Pre MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

What is an oral anticoagulant used? Describe its properties/MoA.

A

WARFARIN

  • main oral AC in UK
  • prevents the reduction of vitamin K (i.e. Vitamin K antagonist)
  • takes many hours to act because of time taken for degradation of factors already formed
  • main side effect = haemorrhage
  • need to monitor pts (PT/INR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What factors (i) increase the effectiveness (ii) decrease the effectiveness of oral coagulants?

A

(i) Decrease the availabiliity of vit K
broad spectrum Ab
Liver disease
Drugs that impair liver func, displace warfarin from their binding sites on plasma albumin, agents which inhibit microsomal enzymes in the liver
(ii) Drugs which increase drug metabolism
Oral contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 2 types of injectable anticoagulants? Describe them.

A
HEPARIN (e.g. Dalteparin)
- family of sulphated-glycosaminoglycans
- naturally occurring 
- found in mast cells, plasma & in endothelial cells
- starts acting almost immediately
HEPARAN SULPHATE
- a related glycosaminoglycan
- occurs EC in many tissues
- an important endogenous anticoagulant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the MoA of heparin?

A

Acts mainly on FIBRIN formation
- acts on ATIII (naturally occurrign inhibitor of thrombin) & other serine proteases in the coag cascade (XIIa, XIa, IXa & Xa)
- AT forms a 1:1 complex with thrombin by binding to active site
=> Heparin accelerates the rate of this inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 2 direct Xa inhibitors?

A
RIVAROXABAN
APIXABAN
- both orally active
- doesn't require PT/INR monitoring
- takes few hrs to act
- effects last 8-12 hrs (factor Xa activity takes about 24hrs to return to normal
BUT there's no antidote
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of antiplatelet drugs? Give 2 examples and what they target.

A

Decrease platelet aggregation
Inhibit thrombus formation

ASPIRIN: inhibits COX
CLOPIDOGREL: inhibits P2Y12 purinergic receptors & inhibits ADP-induced platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name a fibrinolytic agent & its function.

A

STREPTOKINASE

  • non enzymatic protein
  • acts indirectly
  • forms a stable complex with plasminogen (activates enzymatic activity of plasminogen by inducing a conformational change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name a tissue plasminogen activator & its function.

A

ALTEPLASE

  • synthesised in vivo by endothelial cells
  • can be made by recombinant technology
  • enzymatic activity is enhanced more in the presence of fibrin-bound plasminogen than plasma plasminogen (=> said to be ‘clot selective’)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What 3 sources is cholesterol derived from?

A

De novo synthesis in the liver
Uptake from circualting LDLs
Uptake of chylomicron remnants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the function of colestyramine?

A

Is a basic anion exchange resin
- sequesters bile acids in the intestine to prevent enterohepatic recirculation
- decreases the absorption of exogenous cholesterol
- increase the metabolism of endogenous cholesterol into bile acids
- inceases LDL receptor no. in liver resulting in the removal of LDLs from the blood.
NOTE: Bile-sequestering + statins can lower blood cholesterol by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of ezetimibe?

A

Inhibit transport protein for cholesterol in the brush border of enterocytes in the duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of fibrates? Give some named examples.

A

ALTER PLASMA LIPOPROTEIN LEVELS

  • decrease plasma TG’s & to a lesser extent, cholesterol
  • particularly decreases elevated conc. of VLDL
  • MAIN ACTION: stimulation of lipoprotein lipase which decreases the TG content of VLDL
  • Clearance of LDL by the liver is also stimulated
  • increase in HDL production & reverse cholesterol transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the clinical uses of fibrates?

A
Mixed dyslipidaemia (i.e. raised serum TG as well as cholesterol)
In pts with low HDL & high risk of atheromatous disease (e.g. type 2 diabetes)
Combined w.other lipid lowering drugs in pts with severe treatment resistant dyslipidaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the function of nicotinic acid?

A

It is a vitamin with lipid lowering properties

  • decreases VLDL production which leads to a decrease in LDL
  • also activates lipoprotein lipase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the function of statins? Give some named examples.

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

HMG-CoA reductase = major RLS in cholesterol synthesis. It converts HMG-CoA to mevalonic acid

Simvastatin, pravastatin, atorvastatin, rosuvastatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the clinical uses of statins?

A
  1. Secondary prevention of MI
    & stroke in those who have atherosclerotic diseases
  2. Primary prevention of arterial disease in patients w. high serum cholesterol
  3. Atorvastatin lowers serum cholesterol in familial hypercholesterolaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Below are drugs that affect noradrenergic neurons. Describe the function of them.

(i) Methyldopa
(ii) Amphetamines, clonidine
(iii) Cocaine, tricylic antidepressants
(iv) Monoamine oxidase inhibs

A

(i) Affects catecholamine synthesis
(ii) Affects catecholamine release. The former by indirectly acting sympathomimetrics. The latter by acting on alpha2 adrenoreceptors
(iii) Inhibs catecholamine uptake, NET inhibitors
(iv) inhibits catecholamine metabolic degradation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For alpha 1 what is the (i) main ANS location (ii) cellular response (iii) functional ANS response?

A

(i) CV, GI tract, GU
(ii) increase IP3 & DAG
(iii) vasoconstriction, smooth muscle contraction (GI sphincters & GU)

19
Q

For alpha 2 what is the (i) main ANS location (ii) cellular response (iii) functional ANS response?

A

(i) Neuronal
(ii) Decreases cAMP
(iii) Decreases transmitter release

20
Q

For beta 1 what is the (i) main ANS location (ii) cellular response (iii) functional ANS response?

A

(i) Heart, Kidneys
(ii) Increases cAMP
(iii) Increases cardiac rate & force
Renin release

21
Q

For beta 2 what is the (i) main ANS location (ii) cellular response (iii) functional ANS response?

A

(i) Lungs, Smooth muscle, Skeletal muscle
(ii) Increase cAMP
(iii) Bronchodilation, relaxation of visceral smooth muscle
vasodilation (sk. muscle) tremor

22
Q

What is the two main mechanisms of NSAIDs?

A

All inhibit COX but do so by 2 main mechanisms:

(1) An irreversible, time-dependent inhibition of the enzyme
(2) A rapid, reversible competitive inhibition of the enzyme

23
Q

Describe aspirin as an NSAID.

A

Part of the salicylates family, is a pro drug.
Inactivates COX
- aspirin acetylates the alpha-amino group of the terminal serine of the enzyme forming a covalent bond
- further synthesis of PG requires synthesis of a new enzyme
- found in plasma w/in 30mins
- peak conc w/in 1-2hrs
Can be metabolised to the active compound salicylic acid by plasma & tissue esterases (approx 70%)

24
Q

Describe ibuprofen as an NSAID. What group of molecules does it come from? Name another NSAID from this family.

A

Binds reversibly to COX & competes with arachidonic acid

NAPROXEN

  • are both well-absorbed
  • last for 4-6hrs (longer than aspirin)
25
Q

What are the unwanted side effects of salicylates?

A

STOMACH - bleeding, ulcers
SYSTEMIC - tinnitus, dizziness, impaired hearing, nausea, vomiting, hypersensitivity
METABOLIC CHANGES - acid/base balance affected
HAEMOSTASIS - blood coagulation affected through, and action on, platelets
CNS EFFECTS - stimulation initially, ultimately coma & respiratory depression
RENAL - insufficiency in susceptible patients & with chronic use & overdose

26
Q

What is an example of a fenamate?

A

Mefenamic acid

27
Q

Describe paracetamol (acetaminophen) as a NSAID

A
GOOD analgesic & antipyretic
Poor anti-inflammatory
- well tolerated in GIT
- weak COX inhibitor (may be a selective inhibitor of CNS specific, COX-3
Given orally, well absorbed 
- peak plasma in 30-60 mins
- half life = 2-4hrs
Fewer side effects than other NSAIDs. Major issue is hepatotoxicity....hepatic necrosis
28
Q

What drugs are selective COX-2 inhibitors? Give an example and explain their function.

A
COXIBS
E.g. celecoxib
- used for OA & Rheumatoid arthritis
- restricted for when traditional NSAIDs produce too severe GIT side effects
- CV risk needs to be assessed
29
Q

What drugs are used for (i) short-term analgesia (ii) Chronic analgesia?

A

(i) aspirin
paracetamol
ibuprofen
(ii) naproxen, diclofenac

30
Q

What NSAIDs tend to be used as anti-inflammatory?

A

Ibuprofen

Coxibs in OA & RA

31
Q

What is the preferred NSAID used as an anti-pyretic?

A

Paracetamol

32
Q

What drug is used for anaphylaxis?

A

Adrenaline

33
Q

What drug is used for asthma?

A

Salbutamol, salmaterol

- bronchodilation (b2)

34
Q

What drug is used for premature labour (i.e. to delay delivery)?

A

Salbutamol

  • Also terbutaline
  • relaxation of uterine smooth muscle (b2)
35
Q

What drug is used for cardiac arrest?

A

Adrenaline

  • vasoconstriction (a1)
  • increase heart rate & force (b1)
36
Q

What drug is used for cardiogenic shock (damage to heart, unable to supply enough blood to the organs of the body)?

A

Dobutamine

- increase heart rate & force (b1)

37
Q

What drug(s) are used for hypertension (elevated BP)?

A
Clonidine
- stimulation of pre synpatic a2 receptors to decrease NA release
- also has central effect
Prazosin
- vasodilation by blocking a1
Propanolol & Atenolol
- decrease HR & force by block b1
- decrease renin release by kidneys (b1)
38
Q

What drug is used for an upper respiratory tract infection (nasal congestion)?

A

Phenylephrine

- constriction of airway blood vessels (a1)

39
Q

What drug is used for atrial dysrhthmias (atrial fibrillations, with palpitations, rapid HR & inefficient cardiac output)?

A

Propanolol & Atenolol

  • decrease HR & force by block b1
  • decrease renin release by kidneys (b1)
40
Q

What drug is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia (swollen prostate causing problems with passing urine)?

A

Prazosin

- relax bladder neck & prostate capsule by blocking a1 receptors

41
Q

What are the 4 ways that ACh release is inhibited?

A

(1) Local Anaesthetics
(2) General inhalational anaesthetics
(3) Inhibitors/competitors of calcium
- Mg ions
- Some Ab (tetracycline, aminoglycosides e.g. gentamicin)
(4) Neurotoxins
- botulinum toxin (clostridium botulinum)
- Beta-bungarotoxin (Taiwanese banded krait)

42
Q

Apart from suxamethonium, what is another example of an agonist of the NAChR?

A

Nicotine

43
Q

What drugs does sugammadex reverse the effects of?

A

Rocuronium & Vecuronium