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This is fun > Wed > Flashcards

Wed Flashcards

1
Q

unsafe swallow post stroke

A

nil by mouth with IV fluids and refer to SALT

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2
Q

first line investigation for stroke

A

CT

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3
Q

which lobe is broca’s area in

A

frontal

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4
Q

which lobe is wernicke’s area in

A

temporal

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5
Q

which artery is most common for thromboembolic infarcts

A

middle cerebral

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6
Q

post alteplase next step in acute stroke management

A

300mg aspirin for 2 weeks after alteplase

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7
Q

gram -ve are

A

diplococci and bacilli

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8
Q

diplococci

A

neisseia meningitidis and gonorrhoreae

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9
Q

baccili

A

bordatella
H influenzae
coliforms
pseudomonas
campylobactor

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10
Q

treatment for coliforms

A

gentamicin

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11
Q

gentamicin what type of antibiotic

A

aminoglyxosides

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12
Q

anaerobes

A

clostridium
bacteriocides

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13
Q

treatment for anaerobes

A

metronidazole

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14
Q

alpha hameolysis

A

strep pneumonia and viridans

partial

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15
Q

beta haemolysis

A

group A strep pyogens
group b

complete

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16
Q

gamma haemolysis

A

none

enterococcus

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17
Q

norovirus

A

1-2 days incubation

shellfish

crowds

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18
Q

E. coli

A

1-3 days incubation

feacal oral route

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19
Q

rotavirus , adenovirus

A

10h - 3 days incubation

fecal oral route

gastroenteritis in kids

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20
Q

listeria monocytogenes

A

1 day incubation

processed meats, soft cheese, pate

pregnancy

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21
Q

inflammatory diarrhea

A

fever, mucus stool , bloody stool

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22
Q

salmonella

A

1-3 days incubation

poultry
eggs
meat
fish
milk

petting zoos

inflammatory diarrhea

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23
Q

campylobactor

A

1-3 days incubation

poultry
meat
milk

animal contact

inflammatory diarrhea

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24
Q

shigella

A

1-3 days incubation

men who have sex with men
crowds

inflammatory diarrhea

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25
Q

CURB 65

A

for pneumonia

confusion

urea>7

RR>or equal 30

BP <90/60

age> or equal to 65

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26
Q

Community-Acquired Pneumonia pathogens

A

strep pneumonia and H. influenzae

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27
Q

klebsiella CAP

A

alcoholics or lung disease

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28
Q

candida

A

cottage cheese thick discharge

fungus

vaginal- thrush

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29
Q

Vulvovaginal Candidiasis complications

A

spread to groin, satelite regions

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30
Q

Vulvovaginal Candidiasis treatment

A

clotrimazole cream

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31
Q

bacterial vaginosis signs

A

thin grey discharge

clue cells

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32
Q

bacterial vaginosis treatment

A

metronidazole

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33
Q

medications risk factor for c diff

A

ppi - omeprazole

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34
Q

treatment for tb

A

isoniazid
rifampicin
ethambutol
pyrazinamide
2 months

isoniazid and rifampicin for extra 4 months

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35
Q

side effects of tb treatment for all meds

A

liver toxic

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36
Q

side effect of Isoniazid

A

Peripheral neuropathy

Vit B6 for this

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37
Q

side effect of Rifampicin

A

turns pee orange

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38
Q

Ethambutol side effect

A

visual

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39
Q

side effect of Pyrazinamide

A

Hyperuricaemia

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40
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia treatment

A

Carbamazepine

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41
Q

Cervical Spondylosis/myelopathy

A

age-related degenerative condition of the cervical spine

cervical osteoarthritis

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42
Q

myelopathy

A

injury to spinal cord by trauma degenerative disease or disc herniation

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43
Q

Cervical Spondylosis/myelopathy symptoms

A

upper limb paresis

neck pain

hand paresis

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44
Q

Cervical Spondylosis/myelopathy treatment

A

NSAIDS

surgery if this doesn’t work

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45
Q

screening for trisomy 21 types

A

Combined Test

Triple Test

Quadruple Test

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46
Q

Combined Test

A

Nuchal translucency using ultrasound scan

PAPP-A hormone - reduced

Beta-hCG hormone- raised

47
Q

when is combined test done

A

11 and 13 weeks of pregnancy in the first trimester

48
Q

triple test

A

Beta-hCG

AFP - reduced

uE3 - reduced

49
Q

Quadruple Test

A

Beta-hCG

AFP - reduced

uE3 - reduced

Inhibin-A levels -raised

50
Q

when to do triple test in pregnancy

A

16-18 weeks

51
Q

first trimester

A

12 weeks

52
Q

second trimester

A

13-26

53
Q

what to give at pre term labour

A

corticosteroids- lung maturation

tocolytics- prevent contractions

penicillin- if infection

54
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

A

shingles affecting the nerve supplying the outer ear

immunosuppression like methotrexate

55
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome symtoms

A

facial nerve palsy

painful ear with blisters

inflamed ear drum

56
Q

Ramsay Hunt Syndrome treatment

A

Antiviral agents

57
Q

Breast cyst

A

tender

moves

gets bigger and tender before period

58
Q

phyllodes tumour

A

stretches skin

cancer of connective tissue

40+

stromal and epithelial fragments

‘leaf like’

59
Q

fat necrosis of breast

A

after trauma

irregular lump

60
Q

mastitis organism and treatment

A

staph aures

flucloaxcillin

61
Q

Intraductal papilloma

A

growth in milk ducts

bloody discharge

62
Q

Active second stage of labour

A

full cervical dilatation 10cm

active maternal pushing

can see baby

63
Q

Passive second stage of labour

A

full dilatation

not active pushing

64
Q

Latent first stage of labour

A

regular painful contractions

cervical changes- effacement

dilatation up to 4cm.

65
Q

screening test for gestational diabetes

A

75g 2-hour Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)

24-28 weeks

66
Q

treatment for gestational

A

if fasting glucose <7 then lifestyle modifications for 1-2 weeks

then metformin

> or equal to 7 then insulin

67
Q

goal fasting glucose for gestational diabetes

A

5.3

68
Q

folate

A

b9

69
Q

Cervical ectropion

A

young people

pregnancy

COCP

high levels of oestrogen trigger an enlargement of the cervix, causing eversion of the endocervical canal, which appears as a red ring

70
Q

parkinsons tremor

A

at rest
3-5Hz

71
Q

Schizophrenia

A

positive and negative symptoms

72
Q

postive symptoms

A

hallucinations- speaking to someone not there

delusions

thought disorders

control issues

broadcasting of thoughts

73
Q

negative symptoms

A

alogia- speaking less

anhedonia- lack of interest and pleasure in things used to

avolition- lack of motivation

74
Q

types of Schizophrenia

A

paranoid

catatonic

Hebephrenic

residual

simple

75
Q

Catatonic Schizophrenia

A

motor

waxy flexibility- resistance to being moved

76
Q

Hebephrenic Schizophrenia

A

disorganized thinking, emotions, and behavior.

77
Q

Residual Schizophrenia

A

Residual symptoms persist after a major episode.

78
Q

Simple Schizophrenia

A

gradual decline in functioning without prominent positive symptoms.

79
Q

Schizophrenia acute management

A

sedatives

lorazepam, promethazine, or haloperidol

80
Q

Schizophrenia medication when resistant to 2 antipsycotics

A

clozapine

81
Q

treatment of oestrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer in premenopausal women.

A

Tamoxifen

82
Q

treatment of HER2 breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

83
Q

vaccine for tb

A

BCG

84
Q

most common cause of food poisoning

gram stain

A

Campylobacter jejuni

gram -ve rods

85
Q

second most common cause of food poisoning

gram stain

A

Salmonella enteritidis

-ve

86
Q

TNM staging

A

Small tumours under 2cm in size score T1

N1 if less than 4 close nodes affected

more than 9= N3

87
Q

tertiary Syphilis or neurosyphilis

A

Argyll Robertson pupil

pupil is constricted and does not react to light but does react to the accommodation reflex

only happens when left untreated

88
Q

meningitis treatment

A

2g of IV ceftriaxone twice daily

IV amoxicillin/chloramphenicol age extremes for listeria coverage

viral encephalitis= IV aciclovir

89
Q

Ductal carcinoma pathology

A

irregular

large nuclei

90
Q

Lobular carcinoma pathology

A

small

round

uniform

91
Q

Mammary-duct ectasia

A

dilation and thickening of the lactiferous ducts

blockage of the ducts

accumulation of fluid.

92
Q

Mammary-duct ectasia symptoms

A

thick, sticky green or yellow nipple discharge with nipple inversion

93
Q

most common type of vulval cancer

A

SSC

94
Q

Intracranial haemorrhages

A

extradural haemorrhage

subdural haemorrhage

subarachnoid haemorrhage

95
Q

extradural haemorrhage

A

trauma to pterion

CT- biconvex haematoma

acute severe headache and contralateral hemiplegia

96
Q

trauma to the pterion causes

A

tearing of the middle meningeal artery.

97
Q

SUBDURAL HAEMORRHAGE

A

gradually increasing headache and confusion

CT- crescent-shaped haematoma

98
Q

RF for subdural haemorrhage

A

age

alcoholism

anticoagulation

99
Q

SUBARACHNOID HAEMORRHAGE

A

acute severe headache - back of head

CT- white centre of brain

causes traumatic or spontaneous

100
Q

cause of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

damage to circle of willis

101
Q

uterine fibroids

A

benign tumour of endometrium

uterine leiomyomas,

102
Q

uterine fibroids symptoms

A

menorrhagia- heavy periods

dysmenorrhoea- painful periods

mass

infertility if v big

103
Q

management of small uterine fibroids

A

NSAIDs

anti-fibrinolytics- transamenic acid

Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (Mirena).

104
Q

management of big uterine fibroids

A

myomectomy

105
Q

viral meningitis on lumbar puncture and pathogen

A

Lymphocytes and slightly raised protein- CSF

enterovirus

106
Q

bacterial meningitis pathogens and lumbar puncture

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Neisseria meningitidis

Haemophilus influenzae

raised protien, low glucose , clear

107
Q

bacterial meningitis treatment

A

IV ceftriaxone

108
Q

risk factors for haemorraghic stroke

A

age

male

haemophilia

anti-coagulation

sympathomimetic drugs - cocaine and amphetamines for ADHD

109
Q

mumps

A

parotid swelling

110
Q

measles

A

conjunctivitis and grey (Koplik spots) mouth

111
Q

Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

A

nulliparous women

vomiting, and jaundice

management- delivery

112
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia

A

accumulation of methaemoglobin

haemoglobin unable to bind oxygen

113
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia symptoms

A

cyanosis

SoB

headache

dizziness

fatigue

114
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia treatment

A

o2

methylene blue

ascorbic acid supplementation

This is fun (6 decks)

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