Week 3 - Pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

Pharmacodynamics describes the relationship between drug _________ and _____ of action at the ______ level.

A

concentration, intensity, receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most drugs act via an ________ with certain proteins either of the ____ or of the ______

A

interaction, host, pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

**Four types of protein are targeted by drugs:

A
  1. Enzymes
  2. Carriers (transporters)
  3. Ion channels
  4. Receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The term receptor is only used when the interaction triggers a _____ of events for _____ ______.

A

cascade, signal transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Binding site
First, the drug molecule and its _____ must interact.
The selective interaction must result in a response = ?

A

target, Lock and Key

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Drug responses more commonly reflect the interaction of the drug, acting as a _____, with receptor

A

ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Drug is a molecule that interacts with _____ molecular components of an organism to produce ______ and _____ changes/effects.

A

specific, biochemical, physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Drugs may be viewed as ________ ____.

A

exogenous ligands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Inhibitors →

A

Normal reaction inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

False substrate →

A

Abnormal metabolite produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prodrug

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Make cards for remaining

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cyclooxygenases are the target site for ______ and their inhibition leads to the ______ of ________ _______.

A

NSAIDs, suppression, proinflammatory prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acetylcholinesterase (metabolizes _______), is a target site for ________ inhibitors e.g., ?

A

acetylcholine, cholinesterase, neostigmine and physostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Antibiotics may act by _____ enzymes involved in cell ____ biosynthesis, _____ ____ metabolism and ____, or ______ synthesis.

A

inhibiting, wall, nucleic acid, repair, protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Enzyme as a Target: Cyclooxygenase-1 and 2

A

Do not need to memorize these mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) block the ________-_ and __ and stop thereby the synthesis of _________.

A

cyclooxygenase-1, 2, prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Enzyme as a Target: Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AChE is a ________ enzyme primarily found at
________ neuromuscular junctions, especially in ______ and _____.

A

cholinergic, postsynaptic , muscles, nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_______ breaks down acetylcholine (ACh) into _____ ____ and choline. The primary role is to ________ neuronal transmission and signaling between _____ to prevent ACh dispersal and ______ of nearby receptors

A

AChE, acetic acid, terminate, synapses, activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Carriers, also termed ______ _____ proteins, are _____ sites for many drugs.

A

membrane transport, target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Na+/K+/2Cl- symport in the nephron is the site of action of _______ and other _____ such as torasemide. The biophase (effect site) for all diuretics is the _____, not _____ to develop their diuretic action.

A

furosemide, diuretics, urine, plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Sodium pump Na+/K+ ATPase, ATP-powered ion pumps, are the target sites for __________ _______.

A

cardioactive digitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The ______ pump in the gastric parietal cells is the target site for proton pump ______ such as ______.

A

K+/H+, inhibitors, omeprazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Carrier as a Target: The Na+/K+ ATPase

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The molecular target of cardiac glycosides is the ___________, which maintains sodium and potassium gradients across the plasma membrane.

A

Na+/K+ ATPase,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Those gradients are required for the regulation of ___ _____, ____ transport of molecules or the creation and propagation of the ____ or ___ potential of electrically excitable cells such as _____ cells.

A

cell volume, active, action, resting, cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Carrier as a Target: NKCC Carrier

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The diuretics furosemide and bumetanide block the ____ carrier (?) causing a decrease in ____ reabsorption and a concomitant increase in water _______ by the kidneys.

A

NKCC, sodium, potassium, 2 chloride
carrier aka BSC = bumetanide-sensitive carrier, NaCl, elimination

this carrier was discovered with this drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Carrier as a Target: H+/K+ ATPase (Proton pump)

A

Omeprazole interacts with this transporter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Omeprazole blocks the activity of the _____ ______ in the ____ cells of the _____
reducing the secretion of ____ and the formation of _______ ____ (___)

A

H+/K+ ATPase, parietal, stomach, protons, hydrochloric acid, HCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Some drugs can produce their effects by interacting with ___ _____.

A

ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Voltage-dependent gated ____ channels are the main target of the most calcium-channel ______, such as the _________ drugs _____.

A

calcium, blockers, antiarrhythmic, verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ion Channels as a Target: Na+ and K+ Channels

A

Receptor 0, 1, 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Several antiarrhythmic drugs ____ ion channels located on the membrane of ____ cells, thereby altering the cardiac _____ _____ or its generation or propagation. This results in changes of the spread of _____ or the pattern of ______. Thereby, these drugs suppress ________ ______.

A

block, cardiac, action potential, activation, repolarization, cardiac arrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Receptors is a term reserved only for _______ proteins that play a role in _____ _______.

A

regulatory, cell communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

**Note, ______, ____ _______, and ______ are not classified as receptors

A

enzymes, ion channels, carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Some important properties of receptors are illustrated by the action of _______ (?) on the heart.

A

adrenaline, epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The β1 adrenoceptor serves as a recognition site for _______ and other ______. When ______ binds to this receptor, a train of reactions is initiated, leading to an ______ in force and ____ of the _____ ____.

A

adrenaline, catecholamines, adrenaline, increase, rate, heart beat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Adrenoceptor = ?

A

Adrenergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the largest family of receptors?

A

G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCR; metabotropic receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

50% of all commercial drugs act in a _____ ______ or ______. Many new drugs will probably be target ____.

A

GPCR, directly, indirectly, GPCRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

______ are involved in almost all physiological processes

A

GPCRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Examples of GPCRs

A

o Neurotransmitters (adrenalin, acetylcholine, dopamine, etc)
o Hormones (angiotensin, calcitonin, gastrin, etc)
o Olfactory stimuli
o Opioids

“Oh No Harry, Opioids!”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cell Signaling via G-Protein coupled Receptors (GPCRs)

A

GPCR receptor

Once a ligand binds to receptor, works in function with GTP protein. Once this reaction occurs, this protein can stimulate three different pathways (red, green, blue).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

GPCRs as Targets: Beta 2 adrenergic receptor

A

Receptor once activated works with protein G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Describe the function of the bronchodilatory albulterol.

A

The bronchodilator albuterol produces its effect through interaction with β2- adrenergic receptors (β2AR) located in the plasma membrane of airway smooth muscle cells.
The β2AR is linked to a stimulatory guanine-nucleotide–binding protein (Gs).
Albuterol binding to the β2AR changes the conformation of Gs, leading to the activation of adenylate cyclase (AC), which catalyzes the conversion of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP).
cAMP activates the protein kinase A (PKA) which leads to smooth muscle cell relaxation in the airways (bronchodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Receptor is a ______ or a ______ structure on the ______ of/or _____ a cell.

A

molecule, polymeric, surface, inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Receptors possess an _____ system called signal-transduction pathways.

A

effector,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A receptor recognizes and binds an _______ compound, also termed _____.

A

endogenous, ligands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Endogenous neurotransmitters, such as hormones, are __________ _____.

A

endogenous ligands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Drugs may be viewed as ?

A

exogenous ligands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

After attachment to a receptor site, a drug may produce ?

A

a cascade of biochemical events that result in drug action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Drugs ______ or ______ the actions of endogenous ligands

A

mimic, prevent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The distinction between agonists and antagonists only exists for ________ receptors. We cannot usefully speak of agonists for the other classes of drug target.

A

pharmacological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Types of protein targeted by drugs

A
  1. Enzymes
  2. Carriers (transporters)
  3. Ion channels
  4. Receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Agonist and Antagonist Ligands

A

Agonist interacts with receptor -→ induces?

Antagonist?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Drug receptor theories consist of a collection of _______ models that permit ______ and _____ description of the relationship between drug ______ and their ____.

A

evolving, qualitative, quantitative, concentration, effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

______ _____ was the first model proposed by Clark in 1923

A

Occupancy theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The receptor-ligand interaction was described as a ________ interaction and the _____-_______ complex was considered responsible for the generation of an effect.

A

biomolecular, receptor, ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The occupancy theory model assumes that drug response is a ______ function of drug occupancy at the _____ level.

A

linear, receptor

This model postulated that when there is more receptor occupied by agonist → greater reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The drug has to occupy ____ ______ to achieve a _____ effect (Emax) and the response is terminated when the drug ______ from the receptor.

A

all receptor, maximal, dissociates

Reaction is only possible with agonist or anatagnoist is bound to receptor. Once dissocaited, no reaction anymore.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Response is proportional to the number of ______ _____. The more receptors occupied by a drug the ______ the response.

A

activated, receptors, greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

In which Effect is the ______ effect; Emax is the _______ possible effect; kd is the _________ constant of _______ (a parameter measuring _____) and Drug is the drug _______

A

observed, maximal, equilibrium, dissociation, affinity, concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Agonist activates these receptors → very high Emax response.

Antagonist does not activate receptor.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

In the Occupancy Theory (Graded Activation Model)
• The unliganded receptor is _____ (no ____ activity)
• The level of response is explained by the concept of _____
• The more receptors occupied by a drug the _____ the response
• An antagonist is a drug with a ___ (molecular) efficacy but that blocks ______ to the _____ of other ligands.

A

silent, basal, efficacy, greater, null, access, receptor

67
Q

The physiological response produced by a ligand is _____ directly ________ to occupancy and it was evident that some drugs acting at the same receptor could elicit ______ maximal effects at maximal receptor occupancy leading to the notion of _____ agonist versus ____ agonist.

A

not, proportional, different, partial, full

68
Q

Today, the ____-____ model of drug action is consistent with the most observations of agonists and antagonists.

A

two-state

69
Q

The two-state model of receptors assumes that the __________ _______ exists in two extreme conformations with the _____ and _____ forms in dynamic equilibrium. This equilibrium may be shifted by the binding of _____ to the _____. It is the _______ change of the receptors from an _____ to ____ state that initiates
the pharmacological response.

A

receptor molecule, active, inactive, ligands, receptor, conformational, inactive, active

70
Q

Two-state model of receptors

A

Drug binding to R may shift the equilibrium in either direction

71
Q

Two-state model of receptors

A

R1 reacts with LRa, etc.

72
Q

An agonist is a drug with a _____ affinity for Ra than for __ will drive the equilibrium to Ra and thereby _____ the receptor.

A

higher, Ri, activate

73
Q

A full agonist is a drug is selective enough regarding ___ to drive all the receptor in its ____ state and get a _____ response

A

Ra, active, maximal

74
Q

A partial agonist is a drug that has only a ______ greater affinity for Ra than for Ri, its effect will be ____ than for a full agonist.

A

moderately, lower

75
Q

An inverse agonist is a drug with a _____ affinity for Ri than for Ra will shift the equilibrium towards ___ and will produce an effect ______ to that of an agonist.

A

higher, Ri, opposite

76
Q

A neutral agonist is a drug that binds Ra and Ri with ____ affinity will ___ alter the equilibrium between Ra and Ri, will have ___ ____ effect of its own, and will act as ______ antagonist.

A

equal, not, no, net, competitive

Antagonist is viewed as a neutral agonist in two-state model.

77
Q

Difference between classical receptor versus two-state model.

A
78
Q

In the frame of the two-state model, any drug is viewed as an agonist, and an antagonist is a _____ agonist producing no response. According to this model, efficacy is genuinely explained by the relative affinity of the
drug for ____ of the states of the receptor (activated or resting state)

A

neutral, one

79
Q

Example of two-state model of receptors

A

GABA-benzodiazepine receptor exists in two conformations:
• An active open channel conformation with high affinity for GABA and an inactive closed conformation with low affinity for GABA (the two forms are in equilibrium).
• Diazepam (an agonist) shows high affinity for the active conformation stabilizing the binding of GABA to the activated conformation.
• The inactive conformation would be favored in the presence of an inverse agonists

80
Q

A drug is said to be an agonist when it binds and activates receptors to _____ stimulatory effects of _______ ligands. It produces a measurable _______ or _______ response (characteristic of the receptor (e.g., ?)

A

mimic, endogenous, physiological, pharmacological, contraction, relaxation, secretion, enzyme activation

81
Q

Primary agonist: ?

A

A drug binds to the same site as the endogenous ligands

82
Q

Allosteric agonist: ?

A

A drug binds to a different region of the receptor

83
Q

Most anesthetic drugs
________ ______ _____ and disrupt corresponding physiological circuits.

A

allosterically modulate GABAR

84
Q

Full (pure) agonist: produces a _____ effect

A

maximal

85
Q

_______ and _______ are full agonist of opioid (___) receptors and able to initiate strong
analgesia.

A

Morphine, fentanyl, mu

86
Q

Partial agonist: produces only a _______ effect regardless of the ______ of drug applied

A

submaximal, amount

87
Q

_________ is a partial agonist. Even if it is unable to achieve a same level of analgesia provided by a full agonist, it may be preferred for _______ analgesia because it causes _____ adverse effects.

A

Buprenorphine, postsurgical, fewer

88
Q

Inverse agonist: produces an effect ______ to that of an agonist

A

opposite

89
Q

_______ and _______ are inverse agonists of H2 receptors

A

Cimetidine, ranitidine

90
Q

After attachment to the receptor site, some drugs may be _______ __ ______ any action on their own.

A

unable to trigger

91
Q

Antagonist are viewed as _____ ______ (drugs)

A

silent ligands

92
Q

Most drugs used in therapeutics are ________ ______ and prevent the action of natural agonists such as _______ and ________.

A

receptor antagonists, neurotrasmitters, hormones

93
Q

Butorphanol, a central-acting opioid analgesic, is mainly an ______ at the mu receptor but is an _____ at the kappa receptor

A

antagonist, agonist

94
Q

Affinity is determined by the ?

A

chemical structure of the drug

95
Q

Affinity determines the ?

A

concentration of drug required to form the drug-receptor
complexes that are responsible for drug action (biological response)

96
Q

Define the constant of affinity (Ka)

A

The numerical representation of affinity for both agonist and an antagonist is the

97
Q
A
98
Q

Efficacy is the drug‘s ability, once ______, to initiate _____ that lead to the production of ____

A

bound, changes, responses

99
Q

Efficacy is used to characterize the level of _______ _____ (___) induced by an _____

A

maximal response, Emax, agonist

100
Q

In contrast, a pure antagonist has ______ ______ _____ because it does not initiate a change in ____ _____.

A

no intrinsic efficacy, cell functions

101
Q

The efficacy term is not to be confused with the drug‘s _____ _____ whereby an antagonist may be fully efficacious

A

clinical efficacy

102
Q

Potency: ?

A

Concentration of drug required to achieve a given effect

103
Q

Potency is expressed by ?

A

EC50

104
Q

EC50 (ED50) Is defined as..

A

Concentration of an agonist which produces 50% of the maximum possible response for
that agonist.

105
Q

Potency can be used to ?

A

compare drugs with similar effects

106
Q

Potencies of drugs vary ______ with the numerical value of their EC50.

A

inversely

107
Q

The most potent drug is the ?

A

one with the lowest EC50

108
Q

Which drug is more potent?

A

A b/c EC50 is not high here.

The higher the potency, the lower the EC50

109
Q

A ___ _____ is only a disadvantage when the effective dose is too ___ to be convenient.

A

low potency, large

110
Q
A

The volume to be administered must be small and only
relative potent drugs can be administered this way

111
Q

The potency of an antagonist (the effect is an inhibition) is determined by ?

A

its IC50.

112
Q

IC50 is defined as?

A

the concentration of an antagonist that reduces the response of an agonist by 50%

113
Q
A

Drug C is a more potent antagonist than drug B

114
Q

Competitive antagonism: Antagonists act on the _____ receptor as the ____

A

same, agonist

115
Q

It is _______ ______ ______ when it can be surmounted by increasing the concentration of agonist

A

reversible competitive antagonism

116
Q

Agents acting by competitive antagonism

A

Atropine (an antimuscarinic agent)
• Propranolol (a beta blocker)

117
Q

In irreversible competitive antagonism, a _______ of the antagonist from its binding site cannot be achieved by ______ the
agonist concentration. There are few drugs of this type.

A

displacement, increasing

118
Q
A
119
Q

Irreversible competitive antagonism are used as experimental probes for investigating
_______ ______.

A

receptor function

120
Q

In the presence of a competitive antagonist the dose-response curve for an agonist is shifted to the _____ without a change in ____ or ______ ____.

What happens to potency?
What happens to Efficacy?

A

right, slope, maximum effect
Decreases
No change

121
Q

The ED50 of an agonist will _______ in the presence of increasing dose of competitive antagonist (its potency ________). Thus, it will take more _______ to achieve the same effect that occurred in the _______ of antagonist.

A

increase, decreases, agonist, absence

122
Q

Noncompetitive antagonism: ?

A

A drug blocks the cascade of events. The noncompetitive agonist acts like a “wedge” that prevents the normal chain of events from occurring. No amount of Agonist binding to the receptor will allow for the chain of events to occur. This is why the agonist’s Emax is reduced b/c the agonist’s normal maximal effect can not be reached.

This occurs with Ca2+ channel blockers, such as nifedipine, which prevent the influx of calcium ions through the cell membrane and nonspecifically block any agonist action requiring calcium mobilization

123
Q

In the presence of a noncompetitive antagonist, the maximal response (efficacy, Emax ) of the
agonist is ________

A

reduced

124
Q
A
125
Q

The drug receptor interaction is responsible for ?

A

the specificity of drug action

126
Q

A drug may be specific at a _____ concentration if it activates only ___ type of ____

(enzyme, receptor, etc)

A

low, one, target

127
Q

If the drug concentration is ______, ____ targets may be involved simultaneously

A

increased, several

128
Q

Most drugs can display activity towards ?

A

a variety of receptors. Specificity is unusual

129
Q

What are the clinical implications of the dose-response curve?

  • Increasing the dose of a drug when the response is sub-maximal will ______ the therapeutic effect
  • Increasing the dose of a drug when the response is maximal will ____ _____ the therapeutic effect but may elicit ____ effects
A

enhance, not improve, toxic

130
Q
A
131
Q

Efficacy is the parameter of interest for a ______ but potency may be a _____ factor if the drug has to be administered in a ____ volume

A

clinician, limiting, small

132
Q

Efficacy (Emax) gives information on the ?

A

maximum reachable effect of a drug

133
Q

Potency is an expression of the activity of a drug in terms of the _______ of the drug required to produce a _______ effect. It does not reflect how ______ a drug is.

A

concentration, desired, effective

134
Q

Each drug has its own ?

A

Emax and EC50

135
Q
A
136
Q

Partial agonist versus full agonist

A
137
Q

Partial agonist may be more or less potent than ___ agonists

A

full

138
Q

Buprenorphine
1. Is most often used as an analgesic for ___ to ____ pain.
2. Is not as effective as an analgesic as ___ agonist (_____).
3 Has a ____ agonist activity at the mu-receptor
and is considered __ times more potent than
morphine.
4 Shows a high affinity for ___-receptors in the CNS

A

mild, moderate, full, morphine, partial, 30, mu

139
Q

Efficacy of morphine vs buprenorphine vs naloxone?

A

Morphine > buprenorphine > naloxone

140
Q

Affinity of morphine vs buprenorphine vs naloxone?

A

Buprenorphine = naloxone > > morphine

141
Q
A

Affinity = capacity of the drug to bind to receptor.

Bupe has a higher affinity but the efficacy is not as high as morphine

142
Q

Clinical efficacy refers to the _________ _______ of the drug in patients. It is the ________ _____ effect that can be produced by a drug.

A

therapeutic effectiveness, maximal therapeutic

antagonist is to occupy the receptor binding site normally occupied by an agonist.

143
Q

Intrinsic efficacy describes ?

A

the capacity of agonists to activate a receptor

144
Q

Many useful therapeutics agents are ?

A

antagonists. Whereas these molecules exhibit NO intrinsic efficacy but they exhibit remarkable clinical efficacy

145
Q
A

Drugs A and B have similar intrinsic efficacies and can produce the same amount of cAMP accumulation.
Do these drugs necessarily have the same clinical efficacy to reduce blood pressure? No

146
Q

cAMP generation leads to ?

A

vascular smooth muscle cell relaxation which can lower blood pressure

147
Q
A

Drug B produces receptor coupling to machinery that increases cAMP throuhout the cell. Greater
effect on VSMC relaxation.
Drug A produces receptor coupling to machinery that increases cAMP only in certain regions of
the cell. Less effect on VSMC relaxation

148
Q
A

Despite drugs A and B each having the capacity to induce similar levels of cAMP production (similar intrinsic efficacies), therapeutically, drugs A and B have different abilities to reduce blood pressure (different clinical efficacies).

149
Q

Quantal responses are known as the relationship between the _____ of the drug and the ________ of a population of patients that _______ to it.

A

dose, proportion, responds

150
Q

Quantal dose-response curves are useful for ?

A

determining doses to which most of the population responds

151
Q

Parameters determined from quantal dose-response curves

A

ED50
TD50
LD50

152
Q

ED50
• Median ________ dose
• Dose at which % of subjects exhibit a ______ response to a drug
• in a graded dose-response curve ED50 = the dose of a drug that produces % of the _____ effect

A

effective, 50, therapeutic, 50, maximal

153
Q

TD50
• Median _____ dose
• Dose at which ____% of subjects experience a ______ effect

A

toxic, 50, toxic

154
Q

LD50
• Median ______ dose
• Dose at which ___% of subjects ____

A

lethal, 50, die

155
Q

What is the therapeutic index formula?

A

TI = TD50/ED5

156
Q
The therapeutic index (IT) of a drug is the ratio of the dose that produces \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in \_\_\_
the population (TD50) to the dose that produces a \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ response
(ED50) in \_\_\_\_ the population.
A

toxicity, half, clinically, desired, effective, half

157
Q

The TI is a measure of a drug‘s _______, because a ______ value indicates a wide margin
between doses that are ______ and doses that are ______.

A

safety, larger, effective, toxic

158
Q
A
ED50 = median therapeutic (or effective) dose
TD50 = median toxic dose
Therapeutic Index (TI) = TD50/ED50

In the example, TI = 300/100 = 3

159
Q

A CSF > 1 indicates that a dose effective in 99% of the population is _____ than that which would be _____ (?) in 1% of the population

A

less, lethal, toxic

160
Q

The therapeutic window is the range of drug doses that provides ______ efficacy with minimal _______ AKA the range between _______ and the _______ of the _____ curve.

A

therapeutic, toxicity, ED50, start, curve.

161
Q
A
162
Q

Penicillin has a ______ therapeutic index.

A

Large

163
Q

Label the chart accordingly

A