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Exam 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

Whatistheminimumnumberofsafetypinsforeachtriangularbandageona
basiclifesupportambulance?

A

Three

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2
Q

Fortonsillarandflexiblesuctioncatheters,
whattwosizerangesshouldbe
equippedonabasiclifesupportambulance?

A

6F−10F;12F−16F

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3
Q

Whichreferenceisrecommendedforeverybasiclifesupportambulance?

A

Hazardous Material Guide

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4
Q

Whatcolorshouldbiohazardbagsbe?

A

Red

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5
Q

Alights-and sirenresponse
toanemergencycallisappropriate
when: A. lossoflifeorlimbispossible. B. nosafetyconcernsarevisible. C. trafficisheavy. D. morethanonevehicleresponds.

A

A

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6
Q

Moststatesallowanemergencyvehicleoperatortodoallofthe
followingEXCEPT: A. passaschoolbuswhoselightsareflashing. B. passothervehiclesinano-passingzone. C. proceedpastredlights. D. exceedthespeedlimits.

A

A

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7
Q

Toalertavehicleimmediatelyinfrontoftheambulancetoclear
theway,thebestthingadrivercanusuallydoisto:
A. turnonthesiren.
B. usethepublicaddresssystem.
C. usethehorn.
D. usetheflashers.

A

C

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8
Q

Whichlightsshouldnotbeusedasemergencylights?
A. Strobes
B. Rotatinglights
C. Four-wayflashers

A

C

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9
Q

Thesafestbackingupoftheambulanceisperformedwhen:
A. backupalarmsareoperational.
B. backuplightsarelit.
C. thedriver’smirrorsareproperlyadjusted.
D. thedriverhasaspotter.

A

D

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10
Q

Acommondangerwhenanambulancefollowsanescortvehicleis:
A. losingcontactwiththeescort.
B. creatingadditionalstressforthepatient.
C. confusionfortheemergencydispatchers.
D. followingtheescorttooclosely.

A

D

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11
Q

Thefirstemergencyvehicleonthesceneatacarwreckshould
park:
A. offtheroad.
B. onthesideofthecrashawayfromtraffic.
C. inawaythatblocksthewreckage.
D. ascloseaspossibletothewreckage.

A

C

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12
Q

Thefourstepsoftransferringapatienttoanambulanceinclude
selectingtheproperpatient-carryingdevice,packagingthe
patient,movingthepatienttotheambulance,
and:
A. informingdispatch.
B. contactingthehospital.
C. loadingthepatientintotheambulance.
D. performinganongoingassessment.

A

C

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13
Q

Thefourstepsoftransferringapatienttoan

ambulanceinclude

A

selectingtheproperpatient-carryingdevice,packagingthe
patient,movingthepatienttotheambulance,
and loadingthepatientintotheambulance.

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14
Q

Ifthepatientislikelytodevelopcardiacarrest,positionashort
spineboardorCPRboardunderneaththe
patient’smattress:
A. priortoinitiatingtransport.
B. ifthepatient’svitalsignsdeteriorate.
C. aftertransporthasbegun.
D. atthefirstsignofarrest.

A

A

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15
Q

Atthereceivingfacility,failuretotransfercareofthepatientto
hospitalstaffcouldresultinchargesof:

A

Accosting

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16
Q

Anambulancerunisnotoveruntil:
A. careofthepatienthasbeentransferred.
B. thePCRisfiled.
C. thevehicleisreadyforthenextresponse.
D. thevehiclehasreturnedtobase.

A

C

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17
Q 
Whentheambulanceisreadytoreturnto
quarters,thefirststepshouldbe
to:
A. informthedispatcher.
B. completethelogentry.
C. refuelthevehicle.
D. checkthelightsandsiren.
A

A

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18
Q 
Whencleaningambulancesurfacesthatwereincontactwith
bloodorbodyfluids,use:
A. ahigh-pressurehose.
B. aninfraredlamp.
C. soapandwater.
D. anEPA-approvedgermicide.
A

D

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19
Q 
Thefirststepofcleaninganyequipmentthattouchedthepatientisto:
A. hoseitdown.
B. sprayitwithagermicide.
C. immerseitinsoapandwater.
D. brushitclean.
A

D

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20
Q

Anoperationalreasontorequestairrescueis:

A. aGlasgowComaScalescoreoflessthan13.
B. prolongedextrication.
C. aheadinjurywithalteredmentalstatus.
D. apenetratinginjurytothebodycavity.

A

B

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21
Q

Ifyouhavetosetupahelicopterlandingzone,
itsminimum
sizeshouldbe:

A

100by100feet.

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22
Q

TheAmericanCollegeofSurgeonsisoneoftheorganizationsthathascreateda
listofrecommendedsuppliesfor .

A

Ambulances

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23
Q

Allemergencyvehicleoperatorsmust
demonstrate___ forthesafetyofthepublicwhen
drivingtheirvehicles.

A

Due regard

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24
Q

Anambulanceapproachingastoppedschool

busshouldwaituntilthebus’s flashingredlightsare

A

Turned off

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25
Q

Thebestplacementforthespeakerofan
ambulancesirenisinthevehicle’s

A

Grill

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26
Q

Most accidents involving ambulances occur on

A

Dry clear roads during daylight and in intersections

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27
Q

sequenceofoperationsrequiredtoreadythe

Patient to be moved

A

Packaging

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28
Q

Minimum of __ straps on stretcher

A

3

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29
Q

Theunconsciouspatientwhoisnotsuspectedofhavingaspinalinjuryshouldbe
shiftedintothe__ positiononceonboardtheambulance.

A

Recovery

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30
Q

Theminimumstaffingforthepatient
compartmentofanambulanceis
consideredtobe .

A

1 EMT

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31
Q

Ifapatient’spersonaleffectshavebeentransported,theEMTmayneedtogeta___
fromemergencydepartmentpersonnel

A

Written receipt

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32
Q

Theambulanceenginemustberunningif

coolantlevelsaretobeproperlychecked.

A

False

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33
Q

Ifapatientislikelytodevelopcardiacarrestduringtransport,placea___underthemattressbeforebeginningthetrip.

A

shortspineboard

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34
Q

What solution used to clean up blood

A

1:100 bleach/water

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35
Q

What ambulance most used

A

Type 1

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36
Q

Two components of ambulance readiness

A

Vehicle (driver) and equipment (crew leader)

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37
Q

Vehicle should be easily seen from __ degrees in

emergency response mode.

A

360°

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38
Q

To speed transport to distant trauma center, When extrication of high-priority patient is prolonged
and air rescue can speed transport, When patient must be rescued from remote location

A

Operational reasons

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39
Q

Call air rescue with GCS

A

10

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40
Q

A __ response means using lights and siren

A

Hot

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41
Q

Area of contamination or danger=

Decontamination corridor=

Where equipment and emergency rescuers are
staged=

A

Hot zone
Warm zone
Cold zone

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42
Q

Decontaminate people in the

A

Warm zone

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43
Q

▪ Residual product contamination ▪ More thorough

A

Secondary decontamination

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44
Q

Decontamination for patients not wearing P P E: Receive __ water rinse, starting at the head.

A

2- to 5-minute

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45
Q

NIMS is in charge of

A

Command

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46
Q

Senior person on first-arriving E M S will assume

A

Incident Command

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47
Q

• Foundation of system is speed, simplicity, consistency of application • Simple commands to patients • Patient evaluation based on R P M

A

START triage

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48
Q

Only three treatments provided during S T A R T triage

A

– Open an airway and insert an oropharyngeal airway.
– Apply pressure to bleeding.
– Elevate an extremity.

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49
Q

If pulse less than __ check pulse

A

30

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50
Q

If respirations more than __, priority 1

A

30

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51
Q

Not breathing and attempts to open airway do not start

breathing

A

Priority 4

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52
Q

Breathing, no radial pulse

A

Priority 1

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53
Q

Alert=

Altered mental status=

A

Priority 2

Priority 1

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54
Q

SALT triage

A

• Sort • Assess • Lifesaving Interventions • Treatment/Transport

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55
Q

Severe injuries who are likely to survive with

treatment

A

Immediate (color code red)

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56
Q

Serious injuries but are not tagged as Immediate

A

Delayed (color code yellow)

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57
Q

– Unlikely to survive given the available resources
– Receive treatment only after Immediate patients have
been moved forward

A

Expectant (color code gray)

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58
Q

performed at a patient collection point

or triage area

A

Secondary triage

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59
Q

arranges transport of patients

from the scene to the hospital

A

Transportation supervisor

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60
Q

The biggest problem in most

H A Z M A T incidents is

A

identifying the offending substance

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61
Q

You want to block scene

A

Upstream

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62
Q

How long is blockage

A

One and a half to two lanes

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63
Q

Position ambulances, command vehicles, and other

units

A

downstream from crash

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64
Q

Responders should always exit into the

A

safe zone

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65
Q

In close proximity to fires, emergency responder should

approach vehicle at a

A

45-degree angle (not head-on)

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66
Q 
15- or 20-pound class A:B:C dry chemical fire
extinguisher extinguishes almost anything burning.
A

Small fire

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67
Q

Utilize 4 × 4 wood blocks to build crib box if

A

Vehicle on its roof

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68
Q

Steps one and two: disentanglement

A

gain access by disposing of doors

and the roof

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69
Q

Step three: Disentanglement

A

disentangle occupants by displacing the front

end

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70
Q

Groups or individuals whose terrorist activities are

directed their own government or population

A

Domestic Terrorism

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71
Q

Groups or individuals whose terrorist activities are foreign
based and/or directed by countries or groups outside the targeted country or whose activities cross national
boundaries.

A

International Terrorism

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72
Q

principal

targets of terrorist attacks.

A

Emergency Medical Responders

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73
Q

Recognizing O T T O signs may help protect against

secondary attack.

A

– Occupancy or location – Type of event – Timing of event – On-scene warning signs

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74
Q

Anniversary dates of previous attacks

A

April 19

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75
Q

Caused by lack of oxygen in atmosphere

A

Asphyxiation

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76
Q

Results from any violent event

A

Psychological harm

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77
Q

Secondary and either at the scene or some time after

the event

A

Psychological harm

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78
Q

Systemic effects

A

Chemical harm

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79
Q

Sudden demand upon public health infrastructure

with no apparent explanation

A

Public health emergency

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80
Q

▪ Potential or actual point of origin located ▪ Attempts made to prevent or minimize damage and spread

A

Focused emergency

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81
Q

What is an exposure?

A

Dose or the concentration of the agent multiplied by

time

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82
Q

Four major routes of entry

A

Absorption, ingestion, injection, inhalation

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83
Q

– Material is present where it does not belong
– Material that is harmful to persons, animals, or the
environment

A

contamination

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84
Q

occurs when a substance is taken into the body through one of the routes

A

Exposure

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85
Q

Movement of a substance through a surface or, on

a molecular level, through intact materials

A

Permeation

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86
Q

Agents classified as poisons

A

Etiologic harm

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87
Q

Scene of clandestine laboratory

A

Chemical harm

88
Q

Self protection measures at nuclear or radiologic incident

A

Time, distance, shielding

89
Q

Possibility of extremely dusty conditions

A

Asphyxiation

90
Q

Typically seen at bombing incidents

A

Mechanical harm

91
Q

Operations occurring after written or verbal warning

received but before explosion takes place

A

Preblast

92
Q

Operations occurring after at least one detonation

A

Postblast

93
Q

Most effective, most common means

A

Respiratory Route

94
Q

Weaponization most effective when targeted through

A

Inhalation route

95
Q

Weaponization particles are __ microns in diameter

A

3-5

96
Q

Airborne dissemination can be created by applying

A

energy

to material

97
Q

__ boiling point and __ vapor pressure will evaporate more readily.

A

Low, high

98
Q

Nerve agent poisoning acronym

A

SLUDGEM

99
Q

Classification of chemical agents: choking agents

A

Predominately respiratory

100
Q

Classification of chemical agents: vesicating agents

A

Cause chemical changes in cells of exposed tissue

101
Q

Inhibit enzyme critical to proper nerve transmission,

causing out of control parasympathetic nervous system

A

Nerve agents

102
Q

Riot control agents

A

Irritating materials and lacrimators (tear-flow

increasers)

103
Q

Small, free-living microorganism

A

Bacteria

104
Q

Organisms that requires a host cell inside which to

live and reproduce

A

Viruses

105
Q

Like human body cells, they have an internal cytoplasm
surrounded by a rigid cell wall; unlike human body cells,
they lack an organized nucleus and other intracellular
structures.

A

Bacteria

106
Q

Anthrax, cholera, plaque, Q fever, and tularemia are all examples of

A

Bacteria

107
Q

Do not replicate, chemical compounds produced by living organisms

A

Toxins

108
Q

• Botulinum • Ricin • Staphylococcal Enterotoxin B (S E B) • Trichothecene Mycotoxins (T 2)
Examples of

A

Toxins

109
Q

Simplest microorganisms

A

Viruses

110
Q

Replicate only inside host cells, not easy to manufacture in large quantities

A

Viruses

111
Q

• Smallpox • Encephalitis • The Viral Hemorrhagic Fevers (V H F s)
Examples of

A

Viruses

112
Q

Effects of radiation

A

– Bone marrow
– Gastrointestinal system
– Central nervous system

113
Q

• Use more plausible than the use of nuclear devices • Not hard to obtain or initiate items • Specialized teams generally available to deal with

A

incendiary devices

114
Q

Blast injury lung injuries

A

Bradycardia, apnea, and hypotension from blast wave

115
Q

Blast injury for ears

A

Rupture of tympanic membrane

116
Q

Abdominal blast injury

A

Rupture of gas-containing section of intestine

117
Q

Blast injury brain

A

Concussion or MTBI

118
Q

provides information for the common terrorist weapons

A

D O T Emergency Response Guidebook

119
Q

Broad general plans designed to achieve desired

outcomes

A

Strategies

120
Q

Specific operational actions responders take to

accomplish assigned tasks

A

Tactics

121
Q

stockpile of
pharmaceuticals and medical supplies to be used when
local resources are used up

A

Strategic National Stockpile

122
Q

There are many different types of agents and weapons
that can be used by terrorists. ___ is used to
remember the different types. ___ is used to
remember the types of hazards posed by these agents.

A

C B R N E, T R A C E M-P

123
Q 
Whichofthefollowingroutesofentryintothebodyfora
biologicagentisseldomused
inaterroristsituation?
A. Absorption
B. Ingestion
C. Injection
D. Inhalation
A

A

124
Q 
Tacticsarespecificoperationalactionsresponderstaketoaccomplishtheirassignedtasks.Whichofthefollowingis
consideredatacticinregardto
dealingwithterrorism?
A. Process
B. Protection
C. Preparation
D. Protocols
A

B

125
Q 
Whichofthefollowingistheprimaryharmassociatedwithanuclearblast?
A. Chemicalharm
B. Psychologicalharm
C. Pressureharm
D. Thermalharm
A

D

126
Q 
Terrorismthatinvolvesgroupsorindividualswhoseterroristactivitiesaredirectedattheir
owngovernmentiscalled:
A. federalterrorism.
B. domesticterrorism.
C. internationalterrorism.
D. territorialterrorism.
A

B

127
Q 
Adestructivedevice,suchasabomb,placedtobeactivated
afteraninitialattackand
timedtoinjureemergency
respondersandothersis
calleda:
A. postincidentdevice.
B. primarydevice.
C. secondarydevice.
D. tertiarydevice.
A

C

128
Q

What does TRACEM-P stand for

A

Thermal harm, radiologic, asphyxiation, chemical, etiologic, mechanical, psychological harm

129
Q

Three causative agents used for biologic weapons

A

Toxins, bacteria, viruses

130
Q

What does SLUDGEM stand for

A 
Salivation 
Lacrimation
Urination
Defecation
GI upset
Emesis
Miosis
131
Q

Seldom route through biological agents enter the body

A

Skin

132
Q 
Therecommendedmethodofstabilizingavehicleonits
wheelsistouse:
A. three-stepchocks.
B. two-stepchocks.
C. stabilizationstruts.
D. ropes.
A

A

133
Q

Whenplacingcribbingunderavehicle,rememberto:
A. kneeldownwhilekeepingonehandonthevehicle.
B. squatdownandremainontheballsofyourfeet.
C. kneeldownwhilekeepingonehandontheground.
D. liedownandslipthecribbinginplace.

A

C

134
Q

Thetwotypesofvehicleglass

include:

A

laminated(containsaplastic

sheet)andtempered(breaksintoroundedpieces).

135
Q

Ifyou“trybeforeyoupry,”youcanoftenachieve:

A

Simple access

136
Q 
Aflatheadaxisusuallyrequiredto:
A. removeacrushedsteering
wheel.
B. breakthroughawindshield.
C. pryopenadistortedcardoor.
D. removeseatbacks.
A

B

137
Q

Theroofsupportthatisbetweenthefrontdoorandtheback

doorofafour doorsedaniscalledthe:

A

B post

138
Q

WhichofthefollowingisNOTanadvantagetodisposingofa
carroofduringextrication?
A. Itgivesaccesstotheentireinterior.
B. Itavoidsaccidentalairbagdeployment.
C. Itprovidesalargeexitforoccupantremoval.
D. Itprovidesfreshairforpatientandrescuers.

A

B

139
Q 
Thethirdandlaststepofthe
three partactionplanfor
disentanglinga
patienttrappedinavehicleis
to:
A. displacethedoors.
B. disposeoftheroof.
C. disentanglethepatient.
D. displacethefrontend.
A

D

140
Q 
Ifacar’sbatterymustbe
disconnected,then:
A. disconnectthepositivecable
first.
B. disconnectthenegativecable
first.
C. disconnectbothcables
simultaneously.
D. simplyturnofftheignition.
A

B

141
Q 
Whicharticleofprotectiveequipmentprovidesanacceptable
levelofheadprotection?
A. Bumpcap
B. Firefighter’shelmet
C. Uniformcap
D. Bicyclist’shelmet
A

B

142
Q 
Thebesteyeprotectionatavehiclecollisionisprovidedby:
A. sunglasses.
B. safetyglasses.
C.hingedplastichelmetshields
D.safetygoggleswithsoftvinyl
framesandindirectventing.
A

D

143
Q 
ThefirsttrafficwarningdevicethatanEMTusuallyplacesat
thesceneofavehiclecollisionis:
A. areflectiveroadsign.
B. theflagperson.
C. aflare.
D. theambulance’sflashinglights.
A

D

144
Q

A“groundgradient”atthe

sceneofawreckposestheriskof:

A

Electrocution

145
Q 
WhichburningmaterialCANNOTbeextinguishedwithan
A:B:Cfireextinguisher?
A. Acar’supholstery
B. Fuel
C. Magnesium
D. Electricalcomponents
A

C

146
Q

Whenencounteringanemptyvehiclewiththeengineonfire
andthehoodtightlyclosed,theEMTshould:
A. sprayafireextinguisherupfromunderneaththevehicle.
B. openthehoodfully,stand
closetotheA post,andsprayacrossthe
engine.
C. openthehooduptothesafetylatch,inserttheextinguisher
nozzleinanyopening,andspray.
D. leavethehoodclosedtight,andletthefireburn.

A

D

147
Q

Gettingintoavehiclebyopeningadoororrollingdowna

windowiscalled

A

Simple access

148
Q

preventscardoorsfromflyingopenduring

impact.

A

Nader pin

149
Q

Thereare___________________ phasesofthepatientextricationorrescueprocess.

A

10

150
Q

Withoutheavyhydraulicrescuetools,aroofcanberemovedquicklywith
___________________ andacanofspraylubricant.

A

Hacksaw

151
Q

WhentheEMTisapproachingascenewithwiresdown,the
EMTmayfeelatingling
inthelegsasaresultofa
phenomenoncalled___________________ ___________________ .

A

Ground gradient

152
Q

Two actions an EMT can take if they encounter a ground gradient is

A

Turn 180°, shuffle away from danger area

153
Q

According to the Department of Transportation, a hazardous material is a
substance that:
A. can explode.
B. can cause death.
C. poses an unreasonable risk to health, safety, and property when transported.
D. does not meet O S H A guidelines for workplace and product safety.

A

C

154
Q 
Which minimum level of training should all E  M S responders have according
to the federal government?
A. Hazardous Materials Specialist
B. First Responder Operations
C. Hazardous Materials Technician
D. First Responder Awareness
A

D

155
Q

A safe zone should NOT be

a chemical spill.

A

Downwind

156
Q

The medical treatment area that E M S is responsible for setting up to receive
decontaminated patients is done in the:

A

Cold zone

157
Q

Secondary contamination occurs when a: A. noncontaminated person enters the hot zone. B. patient has been exposed to two or more chemicals. C. contaminated person contacts a noncontaminated person. D. change in conditions—for example, a wind shift—enlarges the hot zone.

A

C

158
Q

The U.S. Department of Transportation requires that vehicles carrying
hazardous materials display:

A

Labels or place cards

159
Q 
A common placarding system used to mark fixed structures that contain hazardous materials is the: 
A. N F  P A 704 System.
B. D O  T U N System.
C. C H E M T R E C System.
D. S D S System.
A

A

160
Q

The basic responsibilities of E M T s at a hazardous materials incident are to
take care of the injured and:
A. monitor and rehabilitate
H A Z M A T team members.
B. decontaminate those leaving the hot zone.
C. provide support to
H A Z M A T team members as requested in the hot zone.
D. all of the above.

A

A

161
Q

The most common M C I (or M C S) is a:

A

Car crash w three or more patients

162
Q 
The manageable span of control over people involved in an M  C I is:
A. 3–74-8.
B. 4–8.
C. 5–105.
D. 12–15.
A

A

163
Q

During an M C I, as much communication as possible between Command and Command’s direct subordinates should be:

A

Face to face

164
Q

A quick assessment of patients and assigning of priorities for treatment or
transport is called:

A

Triage

165
Q

During an M C I, radio communications from the scene of the incident to the
receiving hospitals should be handled by the:

A

Transportation supervisor

166
Q

The 24-hour emergency chemical information and assistance center reachable at
800-424-9300 is .

A

CHEMTREC

167
Q

The N F P A 704 System is seen on

.

A

Fixed facilities

168
Q

An event that by its nature challenges or hampers an
E M S system’s ability to
respond to it is a(n)

A

MCI

169
Q

The organizational structure that provides a framework for managing large-scale
M C I s is the

A

ICS

170
Q

Where does fertilization occur

A

Fallopian tubes

171
Q

Uterus can hold ml normally and ml during pregnancy

A

5,500

172
Q

Muscular ring separating uterus and vagina

A

Cervix

173
Q

How many weeks gestation needed for survival

A

20

174
Q

Fetal stage begins around

A

8

175
Q

Heart beat forms

A

15-18 days after conception

176
Q

How many weeks of pregnancy

A

40

177
Q

Fluid that allows fetus to float, cushions fetus, maintains fetal body temperature

A

Amniotic sac

178
Q

During pregnancy, CV system makes

A

50% more RBCs by 2nd tri

179
Q

Pregnant women increased cardiac output more prone to

A

Pulmonary embolism

180
Q

Placenta, infant, and fluid total

A

20-24 pounds

181
Q

Irregular, non sustained, and not indicative of impending delivery-false pregnancy pains

A

Braxton hicks contractions

182
Q

Fetus movement from high in abdomen down to birth canal

A

Lightening

183
Q

Baby may be imminent when contractions last

A

30s-1 min and 2-3 mins apart

184
Q

Meconium standing indicated

A

Fetal distress

185
Q

Third labor stage lasts

A

10-20 mins

186
Q

Gravita, pera

A

G: number of pregnancies
P: number of living children

187
Q

Newborn=

Neonate=

A

Within two hours

28 days of life

188
Q

Give narcan to pregnant women at what week and after

A

35

189
Q

Deep fundus massage role

A

Release oxytocin for vasoconstriction to stop hemorrhage

190
Q

Apply clamps on umbilical cord

A

10 and 7 inches from baby

191
Q

If shallow, slow, gasping, or absent, provide pos. Pressure ventilations of neonate at

A

40-60 pre minute

192
Q

In neonate, if less than __ bpm, continue pos pressure ventilations

If less than __ begin chest compressions at __

A

100

60,120

193
Q

Most common abnormal delivery

A

Breech presentation

194
Q

When placenta blocks birth canal

A

Placenta previa

195
Q

Tearing pain, placenta prematurely separates from uterine wall, usually caused by trauma

A

Abruptio placenta

196
Q

Ectopic pregnancy vitals

A

Low BP
Rapid weak pulse
Pain on one side

197
Q

Seizure in pregnancy vitals

A

Preeclampsia, weight gain, swelling

198
Q

Pregnant patients pulse beats __ faster

Blood loss may be __% before signs and symptoms appear

A

10-15

30-35

199
Q

Displace uterus in cpr if child more than

A

20 weeks

200
Q

Obesity is a body mass index (B M I) of

A

30 or more

201
Q

BMI is

A

(weight in pounds/ height in Inches)^2 x 703

202
Q

Use the mnemonic __when treating a patient with Autsim

A

ABCS

Awareness
Basic
Calm
Safety

203
Q

occurs after birth and

may be cause by exposure, trauma, or a medical condition

A

Acquired diseases

204
Q

present at birth that

may or may not be genetic

A

Congenital

205
Q

Biphasic continuous positive airway pressure

(B i P A P) devices provide

A

Inhalation, exhaustion assistance

206
Q

blow oxygen under constant low pressure
▪ They prevent collapse of airway passages
▪ They are often prescribed for sleep apnea

A

CPAP

207
Q

ICS considers how many people manegable span

A

3-7

208
Q

single incident managed by

unified incident command manged by

A

fire services

police, ems, public works

209
Q

first steps of incident command phase

A

scene size up and triage

organization/delegation

210
Q

uncoordinated or undirected activity at the scene

A

freelancing

211
Q

SALT uses a ~~ of patients based on priority when moving them away from incident

A

forward movement

212
Q

management system used by federal, state, and local government to manage emergencies in US

A

NIMS

213
Q

subset of NIMS designed for MCIs

A

ICS

214
Q

ambulances command vehicles etc should be positioned __ from crash

A

downstream

215
Q

what class extinguisher should be used for nickels metal hydride batteries

A

class D

EMT (8 decks)

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