General Flashcards
1
Q
RVR is not available for the runway you intent to use. For RVR 2400 you should substitute
A
B) 1/2 SM ground visibility.
2
Q
All pilots should use the local altimeter setting because it provides
A
C) data to enable better vertical separation of aircraft.
3
Q
How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?
A
C) Set the altimeter to 29.92” Hg and read the altitude indicated.
4
Q
Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92” Hg?
A
A) Pressure.
5
Q
Why is it important to have the correct altimeter setting? It allows the altimeter to read
A
C) true altitude at field elevation.
6
Q
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is set to 29.92 and indicates your height above
A
C) the standard datum plane.
7
Q
(Refer to figure 78.) When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is
A
B) 10,200 feet.
8
Q
If you adjust the altimeter from 30.11 inches Hg to 29.96 inches Hg, the indicated altitude would be
A
A) 150 feet lower.
9
Q
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?
A
C) Pressure.
10
Q
(Refer to figure 91.) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport?
A
B) Pilot controlled lighting.
11
Q
(Refer to figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?
A
C) 3.00°.
12
Q
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
A
A) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.
13
Q
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will
A
A) constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.
14
Q
Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of
A
B) a single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path.
15
Q
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as
A
B) white and the far bar as red.
16
Q
When conducting a non-precision approach, the pilot reaches the missed approach point and observes that all three bars of a 3-bar VASI are red. The pilot should [Please read the explanation!]
A
C) level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
17
Q
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
A
B) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
18
Q
(Refer to figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?
A
B) 3.0°.
19
Q
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?
A
A) 5.
20
Q
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?
A
C) 7.
21
Q
(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?
A
C) 4.
22
Q
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts an “on glidepath” indication?
A
C) 10.
23
Q
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8°) indication?
A
B) 11.
24
Q
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?
A
C) 8.
25
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is "slightly high" (3.2°) on the glidepath?
A) 9.
26
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below the glide slope?
C) 12.
27
Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?
A) REIL.
28
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide
B) rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.
29
'Runway hold position' markings on the taxiway
A) identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.
30
The 'No Entry' sign identifies
C) paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
31
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the 'taxiway directional sign' indicates
B) designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
32
Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having
A) white lettering with a red background.
33
(Refer to figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are
C) yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.
34
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?
A) 1,000 feet.
35
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?
C) 500 feet.
36
(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?
B) 500 feet.
37
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?
A) Arrows leading to the threshold mark.
38
(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?
A) Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.
39
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non mountainous area.)
A) 1,000 foot obstacle clearance.
40
Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?
B) IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.
41
During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?
C) 40° to the right of the aircraft's nose.
42
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
C) Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible and obtain an amended ATC clearance.
43
To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?
C) As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.
44
When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?
B) Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace.
45
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?
A) Special use airspace.
46
For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigational aids used to describe the "route of flight" should be no more than
C) 80 NM apart.
47
(Refer to figure 24.) Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on:
C) 118.575 MHz.
48
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?
C) When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
49
What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
C) Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.
50
ATC instructs you to hold at 6,000 feet. What is the maximum indicated airspeed you may use?
B) 200 knots.
51
(Refer to figure 242.) What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern while flying the missed approach for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at LIT?
C) Teardrop.
52
You are in a civil turbojet aircraft holding above 14,000 MSL. What is the maximum permitted airspeed?
B) 265 knots.
53
Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within
B) the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.
54
What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?
C) 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
55
When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made
B) only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
56
How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?
A) Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches.
57
Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?
B) When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot request "No STAR."
58
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?
A) Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
59
Descending from FL 350 to an approximate field elevation of 650 MSL, you fail to set the altimeter to 30.57. Upon landing, you altimeter shows
B) Sea level.
60
While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?
C) 25,000 feet.
61
En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. What will the altimeter indicate after landing at a sea level airport?
A) Below MSL.
62
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
C) May cause hard to recognize symptoms.
63
Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?
A) The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.
64
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
65
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is supected?
A) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.
66
Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?
A) Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.
67
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
A) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
68
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
B) Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway.
69
Departure control has instructed you to "resume own navigation" after being vectored to a victor airway. You should
B) maintain airway by use of your own navigation equipment.
70
While on on IFR clearance, ATC tells you "radar contact". This means
A) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
71
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION." This phrase means that
B) resume operations as filed or cleared.
72
What is the definition of MEA?
C) The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
73
The altitude the provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements, is the minimum:
A) enroute altitude.
74
Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
C) MRA.
75
If no MEA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?
C) The MEA at which the fix is approached.
76
MEA is an altitude which assures
C) acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.
77
Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?
A) MRA.
78
ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within
C) 22 NM of a VOR.
79
If you are flying at minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA), how far from the VOR is acceptable navigational signal coverage assured?
C) 22 NM.
80
(Refer to figure 193.) On which frequencies could you communicate with the Montgomery County FSS while on the ground at College Station?
A) 122.65, 122.2.
81
(Refer to figure 24.) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V382 between Grand Junction Rgnl (JNC) and Durango, La Plata Co. (DRO) airports?
B) 15,300 feet.
82
(Refer to figure 24.) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?
B) 52 NM south of JNC.
83
(Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC and HERRM intersection of V187?
B) 12,100 feet MSL.
84
(Refer to figure 34.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC?
C) 16,000 feet MSL.
85
(Refer to figure 40.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight eastbound on V66 between HYMAN and the Abilene VORTAC (ABI)?
17,000 feet MSL.
86
(Refer to figure 53.) When flying between GVO and MQO on V27, where should you tune in MQO?
B) 20 DME from GVO VORTAC.
87
(Refer to figure 65.) You are flying east on V552 from the LFT to the TBD VORTACs? Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP?
A) 34 DME from the LFT VORTAC.
88
(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to Lake Charles?
B) 30 NM east of DAS.
89
(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?
A) Halfway point.
90
(Refer to figure 89.) When flying from Milford Municipal to Bryce Canyon via V235 and V293, what minimum altitude should you be at when crossing Cedar City VOR?
A) 12,000 feet.
91
(Refer to figure 89.) What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS?
B) 122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 112.1.
92
(Refer to figure 89.) What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?
B) 127.55.
93
(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBA VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257?
B) 8,600 feet.
94
(Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?
C) Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS.
95
(Refer to figure 91.) Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520?
A) 60 NM from DBS VORTAC.
96
(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum altitude you should be flying at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298?
C) 11,100 feet.
97
(Refer to figure 47.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing GYMME intersection is
B) 7,000 feet.
98
(Refer to figure 47.) When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection?
C) One VOR receiver.
99
(Refer to figure 904.) En route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum enroute altitude at TROTS intersection is
A) 11,500 feet.
100
(Refer to figure 160.) What is the TDZE for RWY 16L on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
B) 369 feet MSL.
101
(Refer to figure 185.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?
B) 6,000 feet.
102
(Refer to figure 210.) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?
B) ALSF2 and HIRL.
103
(Refer to figure 230.) The symbol on the plan view of the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of
B) White Cloud VOR/DME.
104
When exiting the runway, the 'runway exit' sign indicates the
B) direction to turn to exit runway onto named taxiway.
105
Within aircraft movement areas, 'destination signs' identify the
B) direction to specified destinations.
106
The 'runway threshold marking' indicates
B) the beginning of a runway available for landing when the threshold is displaced.
107
What purpose does the ILS critical area boundary sign serve?
A) Identifies the exit boundary for the ILS critical area.
108
While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is know as
B) Coriolis illusion.
109
Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by
C) reducing angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and, if in a turn, rolling wings level.
110
When using deicing boots, the pilot should
B) activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing, and in accordance with the manufacturer's guidance.
111
If you experience icing during an approach, you should
A) retract flaps as necessary and disengage the autopilot.
112
On initial climbout after takeoff, with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation it is recommended that
A) the vertical speed (VS) mode be disengaged.
113
During a preflight inspection, how can you be sure the wing is free of critical ice?
C) Conduct a tactile inspection (touch the surface) as well as a visual inspection.
114
For pneumatic deicer boot systems, it is generally recommended that
C) the deicing system activation be continued for a period after exiting icing conditions so that the wing will be as clean as possible.
115
What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5°C OAT?
B) Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots.
116
Which is true concerning airplane structural icing?
B) Airplane tailplane is a better ice collector than the wings.
117
Where would you see the first sign of ice buildup?
C) Pitot tube.
118
Which is true concerning aircraft icing?
A) Small almost imperceptible amounts of ice on the wing upper surface cause the same aerodynamic penalties as much larger and more visible accumulations.
119
During or after flight in icing conditions, vibration or buffeting that follows flap deployment and was not evident prior to flap deployment is most likely due to
A) incipient tail plane stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment.
120
Regarding supercooled large droplets (SLD), which statement is true?
A) Supercooled large droplets can occur aloft even without precipitation at the surface.
121
The term Airport means an area of land or water that is
C) used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
122
The sensory system responsible for most of the illusions leading to spatial disorientation is the
B) vestibular system.
123
Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will
A) increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases.
124
Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface?
B) ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off.
125
Which of the following is true about icing characteristics?
C) Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing.
126
What is true regarding ice accumulation on a wing surface?
B) Small, visually imperceptible amounts of ice on a wing surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation.
127
Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice?
C) Air temperature probe.
128
(Refer to figure 254.) While clearing an active runway, you see the top sign. You know
B) aircraft are prohibited.
129
Pilot fatigue is a hazard because
B) judgement may be impaired.
130
Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify?
B) On the flat, upper wing surface where it is hard to tell if wet or icy.
131
(Refer to figure 254.) While clearing the runway after landing, pilots contact ground control after passing
A) the solid lines of the middle sign.
132
(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is 'far below' glidepath?
C) 12.
133
Autopilot during cruise flight in icing conditions should be
B) periodically disengaged and the airplane manually controlled.
134
Refer to figures 176, 176A, and 177.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the THRE for Rwy 36L?
A) 25 feet.
135
Pilots of newer aircraft often use Electronic Flight Displays (EFDs). When an EFD fails in IFR conditions, the pilot should
B) continue the flight with backup/standby flight references.
136
An engaged function of an autopilot means
A) the autopilot will maintain the mode that is engaged.
137
In an aircraft equipped with electronic instrumentation and displays, you have three important learning challenges;
A) how and when to use the systems and how it affects the way you fly the aircraft.
138
Which is true concerning the use of a primary flight display (PFD)?
A) The PFD supports the same control and performance, or primary and supporting methods of attitude instrument flying as conventional instruments.
139
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the Tower?
C) Taking off from the runway intersection.
140
In an aircraft equipped with Electronic Flight Displays (EFD's), a failure is usually signified by
A) a bold red "X" over the display.
141
(Refer to figure 158.) Winds are reported as 330° at 4 knots. You are given instructions to taxi to runway 04 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner on runway 29. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices.
B) the upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
142
During descent from FL 290, you fail to reset the altimeter to the local setting of 30.26". During approach to the minimums, this oversight results in a missed approach because the altimeter reads
A) 340 feet below true altitude.
143
Since software and databases in new avionics software are continually updated, that requires you, the user, to
A) continually learn systems functions, capabilities, and limitations.
144
Your flight may be completed after dark. How could your vision be affected?
A) Degraded by hypoxia.
145
(Refer to figure 259, illustration E.) This sign indicates
A) your taxiway location.
146
In an aircraft equipped with a Multi-function Display, the substitute display or the backup instrument mode is known as the
C) Faildown or Standby Instrument.
147
Complacency is a risk to pilots operating aircraft with full glass cockpits because they
B) provide greater situational awareness.
148
When below the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see
A) red over red.
149
What airspace is designed to separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic?
B) MOA.
150
There are two types of emergency conditions. Which one represents an 'urgency' condition?
A) After deviating for weather, you are concerned you will not have enough fuel to reach your destination.
151
When ATC clears you for a descent, you should
B) begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft.
152
You are enroute at 8,000 MSL on an IFR flight plan. What is the most appropriate source for obtaining the altimeter setting?
C) Use the setting obtained from a reporting station within 100 NM of your aircraft.
153
While descending in icing conditions for an instrument approach procedure, you extend the flaps to the approach position. While the flaps are in transit, you begin to notice vibrations and pulsing in the elevator control. What is the best procedure to follow?
B) Immediately retract the flaps to their previous setting and increase airspeed as appropriate.
154
(Refer to figure 89.) When flying northeast on V208, 53 DME from the PGA VOR, you lose communications with ATC. Which frequency should you try to re-establish contact?
A) 127.55.
155
(Refer to figure 247.) What does the star symbol (*) next to the Riverside tower frequency indicate?
A) Part-time tower operations.
156
(Refer to figure 34.) You are flying outbound on V54 from the TXK VOR. Which waypoint will have unreliable navigation reception?
A) WASHO at 4,000 feet.
157
to ensure proper airspace protection while holding above 6,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?
A) 230 knots.
158
(Refer to figure 185.) In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color?
A) To indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport.
159
You are flying in the clouds with freezing temperatures. Where would you expect ice to accumulate first?
A) On a small, thin protuberance.
160
What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)?
A) GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight.
161
(Refer to figure 254, the top sign.) The "No Entry" sign identifies
A) a paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
162
During the preflight of a rental aircraft for flight into IMC, you notice it is equipped with a heated windshield. How would you determine if the aircraft is approved for flight into known icing conditions?
C) Check the Aircraft Flight Manual or the approved Pilot's Operating Handbook.
163
What action should be taken if you encounter an in-flight anomaly with an installed GPS during enroute navigation?
B) Inform ATC immediately.
164
ATC wants to confirm your altitude, and you are are 21,000 feet MSL. How should you report it?
B) level at two one zero.
165
If an aircraft is equipped with an installed GPS device, who may update the database?
B) A pilot.
166
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 2 correspond?
C) D.
167
ATC has cleared you on course and deleted your airspeed restriction. You begin a level turn while the aircraft is accelerating. Which bank correction is necessary in order to maintain a standard rate turn?
A) Increase bank angle.
168
While on arrival, you check the ATIS and notice the recording is over an hour old. This would indicate
B) new ATIS will be recorded soon and you may consider checking for updated information in a few minutes.
169
(Refer to figure 193.) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Alice International airport? Position the aircraft on the taxiway near the FBO, tune the VOR receiver to 114.5 Mhz, and set the OBS to 272°.
A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication.
170
You consider asking ATC for help deviating around weather while flying on an IFR clearance. You should know that
A) ATC radar has limitations regarding weather.
171
(Refer to figure 196.) You are taking off on runway 04 behind a departing B-737. Which wind conditions would prolong wake turbulence?
B) Winds 180 at 5 knots.
172
(Refer to figure 169.) What lighting equipment installed for RWY 33 at ADS is designed to help locate the runway, which is surrounded by a preponderance of other lights?
C) REIL.
173
A displaced threshold will
C) reduce available landing distance.
174
When holding at a VOR above 14,000 feet, when should timing be started?
A) When over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.
175
A VFR-on-top clearance allows the pilot to
A) select an altitude in lieu of an assigned altitude.
176
ATC clears you to descend, but does not include "at pilot's discretion". You should
A) descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft.
177
At a constant indicated altitude and constant power, the outside air temperature becomes warmer than standard. The true airspeed will
A) increase.
178
What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from the en route to the terminal area for IFR operations?
A) Provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures.
179
When operating VFR-on-Top on an IFR flight plan, the pilot
C) is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements.
180
(Refer to figure 242.) What is the distance from FEHXE to the threshold of the runway?
A) 13.9 NM.
181
What should be done if signs of hyperventilation are suspected?
C) Breathe at a normal rate.
182
You are flying toward a VOR with a TO indication. After crossing the VOR, your CDI indicates a half-scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. After flying for several minutes on your present heading, the CDI still shows a half-scale deflection. You should
C) turn toward the right to get back on course.
183
The En Route Low Altitude Chart depicts what type of airspace?
C) The limits of controlled airspace.
184
(Refer to figure 252.) Due to a runway closure at your destination airport, you divert to your alternate OSH. What decision altitude would apply to the ILS RWY 36 approach at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH)?
C) Decision altitude 1,008 feet MSL.
185
(Refer to figure 254.) Which answer refers to illustration C?
B) Protected ILS critical area.
186
If you suspect hyperventilation, you should
B) breathe at a normal rate and depth.
187
When making an approach to landing, you are slightly above glidepath when the indications of the 2-bar VASI show the
B) far bar change from red to white.
188
While on glideslope for an ILS approach, a tailwind shears to a headwind. This is
B) extremely hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting as it encounters the headwind.
189
Failure to maintain a heading may be a result of
A) fixation during crosscheck.
190
ATC issues an amendment to you IFR clearance. Your readback should include
B) any changes to altitude or heading and any additional verification.
191
To maintain a constant airspeed when entering a standard rate turn you should
A) increase power.
192
(Refer to figure 158.) You are given instructions to line up and wait on runway 04 while an airliner departs on runway 11. Winds are reported as 030° at 5 knots. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices?
B) The upwind vortex will tend to remain over the runway.
193
You must comply with the MEA on a federal airway because it assures
A) acceptable navigation signal coverage and obstacle clearance between the fixes.
194
(Refer to figure 193.) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Easterwood Field? Position the aircraft on the west edge of the parking ramp, tune the VOR receiver to 113.3 MHz, and set the OBS to 097°.
A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication.
195
ATC has just assigned you a new heading. As you establish a standard rate turn, what must you do to maintain altitude and airspeed?
A) Increase angle of attack and increase power.
196
The major factor which influences sky wave propagation?
B) Time of day.
197
Pilots first learning to utilize the trend indicators on a primary flight display (PFD)
B) tend to fixate, and attempt to hold airspeed to an unnecessarily tight tolerance.
198
(Refer to figure 256.) At what locations would this sign appear?
A) Locations 10 and 11.
199
When the pilot initiates a missed approach procedure, how should the airplane be configured?
B) Climb configuration.
200
(Refer to figure 257.) You are cleared to taxi to runway 18R via Alpha to Echo. You are on taxiway Alpha at position 5. Which taxiway ahead will you follow?
A) 4.
201
(Refer to figure 251.) You have been cleared to taxi to runway 9 via Alpha, Bravo, to Bravo Three in low visibility conditions. HS-1 indicates
B) a location that is historically hazardous.
202
Activating deicing boots prior to entering icing conditions
B) may or may not clear off all ice accumulation.
203
(Refer to figure 259.) ATC instructs you to "Taxi to Runway 04, hold short Runway 22." Which sign will be at the hold short line?
A) A.
204
(Refer to figure 254.) After landing, ATC instructs you to exit the runway and remain clear of the ILS critical area while awaiting further taxi instructions. Which sign indicates you are clear of the ILS critical area?
C) C.
205
(Refer to figure 254, illustration B.) What does the yellow sign in the middle indicate?
A) Runway boundary.
