Week 1 (chp. 1-5) Flashcards

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1
Q

What year was the DOT charges with developing EMS standards

A

1966

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2
Q

When was the NREMT founded

A

1970

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3
Q

NEMSS Act was passed by congress when

A

1973

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4
Q

Ambulance on scene within

A

9 minutes

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5
Q

1st to the scene, activate the EMS system, control the scene, and prep for ambulance

A

EMR (police)

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6
Q

Basic level medical and trauma care, transport to facilities

A

EMT

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7
Q

Provides additional advances level care

A

AEMT

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8
Q

All skills of EMT and AEMT with additional skills

A

Paramedic

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9
Q

You don’t need oxygen for about __ after cardiac arrest

A

10 minutes

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10
Q

Number one responsibility of EMT

A

Personal safety

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11
Q

An EMT should be able to carry up to

A

125 pounds

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12
Q

Continuous self review with the purpose of identifying aspects within the system that require improving.

A

Quality improvement

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13
Q

Physician who assumes responsibility for the patient care aspects of the EMS system,

A

Medial director

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14
Q

Standing orders issues by the medical director that allow EMTs to give certain medications

A

Off line medical direction

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15
Q

Protocols are developed by the

A

Medical director

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16
Q

Policy/protocol that authorizes EMTs and others to perform certain skills in certain situations

A

Standing orders

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17
Q
Most states require refresher training for E  M T  s every:
A.  1 to 2 years.
B.  5 to 7 years.
C. 2 to 4 years.
D.  4 to 5 years.
A

C

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18
Q
Who is accountable for the activities of E  M S personnel within
the E M S system?
A.  E M T–Intermediate
B. E R nurse
C. Medical Director
D.  shift commander
A

C

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19
Q
3.Which of the following is NOT a role or responsibility for an EMT?
A.  Transfer of care
B. Personal safety
C. Lifting and moving
D.   Providing medical direction
A

D

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20
Q

The level of E M S training in which the emphasis is on activating
the E M S system and controlling immediate life-threatening emergencies is:
A. EMR.
B. E M T.
C. A E M T.

A

A

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21
Q

Lists of steps, such as assessment and interventions, to be
performed in different situations by EMS personnel are known
as:
A. protocols. B. care directives. C. enhanced QA. D. EMD s.

A

A

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22
Q
What is one outcome of medical research for E  M S?
A. Evidence-based techniques
B. New E M S shift designs
C. Better E M S documentation
D. Improved ambulance design
A

A

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23
Q

The modern Emergency Medical Services (E M S) system has been developed to
provide what is known as….

A

Pre hospital or out of hospital care

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24
Q

The type of specialty hospital in which surgery teams are available on a round-the-
clock basis is the .

A

Trauma center

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25
Q

The specially trained E M S personnel who obtain information about emergency
situations from callers and who also provide instructions for emergency care to
callers are .

A

EMD

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26
Q

Ways EMT can participate in public health

A

Public vaccination programs, disease surveillance, injury prevention for youth and geriatric

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27
Q

Many states use the National Registry examinations as their

certification exams.

A

True

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28
Q

All body fluids should be considered

A

Infectious

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29
Q

Equipment that protects EMS worker from infection and exposure to danger

A

PPE

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30
Q

What kind of gloves are required

A

Vinyl or non latex

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31
Q

When should you change gloves

A

Between patients

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32
Q

Eye and face protection must cover

A

Front and sides

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33
Q

What masks should you wear if patient has tuberculous

A

N95 or HEPA

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34
Q

Wear gowns when…

A

Pregnant , multiple injuries, arterial bleed

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35
Q

Causes inflammation of the liver and can live on surfaces in dried blood

A

Hepatitis

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36
Q

Deadly, killed hundreds of health care workers before vaccine

A

Hep. B

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37
Q

Acquired through blood, food, or water contaminated by stool

A

Hep a

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38
Q

Infects lungs, airborne, highly contagious

A

TB

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39
Q

Set of conditions that results when immune system has been attacked by HIV, no cure

A

AIDS

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40
Q

Attacks immune system so that your body can’t fight off infection

A

HIV

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41
Q

Hemorrhagic fever, affected US in 2014

A

Ebola

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42
Q

Spreads through respiratory droplets

A

SARS

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43
Q

Found in poultry, not easily transmissible between humans

A

Avian flu

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44
Q

Pandemic flu, killed many in 1918

A

Influenza

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45
Q

OSHA standard on blood borne pathogens requires

A

Infection control to be the joint responsibility of employer and employee

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46
Q

Under the Ryan White CARE Act, the officials in every
emergency response organization who gather facts about
possible emergency responder exposure to infectious diseases
are the:
A. reporting officers.
B. logistics officers.
C. designated officers.
D. on-scene officers.

A

C

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47
Q

Allows EMS to find out if they have been exposed to life threatening diseases….

A

Ryan white care act

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48
Q
The test that can detect exposure to tuberculosis is the:
A. P S A test.
B. T  S T test.
C. S A T test.
D. Elisa test.
A

B

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49
Q

Equipment and procedures that protect you from the blood and
body fluids of the patient are referred to as:
A. infective body fluid measures.
B. isolated infection controls.
C. preventive control substance standards.
D. Standard Precautions.

A

D

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50
Q

The goal of critical incident stress debriefing is to:
A. assign blame for the incident.
B. assist patients to recover.
C. assist emergency care workers in dealing with the stress of an incident.
D. allocate funds for ambulance services.

A

C

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51
Q
The first stage of stress is also known as:
A. alarm reaction.
B. resistance.
C. exhaustion.
D. surprise.
A

A

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52
Q

The reaction to death and dying in which a patient seeks to
postpone death, even for a short time, is:
A. anger.
B. bargaining.
C. acceptance.
D. denial.

A

D

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53
Q

The agency that has issued strict guidelines detailing
precautions against exposure to bloodborne pathogens is the: A. U.S. Department of Transportation. B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration. D. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health.

A

C

54
Q
The three words that sum up the actions required to respond to
danger are:
A. run, regroup, reattack.
B. plan, observe, react.
C. observe, react, control.
D. evade, escape, eliminate.
A

B

55
Q
A delayed stress reaction is more commonly known as a(n):
A. overload.
B. toxicity.
C. burnout.
D. posttraumatic stress disorder.
A

D

56
Q

What happens in the alarm phase of stress

A

Fight or flight, sympathetic nervous system increase and more cortisol produced

57
Q

2nd stage of stress

A

Stage of resistance

58
Q

Stage 3 of stress

A

Exhaustion

59
Q

What stress reaction is linked to catastrophe

A

Acute

60
Q

Delayed stress reactions

A

PTSD

61
Q

Burnout stress reaction, results of years of low sustained stressors

A

Cumulative

62
Q

Stages of death and dying in order

A
Denial
Anger
Bargaining 
Depression 
Acceptance
63
Q

If hazardous materials suspected…

A

Notify haz mat team and don’t treat until decontaminated

64
Q

The 3 R’s in react

A

Respond (using distance and cover), radio (for help), and reevaluate ( don’t enter crime scene unless secured my police)

65
Q

The ___________________ ___________________ is the time between contact and first
appearance of symptoms.

A

Incubation period

66
Q

Hepatitis B and H I V/AIDS are examples of diseases that are transmitted by contact
with ___________________ .

A

Blood

67
Q

Signs and symptoms of a(n) ___________________

include the onset of difficulty breathing or chest pain just after a catastrophe.

A

Acute stress reaction

68
Q

The E M T’s first priority at scenes involving violence is to be certain that the
___________________ ___________________ ___________________ .

A

Scene is safe

69
Q

H I V/AIDS presents a greater risk to health-care workers than
hepatitis and T B.

A

False

70
Q

The proper use of your body to facilitate lifting and moving a patient is called

A

Body mechanics

71
Q

When would you use an emergency move

A

Scene is hazardous
Care of life threatening conditions requires repositioning
You must reach other patients

72
Q

In an emergency move… move the patients

A

In direction of long axis of the body

73
Q

Examples of emergency moves

A

Clothes drag, incline drag (head first), blanket drag

74
Q

When would you use urgent moves

A
  • Requires treatment can be performed only if patient is moved
  • Patient moved to support breathing or to treat shock or altered mental status
  • Factors at the scene cause patient decline
75
Q

Urgent moves usually involves

A

Moving patient to backboard and when spinal injury precautions are performed

76
Q

Head of the stretcher can be elevated for

A

Cardiac patients with no spine injury

77
Q

Power stretches are good for

A

Lifting patient from ground level, and reduce back injury

78
Q

__ are ideal when patients have difficulty breathing

A

Stair chair

79
Q

What board is great when removing patients from vesicles with possible neck or spine injury

A

Long board

80
Q

Place a __ on patient with suspected spine or neck injury

A

cervical collar

81
Q

Perform a __ when no suspected spine injury

A

Extremity lift, draw sheet method

82
Q

Positioning for someone who is unresponsive with no spine injury

A

Recovery position

83
Q

Patient with shock in what position

A

Supine

84
Q

When possible, it is safer and more efficient to move a patient over distances
on what device.

A

Wheeled

85
Q

Major cause of EMT injuries is __ while lifting

A

Twisting

86
Q

When using the power grip, hands should be kept at least

inches apart when possible.

A

10

87
Q

Usually patients are transported over rough terrain via a(n) __
stretcher.

A

Basket

88
Q

To slide a patient from an ambulance stretcher to a hospital bed, the E M T
would use the -
method.

A

Draw sheet

89
Q

When pushing or pulling,

, whenever possible.

A

Push

90
Q

Avoid reaching how many inches in front of body

A

20

91
Q

ApatientisfoundseatedinthefrontseatofaCarafteracollision. What board

A

Long backboard

92
Q

Anelderlywomanhasfallenbetweenthetoiletandthe

bathtub.

A

Scoop stretcher

93
Q

Ahunterhastwistedherkneeinthewoods.

A

Basket stretcher

94
Q

Afactoryworkermustbemovedthroughnarrowsectionsbetweenmachines.

A

Flexible stretcher

95
Q

Scope of practice vs standard of care

A
Scope= what you can do 
Standard = how you do it
96
Q

Informed consent=

A

Expressed consent

97
Q

Implied consent falls under

A

Assumed

98
Q

If unconscious patient…what consent

A

Assumed consent

99
Q

Involuntary transportation occurs if

A

Patient is a threat, court order, or decision by police or mental pro

100
Q

When patient refuses care.,,

A

Must be fully informed, legally able to consent, awake and oriented, asked to sign a release form

101
Q

Lawsuits against EMTs are usually classified as

A

Torts

102
Q

EMT failed to provide standard of care expected or failed to act

A

Breach of duty

103
Q

Patient suffered from harm because of EMT action or inaction

A

Proximate causation

104
Q

When handing off patient to hospital or others, you must hand them over to someone with

A

Equal or greater training

105
Q

Obligation to provide care to patient

A

Duty to act

106
Q

Allow person to drop off an infant or child at any fire stations police, or ems service

A

Safe haven, 72 hour infant

107
Q

Must report what kind of cases…

A

Abuse, human trafficking, violence, sexual assault, drunk people with injuries, or mentally incompetent with injuries

108
Q

Authority granted to a teacher or other adult by a child’s parents
to make treatment decisions in their absence is called:
A. res ipsa loquitur.
B. implied consent.
C. in loco parentis.
D. informed consent.

A

C

109
Q
Mentally competent adults of legal age who accept care from an
E M S crew are said to give:
A. guardian consent.
B. implied consent.
C. partial consent.
D. expressed consent.
A

D

110
Q

Minors who are married or of a certain age and who are legally
able to give consent for medical care are known as: A. emancipated. B. released. C. practiced. D. responsible.

A

A

111
Q

A legal document, usually signed by the patient and his
physician, stating that the patient has a terminal illness and does not wish to prolong life through resuscitative efforts is called a(n): A. res ipsa loquitur.
B. D N R order.
C. consent form.
D. P O L S T.

A

B

112
Q

A person whom the signer of a document names to make health care decisions in case the signer is unable to make such decisions is called a(n): A. proxy. B. assistant. C. designated agent. D. safe haven

A

A

113
Q

Legislative measures intended to provide legal protection for
citizens and some health care personnel who administer emergency care are known as: A. First Responder laws. B. E M S Acts. C. Helping Hands legislation. D. Good Samaritan laws.

A

D

114
Q
An E M T’s obligation in certain situations to provide care to a patient is
referred to as a(n):
A. standard of care.
B. scope of practice.
C. advance directive.
D. duty to act.
A

D

115
Q

A D N R order is one example of a(n):
A. Good Samaritan law.
B. confidentiality agreement.
C. consent form. D. advance directive.

A

D

116
Q

Once police have made the scene safe, the priority of the E M T at a crime scene is to: A. preserve evidence. B. contact dispatch. C. provide patient care. D. assist the investigation.

A

B

117
Q
The extent and limits of the job that the E  M T does are referred
to as:
A. duty to act.
B. professional practice.
C. limits of liability.
D. scope of practice.
A

D

118
Q
Simply stated, liability means:
A. moral responsibility.
B. ethical responsibility.
C. legal responsibility.
D. referred responsibility.
A

B

119
Q

When dealing with children and mentally incompetent adults, the
___________________ and ___________________ have the legal authority to give
consent.

A

Parents and guardians

120
Q

If all efforts fail and the patient does not accept your care or transportation, you must
have the patient sign a(n) ___________________ __________________

A

Release form

121
Q

The only time that confidential information about a patient may be disclosed is when
the patient has signed a(n) ___________________ ___________________ .

A

Written release

122
Q

List the two things that must be monitored frequently when transporting a restrained
patient.

A

Mental status and vital signs

123
Q

List the three conditions that must be proven for a legal finding of negligence to be
made against an E M T.

A

EMT had duty to the patient, didn’t provide standard care, or caused harm to the patients

124
Q

Patients who are mentally competent have the right to refuse medical
care.

A

True

125
Q

Patient lying on back

A

Supine

126
Q

Patient lying on stomach

A

Prone

127
Q

CPAP stands for

A

Continuous positive airway pressure

128
Q

The elbow is __
to the shoulder because the elbow is
farther away from the torso than the shoulder.

A

Distal

129
Q

What suffix describes inflammation

A

Itis

130
Q

The shoulder is __ to elbow

A

Proximal

131
Q

The term __ refers to a position farther away from the midline.

A

Lateral