Week 3 Borch Flashcards

1
Q

Why are heart and lungs in series? Why are other organs in parallel?

A

Series – when input needs to match output – we want blood entering heart = blood leaving lungs, otherwise we have shunting or a mega fluid shift
Parallel – so that blood flow to one organ doesn’t have a huge effect to flow to other organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give overview of blood flow from Right atrium to vena cava. Give the general function of each part. Give relative pressures of each component of system.

A

RA – LA – PA (low pressure) – lungs – PV – LA –LV – Aorta/systemic arteries (high pressure) (conducting/distributing) – arterioles (resistance vessels) – capillaries (exchange) – venules – veins (capacitance) – S/IVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is portal circulation? Give 2 examples.

A

2 capillary beds in series. Liver and Kidney (ie filter organs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 3 layers and components of generic blood vessel wall.

A

Tunica Intima – endothelium, loose CT, internal elastic lamina
Tunica media – smooth muscle, collagen, elastic tissue
Tunica adventitia – collagen, external elastic lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the forces that help prevent edema. Describe the system that helps resolve edema.

A

Edema prevented by balance between hydrostatic pressure from the fluid column entering the capillaries (causing nutrients to be pushed out into tissues), and oncotic pressure from the luminal contents leaving the capillaries (ie osmotic pressure of proteins that can’t permeate the membrane, causing fluid to return to the vasculature.
If it occurs, lymphatic drainage helps re-circulate it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give 5 mechanisms for edema formation.

A

Increased hydrostatic pressure (ie heart failure and pulm edema)
Reduced oncotic pressure (conditions that cause low protein – nephrotic syndrome or cirrhosis)
Sodium retention (renal/heart failure)
Increased vasopermability (ie vascular collapse - anaphylaxis, sepsis)
Lymphedema – lymphatic obstruction
Effusion – fluid collection in a body space, not in an organ parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differentiate Effusion and Edema by definition and on medical imaging.

A

Effusion is specifically fluid collection in a body space.
Effusions will “layer out” with different body positions on imaging, due to effects of gravity.
Thorax – Pl effusion, Peritoneum – Ascites, pericardium – pericardial eff, General - Anasarca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hyperemia vs congestion?

A

Hyperemia – increase blood due to arteriolar dilation (ie increase inflow)
Congestion – increase blood due to venous obstruction (ie decrease outflow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Differentiate Left sided vs Right sided heart failure by symptoms.

A

Both will cause CONGESTION (construction on the interstate, blood gets backed up)
Left sided – traffic jam backs up into lungs, causes pulm edema and patient has SOB
Right sided – traffic jam backs up into organ systems, especially liver, and patient may have multiple sx, including ascites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Thrombosis vs Clot?

A

Thrombus is a clot that forms inside the vasculature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Name the 3 nefarious things that work in synergy to cause thrombosis.

A

Virchow’s Triad: vascular damage, blood stasis/abnormal flow, hypercoagulable state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Differentiate which organs will be effected by arterial and venous thromboemboli.

A

Arterial – break off on way from heart – get stuck in smaller arterioles – cause gangrene and small organ infarcts
Venous – break off on way back to heart, get pumped thru heart and stuck in pulmonary tree – cause Pulmonary emboli, acute infarct/loss of gas exchange ability in effected lung parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differentiate between red and white infarcts. Name two organs that characteristically have red infarcts.

A

Red – hemorrhagic
White/pale – ischemic
Lung and Bowel are usually hemorrhagic (remember, Liver is weird)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Differentiate among petechiae, purpura, and ecchymoses

A

Petechiae – 1-2mm hemorrhage in skin or mucous membrane
Purpura - >3mm
Ecchymoses – 1-2 cm (the classical “bruise”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

From LDL to complicated atheroma, describe the formation of atherosclerotic plaques.

A
Excess LDL gets stuck in intima, behind endothelium, oxidizes and causes local damage. 
This makes endothelium express inflammatory markers which flag monocytes to roll in and phagocytose the offending LDL particles.
The monocytes (now macrophages) have “bit off more than they can chew,” and get stuck, becoming “foamy macrophages” which cause even more damage to surrounding area.
Smooth muscle cells migrate in from media, proliferate and lay down more ECM, causing a mass effect to displace endothelium into lumen (the uncomplicated atheroma).
Over time, this may continue, and the endothelium over the atheroma may rupture, causing further inflammation and clotting factor activation, thrombus, etc. – the complicated atheroma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does necrosis look like on H&E? Why?

A

Red/Pink – no nuclei are left to be stained blue by the Hematoxylin. Mummified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Atrophy

A

smaller cells, less cells, less function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hypertrophy

A

Larger cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hyperplasia

A

more cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Metaplasia

A

change in cell type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What happens when a cell runs out of ATP?

A

Na/K Pump stops working – influx of Na, water follows, POP goes the cell!
Increase in glycolysis – lowers pH, enzymes stop working as well
Influx of Ca – binds/interacts with what it’s not supposed to, causing widespread damage by activation of autolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name 5 categories of Necrosis. Try to give examples of each.

A

Coagulative – firm, structurally intact (infarct)
Liquefactive – juicy, no structural integrity (abscess or brain infarct)
Caseous – cheesy (almost always TB)
Fat – fatty, within fat (pancreatitis, saponification, calcification), varying size of fat globules
Fibrinoid – assoc with fibrin deposition around vessels (microscopic only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 4 cell types that eat things (phagocytosis).

A

Neutrophils, Macrophages, Dendritic Cells, Mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 4 cell types that present antigens.

A

Dendritic cells, Macrophages, Mast cells, and B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name the major function of Mast cells, basophils, and Natural Killer cells. How are Killer T’s different?

A

Mast cells + basophils – histamine release, dealing with parasites, mediating allergic reactions

Natural Killer cells – kill anything that doesn’t express MHC1 (ie. Prevent cells circumventing the MHC1 “kill me now” pathway). Killer T’s will kill a cell showing something suspicious on its MHC1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name the cell type most associated with acute inflammation.

A

Neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name the 4 clinical signs of acute inflammation and their etiologies

A

Rubor (redness, from vasodilation), Dolor (pain – from inflammatory cytokines), Calor (heat, from vasodilation), Tumor (swelling – from increased hydrostatic pressure causing fluid transudate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the process of a neutrophil’s response to a chemotaxic signal.

A

Endothelium signals to neutrophil by expressing P-selectin
Carbohydrate moieties on neutrophil interact with the P-selectin on the endothelium, causing the neutrophil to “roll” along the endothelium
As the neutrophil slows, it arrests and spreads out, with integrins on the neutrophil interacting with I-CAM on the endothelium.
The neutrophil will diapedese (squeezes through) into the subendothelium and “sniffs” it’s way chemotaxically toward the offending source

29
Q

Compare/contrast phagocytosis and degranulation.

A

Both involve combining offending agents with noxious chemicals to kill them. Phagocytosis does this intracellularly (by combining phagosome with lysosome), degranulation does it extracellularly (cell literally spews out lysosomic contents onto the offending thing in the extracellular space – collateral damage!)

30
Q
State the inflammation type associated with the following pathogens:
Bacteria
Viruses
Mycobacteria
Parasitic
Fungal
A
Bacteria Neutrophilic
Viruses Lymphocytic
Mycobacteria Granulomatous
Parasitic Eosinophilic
Fungal Granulomatous
31
Q
Name the type of inflammation associated with the following:
Lymphocytes
Fibrosis
Angiogenesis
Neutrophils
Granulomas
Ulceration
A
Lymphocytes chronic
Fibrosis chronic
Angiogenesis chronic
Neutrophils acute
Granulomas chronic
Ulceration chronic
32
Q

Describe the Warburg Effect. How do we use it clinically?

A

Counterintuitively, cancer cells increase their use of the glycolytic pathways for energy production
The Warburg Effect’s increase in metabolic rate is the reason why WEIGHT LOSS is a cardinal symptom of cancer. It also allows us to visualize cancer on PET scan

33
Q

Differentiate the genetics of oncogenes vs tumor suppressors.

A

Oncogenes – dominant trait resulting from mutation of proto-oncogene that contributes transformation of normal to cancer cell.
Tumor Suppressor – act as genetically recessive traits, actively work to prevent cancer formation (thus, both must be knocked out before cancer transformation)

34
Q

Differentiate hyperplasia from neoplasia.

A

Hyperplasia – increase in number of cells in an organ in a response to a stress or signal - POLYCLONAL
Neoplasia – PERSISTENT abnormal growth of cells and tissue - MONOCLONAL

35
Q

Define Benign. Can you think of an example of a benign tumor that is not “benign?”

A

Incapable of metastasis.

A benign mass of the salivary glands, for example, can be locally invasive and can cause significant morbidity.

36
Q

Define Clonal Selection and Tumor Progression.

A

CS – initial set of mutations give advantage to one progenitor, which is the clone that is “selected for,” which gives rise to genetically similar offspring cells in the mass
TP – further mutations in this pool of offspring cells that confer additional survival and growth advantages

37
Q

Is “Dysplasia” Benign or Malignant?

A

Trick question. It is both/neither. It is a pre-malignant change that MAY regress to normal (ie “benign” behavior) or it MAY continue toward true malignancy. From a doctor’s point of view, dysplasia is VERY worrisome, and excision is usually indicated if possible/practical.

38
Q
Define the following cytologic features of malignancy:
Hyperchromasia
Loss of polarity
N:C ratio
Pleomorphism
Anaplasia
Mitotic rate
A

Hyperchromasia Literally “too colorful,” usually means darker and more blue (nuclear activity)
Loss of polarity Nuclei are everywhere, not just neatly in a line
N:C ratio Nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio. High N:C ratio = a cell that is mostly nucleus
Pleomorphism variation in cell size, shape
Anaplasia lack/loss of resemblance to what the cell came from
Mitotic rate indicated by presence of mitotic figures

39
Q

Differentiate Carcinoma from Sarcoma.

A

Carcinoma – malignancy of epithelial origin - Lymphatic spread
Sarcoma – malignancy of connective tissue/mesenchymal origin - hematogenic spread

40
Q

Nomenclature of benign tumors?

A

With suffix “oma”
EXCEPTIONS:
Lymphoma, Melanoma, Teratoma

41
Q

What is the general relationship between benign and malignant masses? What is an exception to this?

A

Benign masses DO NOT generally become malignant masses (ie. It’s not as if an –oma usually progresses to become a –carcinoma)
In the colon, the tubular adenoma can become colon adenocarcinoma

42
Q
Relate the following to invasiveness/malignancy:
Necrosis
Mobility
Encapsulation
Desmoplasia
A

Necrosis feature of malignant tumors outgrowing blood supply
Mobility less mobile (ie more “fixed”) a mass is, more malignant it is
Encapsulation well circumscribed, encapsulated mass is more likely to be benign
Desmoplasia desmoplastic response from surrounding tissue indicates likelihood of malignancy

43
Q

Describe the significance of the following:
Virchow’s node
Sister Mary Joseph’s node
Sentinel lymph nodes

A

Virchow’s node left supraclavicular node, likely site of metastasis for stomach ca
Sister Mary Joseph’s node umbilical metastasis, likely from pelvic ca
Sentinel lymph nodes first node to drain a region, likely site of metastasis for that region

44
Q

Describe the TNM system. What is the meaning of Tis?

A
T = tumor size
N = nodal invovlement
M = metastasis
Tis = “in situ,” which means high grade dysplasia, which cannot metastasize.
45
Q

What % of cancers are familial and what % are sporadic?

A

~25% familial, 75% sporadic

46
Q

Differentiate between initiators and promoters.

A

Initiators cause the direct mutation. Promoters act synergistically to encourage clonal expansion of cells that have been initiated.

47
Q

Differentiate those substances “known to be a human carcinogen” from those “reasonably anticipated to be a human carcinogen.”

A

Known – a direct causal link has been observed in human studies (epidemiological, human tissue, clinical trials)
RA – causal interpretation is credible but not proven in human studies OR it is clear in multiple species/tissues/exposures OR structurally related to a compound in the “Known” category

48
Q

Name the mechanism by which UVB light damages DNA and what defense the cell has against it.

A

Making covalent bonds between pyrimidines (T-C or T-T)

Cell has nucelotide excision repair (NER) machinery to cut them out and replace them properly

49
Q

Name the mechanism by which ionizing radiation damages DNA. Name the biggest source of ionizing radiation in the United States.

A

Causes double strand breaks and aberrant covalent crosslinks between strands
Radon

50
Q

Name the two targets of HPV and how this contributes to cancer development.

A

E6 upregulation, which binds to p53 (tumor suppressor) and causes it to be ubiquinated (destroyed)
E7 upregulation, which hogs all the binding sites on pRB, so the RB (tumor suppressor) is present, but cannot do its job
The result is disarmament of the G1/S checkpoint

51
Q

Name the cancer types associated with H. pylori.

A

Gastric lymphoma

Gastric adenocarcinoma

52
Q

Describe the sequence for programmed necrosis.

A

Extensive DNA damage recruits all available NAD (via PARP) for ADP-ribosylation
Depletion of NAD prevents glycosylation and oxidative phosphorylation, ATP production halts
ATP dependent Na/K pumps stop working, Na rushes in and cell bursts osmotically.

53
Q
Describe how the following are used to detect apoptosis:
IHC
Propidium Iodide
Annexin V staining
TUNEL
A

IHC signal-linked antibodies bind to activated caspases
Propidium Iodide Binds DNA quantifiably, looking for less than 2N amount of DNA correlates with cells that have had extensive DNA damage (apoptosis)
Annexin V staining This phosphatidyl serine is on inner membrane, but get’s flipped to outer membrane during apoptosis
TUNEL Probes for nicks in DNA

54
Q

Differentiate the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways.

A

Extrinsic – pro-apop ligands (TNFa) bind death receptors (TNFRs), which activate FADD, BID, which activates mitochondrial BAX,BAK, which activate effector caspases to execute the apoptosis sequence.
Intrinsic – cellular stress within the cell causes activation of BH3 proteins (Bim, Puma), which oligomerize BAX, BAK, which releases cytochrome C to activate initiator caspases, to activate effector caspases.

55
Q

What is required for apoptosis from p53 activation?

A

PUMA, Caspase 2 (initiator)

56
Q
State which pathway these are associated with:
BID
BAX, BAK
PUMA
BIM
FADD
A
BID Extr
BAX, BAK Both
PUMA Intr (p53)
BIM Intr (microtubule)
FADD Extr
If it ends in a “D” it’s from “Da Outside” (extrinsic)
57
Q

How do the inhibitors of apoptosis (IAPs) work?

A

Inhibit action of initiator caspase 9, effector caspases 3, 7

58
Q

Describe the relationship among BH3 family proteins, Bcl2 anti apoptotic proteins, and BAX/BAK

A

BH3 are sensitizers (repressors) of Bcl2 anti apoptotic proteins, and direct activators of BAX/BAK
Bcl2 anti apoptotic proteins repress BAX/BAK, and desensitize them from BH3
BAX/BAK control life or death (oligomerize to make a pore to let cytochrome C escape)

59
Q

Name the 5 mitochondrial proteins important for apoptosis.

A
Cytochrome C – to form apoptosome
AIF – degrades DNA, disrupts ETC
Smac/Diablo bind and inhibit IAPs 
Omi/HtrA2 bind and inhibit IAPs 
Endonuclease G cleaves DNA
60
Q

Name 3 families of proto-oncogenes that are often amplified in cancer.

A

Myc, Ras, Erb B

61
Q

Name the translocation, resulting protein, and treatment for CML. What technique would you use to find it?

A

t(9;22) (Philadelphia chromosome), BCR-Abl, tx with gleevec (anti bcr-abl)
Use FISH to detect where the two probes are co-located

62
Q

What is the most common genetic abnormality in Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

t(8;14) (8 = H, 14 = N) “Burkitt’s Lymphoma Has None

63
Q

What is the most common genetic abnormality in Acute promyelocytic leukemia (PML)?

A

t(15;17) (15 = O, 17 = Q) PML On Q

Easily treated with ATRA

64
Q

What is the most common genetic abnormality in Acute myelomonocytic leukemia (MML)?

A

Inv(16) (16 = P) MML inverts its P

65
Q

What is the most common genetic abnormality in Acute myeloblastic leukemia (MBL)?

A

t(8;21) (8 = H, 21 = U) and MBL Hates U

66
Q
Name the common chromosomal abnormalities associated with: 
Ewing sarcoma 
Meningioma 
Retinoblastoma
Aveolar rhabdomyosarcoma 
Synovial sarcoma
A

Ewing sarcoma t(11;22) (Ewing = 11, 2 words = times 2)

Meningioma monosomy 22 (Meni = mono, 2 n’s = 22)

Retinoblastoma del(13)q(14) (???)

Aveolar rhabdomyosarcoma t(2;13) (Rhabdomyosarcoma = so many letters! Practically the whole alphabet, 26 letters. Prime factorization of 26 = 2,13)

Synovial sarcoma t(X;18) (Syn = sin, have to be 18 to buy X rated movies)

67
Q

How do we determine if a cancer is dominant or recessive?

A

Based on phenotype (even if genotype acts opposite)

68
Q

Describe Knudsen’s two hit hypothesis, use Rb as an example.

A

You must knock out both alleles of a tumor suppressor before cancer can arise.
In Rb, if you have a mutation, you already have 1 hit, so you are wayyy more likely to develop cancer

69
Q
Describe the genetic defect in the following recessive syndromes:
Fanconi Anemia
Bloom’s Syndrome
Ataxia Telangiectasia
Xeroderma Pigmentosa
A

Fanconi Anemia chromosomes are extremely fragile, break easily (Fanconi = Fragile)

Bloom’s Syndrome helicase deficiency (excessive sister chromatid exachange problem) (Bloom = Flower Helix)

Ataxia Telangiectasia impaired ability to repair DNA damage from ionizing radiation (Telangiectasia Radiates ya)

Xeroderma Pigmentosa impaired ability to repair UV light induced DNA damage