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ShepardAirCards > Weather > Flashcards

Weather Flashcards

1
Q

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the

A

B) airplane will stall before it reaches the maximum load factor.

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2
Q

A characteristic of the stratosphere is

A

A) relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.

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3
Q

The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is

A

B) 37,000 feet.

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4
Q

Which feature is associated with the tropopause?

A

A) Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

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5
Q

How much colder than standard temperature is the forecast temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast?
FT 6000 9000
0737-04 1043-10

A

A) 7°C.

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6
Q

The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that produced by

A

A) radiation on a clear, relatively still night.

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7
Q

If the air temperature is +8°C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?

A

B) 5,350 feet MSL.

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8
Q

A temperature inversion is an indication of

A

A) stable air.

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9
Q

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

A

B) Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds.

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10
Q

What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?

A

A) Surface friction

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11
Q

Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?

A

C) Coriolis.

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12
Q

When taxiing for takeoff, the presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that

A

C) there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.

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13
Q

To which meteorological condition does the term “dew point” refer?

A

B) The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.

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14
Q

The presence of wet snow at your flight altitude indicates the freezing level is

A

C) above you.

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15
Q

What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?

A

C) Upward currents.

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16
Q

Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A

B) Ice pellets.

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17
Q

What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope?

A

A) Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

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18
Q

Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?

A

A) Ambient lapse rate.

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19
Q

What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?

A

A) The stability of the air before lifting occurs.

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20
Q

The suffix “nimbus”, used in naming clouds, means a

A

A) rain cloud.

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21
Q

What are the four families of clouds?

A

C) High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.

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22
Q

A cirrostratus cloud is composed mostly of

A

B) ice crystals.

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23
Q

Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of

A

A) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

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24
Q

The general characteristics of unstable air are

A

A) good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.

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25
Q

Which is a characteristic of stable air?

A

C) Stratiform clouds.

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26
Q

Formal waves normally form on

A

C) slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.

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27
Q

Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?

A

B) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.

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28
Q

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of frontal system?

A

C) A wind change.

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29
Q

What is indicated by the term “embedded thunderstorms”?

A

A) Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

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30
Q

An air mass is a body of air that

A

C) covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.

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31
Q

Which type of clouds are associated with the most severe turbulence?

A

A) Towering cumulonimbus.

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32
Q

If standing lenticular clouds are seen over a mountainous area, a pilot should

A

B) be aware of severe mountain wave turbulence.

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33
Q

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of

A

B) very strong turbulence.

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34
Q

When should a pilot consider the possibility of wind shear?

A

B) With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

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35
Q

What is an important characteristic of wind shear?

A

B) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

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36
Q

Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?

A

A) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.

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37
Q

The presence of cumulus clouds often indicate

A

B) turbulence at and below the cloud level.

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38
Q

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

B) Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.

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39
Q

Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?

A

B) High clouds.

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40
Q

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?

A

A) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.

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41
Q

In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?

A

A) Freezing rain.

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42
Q

What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?

A

C) Temperature are above freezing at some higher altitude.

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43
Q

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge or upper surface of an airfoil can

A

C) reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

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44
Q

Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?

A

A) The start of rain on the surface.

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45
Q

Where do squall lines most often develop?

A

C) Ahead of a cold front.

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46
Q

During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?

A

A) Dissipating.

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47
Q

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?

A

C) Lightning.

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48
Q

Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions such as heavy hail and destructive winds?

A

C) Squall line.

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49
Q

To maintain control if you unintentionally penetrate a thunderstorm while in IMC, you should

A

A) set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

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50
Q

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?

A

B) Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.

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51
Q

What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A

B) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

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52
Q

If you inadvertently fly into severe turbulence, what is the safest course of action? Maintain a

A

A) level flight attitude.

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53
Q

Airborne weather avoidance radar

A

A) cannot assure avoidance of clouds or fog.

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54
Q

Under which condition does advection fog usually from?

A

C) Moist air moving over colder ground or water.

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55
Q

Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of

A

C) an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products.

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56
Q

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?

A

C) An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.

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57
Q

In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?

A

A) Costal areas.

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58
Q

What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?

A

B) Advection fog and up slope fog.

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59
Q

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation for?

A

A) Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface.

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60
Q

A jet stream is defined as wind of

A

50 knots or greater.

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61
Q

Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?

A

B) Fog.

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62
Q

The strength and location of the jet steam is normally

A

B) weaker and farther north in the summer.

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63
Q

The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 3800 feet)
SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000

A

A) 500 feet.

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64
Q

A ceiling is defined as the height of the

A

C) lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

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65
Q

What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA?
METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V269 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN
BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42

A

B) Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.

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66
Q

What condition is reported in this METAR?
METAR KBNA 281250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT SN
BLSN FG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42

A

C) Obscured sky with vertical visibility of 800 feet.

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67
Q

What is the location of the aircraft at the time of this PIREP?
UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA -04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.

A

A) 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR.

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68
Q

Interpret this PIREP.
MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BL/WX RA/TB MDT.

A

At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.

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69
Q

To what distance from the center of the runway complex does the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) extend?

A

A) 5 statute miles.

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70
Q

What is most appropriate source to obtain information and destination weather at your arrival time?

A

B) Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).

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71
Q

If a TAF includes the notation ‘VRB’, expect winds

A

A) 6 knots or less.

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72
Q

When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as

A

C) P6SM.

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73
Q

“WND” in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be

A

A) sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or stronger.

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74
Q

What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?
KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=

A

A) Calm.

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75
Q

SIGMET’s are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous

A

B) to all aircraft regardless of size or operating environment.

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76
Q

Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?

A

B) Widespread sand or dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.

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77
Q

What are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?

A

B) Unscheduled and issued as required.

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78
Q

Area forecasts generally include a forecast period of 18 hours and cover a geographical

A

A) area the size of several states.

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79
Q

What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?
TAF
KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008
WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG
FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003
BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=

A

B) 500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.

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80
Q

The Surface Analysis Chart depicts

A

C) actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.

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81
Q

A constant pressure chart provides

A

B) a plan view of weather at a specific pressure altitude.

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82
Q

If you see 9900 on a Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FB), what wind speed would you expect?

A

A) Light and variable or less than 5 knots.

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83
Q

When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD)?

A

A) When the level is within 2,500 feet of station elevation.

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84
Q

When is the wind ground at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)? When the wind

A

B) at the altitude is within 1,500 feet of the station elevation.

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85
Q

Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD) for OKC at 39,000 feet.
FT 3000 6000 9000
OKC 830558

A

B) Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58°C.

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86
Q

When reviewing the wings aloft forecast for flight planning purposes, you should know that the values are reported in

A

C) true direction and knots.

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87
Q

(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL 270?

A

C) 255° true at 93 knots; ISA +6°C.

88
Q

(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over ALB at FL 270?

A

A) 275° true at 97 knots; ISA +4°C.

89
Q

(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL 270?

A

A) 265° true; 100 knots; ISA +3°C.

90
Q

The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditions

A

A) that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.

91
Q

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?

A

C) Conditions forecast to exist as a specific time shown on the chart.

92
Q

(Refer to figure 5.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as usual on the U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?

A

A) Showery precipitation covering half or more of the area.

93
Q

A prognostic chart depicts the conditions

A

C) forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.

94
Q

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within are 7?

A

C) Forecast 4/8 to 6/8 coverage with cumulonimbus to FL 530.

95
Q

(Refer to figure 7, area 3.) What weather conditions are predicted within the innermost dashed yellow lines?

A

B) Severe turbulence associated with the jet steam between FL 300 and FL 370.

96
Q

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within the yellow dashed line in area 2?

A

C) Moderate turbulence at FL 370 that extends below the chart.

97
Q

(Refer to figure 7.) At what level is the tropopause in area 5?

A

C) The tropopause is at FL 530.

98
Q

(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are predicted within area 6?

A

A) Occasional embedded cumulonimbus up to FL 450.

99
Q

What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?

A

B) It defines areas of slight, moderate, and high risk of severe and general thunderstorm activity.

100
Q

If you encounter small, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, what kind of turbulence would you report?

A

B) Light turbulence.

101
Q

You can expect to see an operating rotating beacon at an airport during daylight hours when ceiling and visibility are reported below

A

B) 1,000 feet and/or 3 miles.

102
Q

When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

A

A) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.

103
Q

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that

A

C) the visibility is 5 miles or more and the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet.

104
Q

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?

A

A) Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

105
Q

Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as

A

A) 6,000 feet per minute.

106
Q

While flying an ILS approach, a pilot enters a microburst and encounters a headwind of 45 knots. What is the total shear the pilot can expect as they traverse the microburst?

A

C) 90 knots.

107
Q

(Refer to figure 13.) While flying an ILS approach, which aircraft will climb above the glideslope without changing pitch or power while passing through a microburst?

A

C) 1.

108
Q

(Refer to figure 13.) The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter?

A

C) Strong downdraft.

109
Q

(Refer to figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter?

A

B) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.

110
Q

How frequently are AIRMET’s updated?

A

B) Six hours.

111
Q

You see the need to deviate for a storm ahead. You know that

A

C) ATC workload may affect their ability to accommodate this request.

112
Q

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?

A

C) Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase.

113
Q

While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?

A

B) Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.

114
Q

Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?

A

C) PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.

115
Q

When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?

A

B) A sudden change in airspeed.

116
Q

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on

A

A) air temperature.

117
Q

What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?

A

A) Clouds with extensive vertical development.

118
Q

(Refer to figure 13.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?

A

B) 3 and 4.

119
Q

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

A

B) water vapor condenses.

120
Q

Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear-type icing in clouds?

A

B) Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.

121
Q

You are on the DME arc at 5,000 feet AGL, and winds are from the southwest at 25 knots. Winds at the surface are from the south at 10 knots. What causes the difference in wind speed and direction at the surface?

A

A) The friction between surface and wind.

122
Q

What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?

A

B) The winds of 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.

123
Q

A temperature inversion will normally form only

A

A) in stable air.

124
Q

What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope (dry adiabatic lapse rate)?

A

A) 3.0°C.

125
Q

Which situation would most likely result in freezing rain?

A

Rain falling from air which has a temperature of more than 0°C into air having a temperature of 0°C or less.

126
Q

Where outside the aircraft does ice generally form first?

A

A) Small and/or narrow objects.

127
Q

If you are using airborne weather radar to avoid thunderstorms, you should be aware that

A

C) you may encounter hail several miles from the clouds.

128
Q

Winds at 2,000 feet compared to winds at the surface are

A

B) higher and go at right angles to the isobars as compared to the winds at the surface due to friction.

129
Q

Hazardous weather (e.g., IFR, icing, turbulence, etc.) meeting AIRME or SIGMET criteria

A

A) must be used in conjunction with the FA to determine hazardous weather information for the flight.

130
Q

Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to low level temperature inversions?

A

A) Allow airspeed to go above normal climb and approach speed.

131
Q

Frost adhering to the wing will

A

A) decrease the margin of airspeed above stall.

132
Q

While enroute to destination, you receive approach clearance and descend to final approach altitude. After configuring the airplane for landing by extending landing gear and flaps, the nose pitches down. Suspecting ice-contaminated tailplane stall (ICTS) you should

A

A) partially or completely retract the flaps and prepare for a no-flap approach and landing.

133
Q

(Refer to figure 4.) Stations in Arkansas are reporting

A

A) clear skies with visibility 5 miles or greater.

134
Q

If you encounter icing with the autopilot engaged, you should be aware that

A

B) it may be best to periodically disengage the autopilot and hand-fly the aircraft.

135
Q

Which is true regarding recovery procedures from aerodynamic stalls due to structural icing?

A

C) Some measures for recovery from ICTS are opposite of those from recovery from wing stall.

136
Q

What is the RVR?
METAR KOKC 011955Z AUTO 220/15G25KT 180V250 3/4SM R17L/2600FT +TSRA BR OVC010CB 18/16 A2992 RMK A02 TSB25 TS OHD MOV E SLP132

A

B) 2600 feet on RWY 17L.

137
Q

(Refer to figure 2.) What are the wind conditions for a flight over ALB at FL 300?

A

A) 280° at 118 knots.

138
Q

It is dangerous to fly in the vicinity of a dissipating thunderstorm because this stage of its life cycle is characterized by

A

B) downdrafts.

139
Q

Weather variation results from

A

A) heating over the earth’s surface.

140
Q

(Refer to figure 4.) What is the reported weather conditions between 2 and 10?

A

C) VFR.

141
Q

The general characteristic of the troposphere is

A

C) an overall decrease in temperature with an increase in altitude.

142
Q

What weather phenomenon is most likely to occur when water vapor condenses?

A

A) Clouds, fog, or dew will form.

143
Q

(Refer to figure 4.) What weather is observed in area 9?

A

C) OVC with IFR conditions.

144
Q

Microbursts are characterized by having downdrafts which

A

A) can cause even a high performance aircraft to lose substantial altitude.

145
Q

Interpret this PIREP.
UUA/OV ORD/TM 1235/FLUNKN/TP B737/TB MOD/RM LLWS +/- 20KT BLW 003 DURD RWY27L

A

C) Urgent PIREP low level wind shear during descent to Rwy 27L.

146
Q

What can be expected upon arrival with reported clear skies and light winds at the surface, and winds reported at 25 knots gusted to 30 knots between 2,000 and 2,500 feet?

A

C) Wind shear.

147
Q

When circumnavigating a large cumulonimbus cell, flying under the anvil

A

C) should be avoided due to the possibility of hail.

148
Q

What type of cloud layer should you expect when flying into an unstable air mass?

A

A) Cumuliform.

149
Q

What is essential for fog to form?

A

B) Small temperature-dew point spread.

150
Q

What is the forecast cloud ceiling at 1800Z in the following TAF?
KMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=

A

B) 500 feet.

151
Q

You are on an IFR flight when you receive a weather update. A fast-moving cold front is approaching your route of flight. You are currently flying in a warm area with high moisture. What weather conditions do you expect based on this update?

A

B) Squall lines with hazardous weather conditions.

152
Q

What aircraft performance can be expected with structural icing?

A

C) Unpredictable flight characteristics.

153
Q

The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 800 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer 5,000 feet thick, above what indicated altitude should you be clear of the cloud layer?
METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RABR OVC007 17/16 A2980

A

A) 6,500 feet MSL.

154
Q

Your printed forecast for Winds and Temperature Aloft at your altitude and location reads ‘2728-10’. This indicates

A

B) wind 270° true at 28 knots.

155
Q

If the forecast is for a temperature of -2°C and a dew point of -3°C, what weather can you expect?

A

A) Formation of frost.

156
Q

A flight through the mature stage of a thunderstorm, characterized by rain beginning on the surface, would experience

A

B) strong winds, heavy rain and icing.

157
Q

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by

A

B) moisture and temperature.

158
Q

Your weather briefing for a cross-country flight indicates an active Convective SIGMET that was issued two hours prior to departing for you destination. Your estimated flight time is 2 hours. This SIGMET

A

C) will expire before your scheduled arrival time.

159
Q

The characteristic of cumulonimbus cloud is

A

B) violent turbulence.

160
Q

Which source would best help the pilot determine current and forecast icing conditions?

A

B) G-AIRMET.

161
Q

A PIREP indicates cumulous clouds with extensive vertical development over mountainous terrain. This is an indication of

A

C) unstable air.

162
Q

Surface friction in mountainous areas will cause wind speed to

A

B) decrease.

163
Q

(Refer to figure 4, area 3.) What weather is indicated on the Weather Depiction chart in upper-mid Texas, Dallas-Fort Worth area?

A

A) Clear to broken ceilings at 16,000 feet.

164
Q

During the weather briefing, you are informed that there is a fast moving low pressure trough that is expected along your route of flight. In this case, you should anticipate

A

C) the possibility of severe weather.

165
Q

Even a small amount of accumulated ice is hazardous because it

A

B) increases weight and adversely impacts lift.

166
Q

One visual indications of conditions favorable to supercooled large droplet icing is

A

B) droplets that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5°C.

167
Q

While en route on an IFR flight, you receive a report of moderate icing along your route. This indicates

A

C) the rate of accumulation is potentially hazardous and activation of deicing equipment or diversion is necessary.

168
Q

With the weather conditions below, what type of weather do you expect?
Winds 180° at 5 knots
Temperature 15°C
Dew point 14°C
Altimeter 29.95

A

A) Fog.

169
Q

You are cruising in rain, with a flight level temperature a few degrees above freezing. You can expect

A

C) possible structural icing.

170
Q

(Refer to figure 13.) When flying an ILS approach, an aircraft in position 4 which has encountered a microburst will experience what effect?

A

A) Strong tailwind.

171
Q

Ice contamination on the wing surface

A

A) must be completely removed before flight.

172
Q

You are planning to leave Kansas City at 0700 in the winter months. Outside air temperature is 40°F, and a weather specialist reports a warm front passing through with gulf moisture. What conditions can be expected?

A

C) Fog.

173
Q

If an aircraft on final approach and on glideslope encounters a sudden change from 20 knots tailwind to 20 knots headwind, the pilot should be ready to correct for

A

C) increased airspeed and a tendency to go above glideslope.

174
Q

What conditions can cause fog to form in a low-lying valley at night?

A

B) The movement of warm, moist air.

175
Q

You would review a convective outlook to find information on

A

C) areas of slight, moderate or high risk of severe thunderstorm activity.

176
Q

What is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane wing? [Please read the Explanation!]

A

C) Decreased angle of attack for stalls.

177
Q

What weather phenomenon poses the greatest hazards to aircraft when operating near thunderstorms?

A

B) Lightning.

178
Q

Structural icing will most likely form on the

A

A) tail.

179
Q

What would the temperature be at 8,000 feet MSL under standard conditions?

A

A) -1°C.

180
Q

When departing from an airport at sea level on a standard day, what temperature would you expect at 9,000 feet MSL?

A

A) -3°.

181
Q

After takeoff, you encounter warmer outside air temperature at 2,000 feet AGL and some turbulence. What is a possible cause of the turbulence?

A

B) Temperature inversion.

182
Q

While establishes on the ILS glideslope, a tailwind shifts to a headwind. If no control adjustments are made, this would result in

A

B) a decease in descent rate.

183
Q

During climbout after takeoff, you encounter light turbulence at 3,000 feet AGL before entering smooth air. You notice the OAT is warmer than it was at ground level. This indicates

A

B) a temperature inversion.

184
Q

A good indication of the stability of an air mass is

A

B) the form and structure of the clouds.

185
Q

You encounter freezing drizzle at your flight altitude. This is an indication that

A

C) warmer air is above you.

186
Q

What weather report is used to report weather conditions that include dust storms and severe turbulence?

A

A) Significant meteorological information (SIGMET).

187
Q

Wing stall and roll upset can occur in all phases of flight, however, the approach and landing phase is particularly susceptible to ice contaminated tailplane stall (ICTS). To minimize this risk you should

A

B) know the published limitations in the AFM on the maximum flap setting approved in icing conditions due to ICTS susceptibility.

188
Q

What conclusion do you draw from this METAR observation?
METAR KMCO 131853Z AUTO 22006KT 10SM FEW007 SCT035 BKN110 BKN250 23/23 A2999 RMK A02 PK WND 090/27/1759 RAE45 TSE49 SLP179 OCNL LTGIC DSNT NE-SE-S CB DSNT NE-SE-S MOV SE P0007 T02280228 $

A

A) The air has reached the point of 100% saturation.

189
Q

(Refer to figure 18.) You are planning to depart western Oklahoma for a destination in eastern Tennessee. According to the 12-hour prognostic, what flight conditions do you expect?

A

B) IFR departing and then conditions improving as you progress eastbound.

190
Q

(Refer to figure 18.) What are the weather conditions over central Oklahoma on the 12-hour prognostic?

A

C) IFR.

191
Q

(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at 9,000 feet?

A

A) 270° true; 28 knots; -10°C.

192
Q

(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL 300?

A

B) 280° true at 119 knots; ISA +6 °C.

193
Q

(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at 9,000 feet?

A

C) 210° true at 19 knots; +01 °C.

194
Q

(Refer to figure 7.) At what level is the tropopause in area 4?

A

A) FL340.

195
Q

When crossing a fast-moving narrow frontal zone which is associated with a cold front, what changes in weather conditions would you expect?

A

B) A rapid change in temperature and wind.

196
Q

(Refer to figure 18.) What are the weather conditions over eastern Colorado on the 24-hour prognostic?

A

A) VFR.

197
Q

If you encounter wet snow at your altitude, this is an indication that the temperature is

A

A) above freezing at your altitude.

198
Q

While flying with the autopilot engaged, you encounter structural icing. You should be aware that

A

C) you may want to consider disengaging the autopilot and hand-flying.

199
Q

If you encounter a convective SIGMET, you should consider the possibility of

A

B) embedded thunderstorms, severe thunderstorms, and heavy precipitation.

200
Q

What may cause the formation of fog on a clear, calm night?

A

A) A flow of warm, moist air.

201
Q

The stability of an air mass can usually be determined by

A

C) cloud types and types of precipitation.

202
Q

During your preflight briefing, you were made aware of a cold front that impacts your planned route. Which weather chart would be a good source of information about the location of the cold front?

A

A) Surface Analysis Chart.

203
Q

A good indication of strong turbulence in mountainous areas is

A

A) the presence of standing lenticular clouds.

204
Q

The wind is from 230° at 30 knots at 2,000 feet AGL. The surface wind is from 170° at 10 knots. What is the reason for the difference in wind direction and speed?

A

C) The earth’s surface causes the wind to turn in a different direction and surface friction slows it down.

205
Q

What ceiling is reported in the following METAR?
KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000

A

B) 800 AGL.

206
Q

(Refer to figure 18.) What are the weather conditions along the southern half of the California coastline on the 12-hour prognostic?

A

B) Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles.

207
Q

You are cleared for an approach with minimums of 600 feet, and the field has the following METAR. The field elevation is 800 MSL. When can you expect to break out of the clouds?
METAR KMDW 021700Z AUTO 12010 2SM SN OVC009 10/09 A3000

A

A) 1,700 MSL.

208
Q

When flying under a thunderstorm which has just entered the mature stage, as demonstrated by rain started to fall at the base, a pilot might encounter

A

C) downdrafts.

209
Q

The geographic limit of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast is a

A

A) 5 sm radius from the center of the airport runway complex.

210
Q

(Refer to figure 4.) What are the predominant weather conditions at area 8?

A

B) Clear skies and VFR conditions.

211
Q

The highest probability of a lightning strike occurring to an airplane at altitude is

A

C) highest at OAT between -5°C and 5°C.

212
Q

What weather conditions would you expect if the weather briefer tells you that “extensive cumulonimbus clouds can be expected along your route?”

A

B) Thunderstorms and rain.

213
Q

(Refer to figure 18.) What are the weather conditions east of Colorado on the 24-hour prognostic?

A

A) VFR.

214
Q

KLAX 211132Z 2112/2218 VRB05KT 3SM BR BKN003 OVC007 TEMPO 2112/2115 1SM BR VV002

A

B) Mist with 1 statute mile visibility is forecast to form temporarily between 1200 and 1500 Zulu.

215
Q

(Refer to figure 7.) What does the “530” next to area 8 represent?

A

A) The average height of the tropopause.

216
Q

What weather phenomenon might you expect when a cold front moves over a mountainous region?

A

B) Possibility of icing conditions.

217
Q

Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze or low clouds are indications of what type of weather phenomenon?

A

B) A low-level temperature inversion.

ShepardAirCards (6 decks)

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