasminogen activator (TPA). Describe each respectively.

A
  1. Streptokinase
    - non enzymatic
    - acts indirectly
    - forms stable complex with plasminogen and activates the enzyme activity of plaminogen by inducing a conformational change
  2. Alteplase
    - synthesised in vivo by endothelial cells
    - can be made by recombinant technology
    - its enzymatic activity is more enhanced int he presence of fibrin bound plasminogen than plasma plasminogen => clot selective.
33
Q

What are some of the therapeutic uses of anticoagulants?

A

Venous TE

- DVT, PE, TE from AF, prosthetic heart valves, clotting during kidney dialysis

34
Q

Why are antiplatelet and fibrinolytic agents used? Give named examples.

A

Fibrinolytic plus aspirin:

  • acute myocardial infarction
  • former needs to be given within 4-6 hours of onset

Aspirin:
- can reduce risk of occlusive CV disease in patients who are already diagnosed as being at risk

35
Q

What are the predominate locations of AChR’s? (muscarinic and nicotinic)

A
1. Nicotinic:
NMJ
sympathetic ganglia
parasympathetic ganglia
CNS
2. Muscarinic:
- parasympathetic target organs
- sweat glands (sympathetic)
- vascular smooth muscle
- CNS
36
Q

Where else are various muscarinic receptors found apart from the ANS?

A

M1, 2, 4, 5 are also found in the CNS

M3 is found on vascular endothelial & smooth muscle cells

37
Q

What is the main locations and functional response of (i) M1 (ii) M2 (iii) M3?

A

(i) NEURAL: Autonomic ganglia glands
=> gastric secretion
(ii) CARDIAC: Heart (atria)
=> cardiac inhibition
(iii) GLANDULAR/SMOOTH MUSCLE: exocrine glands, smooth muscle BVs
=> gastric salivary secretion, GI smooth muscle contraction, ocular accommodation, vasodilation

38
Q

What is the general problem with muscarinic antagonists? How is this problem overcome?

A

SELECTIVITY
- very few differentiate between different subtypes
- MAChR widespread => side effects
This problem is overcome by
- controlling the rout of administration and distribution

39
Q

Describe NA release and the various factor affecting this process. What is NA’s equivalent to ACh.E?

A

Facilitated by Ca2+
- feedback of NA is done by alpha2 adrenoreceptors on the presynaptic terminal
=> decrease in Ca2+ influx = less NA released
There is no equivalent
=> 75% is recaptured by neurons and ‘repackaged’ by VMAT (vesicular monoamine transporter)

40
Q

List the various drugs which affect noradrenergic neurons?

A
  1. Affect catecholamine synthesis - methyldopa
  2. Affect catecholamine release - indirectly acting sympathomimetrics amphetamines by acting on the alpha 2 adrenoreceptor - clonidine
  3. Inhibitors of catecholamine uptake - NET inhibitors = cocaine, tricyclic antidepressants
  4. Inhibitors of catecholamine metabolic degradation - monoamine oxidase inhibitors (anti-depressants)
41
Q

Where do B cells originate from?

A

bone marrow - mainly the shafts of long & flat bones

- found in lymph nodes

42
Q

What is a naive B cell?

A

One which has not yet met an antigen

they circulate from the blood to the peripheral lymphoid tissue = main site of antigen encounter

43
Q

Within a lymph node, what is contained in the cortex and in the medulla?

A
Cortex = outer section of B cells
Medulla = macrophages & antibody secreting B cells
44
Q

Where are many immune cells located? How do they enter into said location compared to how they enter into lymph nodes?

A

The spleen

They enter via bloodstream rather than via lymphatics

45
Q

Compared to the primary response, what are the benefits of the secondary response?

A

faster
can produce more antibodies
doesn’t prevent you from making a response to another antigen

46
Q

What are the basic features of antibodies (Ab)? (i.e. expression, function, structure)

A

Expressed as either membrane bound or secreted forms
B cells express a single Ab specificity only
Ab’s have 2 separate functions:
1. bind to the pathogen that elicited its production
2. recruit other cells/molecules that lead to the clearance/destruction of the pathogen
Made of 2 H chains and 2 L chains
Disulfide bonds
L chains can be either lambda or kappa (NOT BOTH)

47
Q

How is antigen specificity determined?

A

by 3 hypervariable loops

the final specificity is determined by a combination of loops from the light and heavy chains (NOT either alone)

48
Q

What 3 ways can antigens bind?

A

(a) small peptide bound pockets
(b) extended peptide from HIV protein bound in groove
(c) extended surface interaction

49
Q

How is Ab diversity created?

A
  1. rearranging multiple gene segments
  2. Junctional diversity
  3. Different combinations of H and L chains
  4. Somatic hypermutation - this occurs after B cells have become antigen activated in the lymph node
50
Q

What is somatic hypermutation?

A

during the course of an immune response, mutations accumulate in the V regions of H and L chain genes. Some will bind to the antigen better and these cells are selected to bind and secrete antibody = AFFINITY MATURATION

51
Q

What are the 5 classes of antibody and how are they defined?

A

IgG IgD IgA IgM IgE

defined by their H chain

52
Q

How do cells get rid of their initial expression of IgM?

A

After antigen stimulation they can secrete as soluble version of the same IgM - made by alternative mRNA processing
Cells also undergo isotope switching where the IgM H chain is swapped for IgG etc

53
Q

What is monoclonal Ab? List some and give their uses (3)

A

powerful tool for research, diagnosis, and maybe treatment

  1. Infliximab - anti tumour necrosis factor
    - rhematoid arthritis, psoriasis, inflammmatory bowel disease
  2. Herceptin - anti HER2
    - can block and lead to destruction of breast tumour cells (only ones which express high levels of HER2)
  3. Gleevac - anti tyrosine kinase
    - effectuve against chronic myeloid leukemia
54
Q

What are antibody-antigen complexes important for? What high levels of said complex result in?

A

important mechanism for clearing soluble antigens
- taken up by phagocytes
high levels of the Ab-Ag complexes are prevalent in some auto immune diseases (triggering the complement cascade)
e.g. glomerulonephritis