General

Question 1

RVR is not available for the runway you intent to use. For RVR 2400 you should substitute

Answer 1

B) 1/2 SM ground visibility.

Question 2

All pilots should use the local altimeter setting because it provides

Answer 2

C) data to enable better vertical separation of aircraft.

Question 3

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?

Answer 3

C) Set the altimeter to 29.92” Hg and read the altitude indicated.

Question 4

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92” Hg?

Answer 4

A) Pressure.

Question 5

Why is it important to have the correct altimeter setting? It allows the altimeter to read

Answer 5

C) true altitude at field elevation.

Question 6

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is set to 29.92 and indicates your height above

Answer 6

C) the standard datum plane.

Question 7

(Refer to figure 78.) When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is

Answer 7

B) 10,200 feet.

Question 8

If you adjust the altimeter from 30.11 inches Hg to 29.96 inches Hg, the indicated altitude would be

Answer 8

A) 150 feet lower.

Question 9

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?

Answer 9

C) Pressure.

Question 10

(Refer to figure 91.) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport?

Answer 10

B) Pilot controlled lighting.

Question 11

(Refer to figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?

Answer 11

C) 3.00°.

Question 12

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

Answer 12

A) If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

Question 13

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

Answer 13

A) constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.

Question 14

Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of

Answer 14

B) a single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path.

Question 15

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

Answer 15

B) white and the far bar as red.

Question 16

When conducting a non-precision approach, the pilot reaches the missed approach point and observes that all three bars of a 3-bar VASI are red. The pilot should [Please read the explanation!]

Answer 16

C) level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.

Question 17

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

Answer 17

B) Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

Question 18

(Refer to figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?

Answer 18

B) 3.0°.

Question 19

(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

Answer 19

A) 5.

Question 20

(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

Answer 20

C) 7.

Question 21

(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?

Answer 21

C) 4.

Question 22

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts an “on glidepath” indication?

Answer 22

C) 10.

Question 23

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” (2.8°) indication?

Answer 23

B) 11.

Question 24

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?

Answer 24

C) 8.

Question 25

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is “slightly high” (3.2°) on the glidepath?

Answer 25

A) 9.

Question 26

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below the glide slope?

Answer 26

C) 12.

Question 27

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

Answer 27

A) REIL.

Question 28

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

Answer 28

B) rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

Question 29

‘Runway hold position’ markings on the taxiway

Answer 29

A) identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.

Question 30

The ‘No Entry’ sign identifies

Answer 30

C) paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

Question 31

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates

Answer 31

B) designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

Question 32

Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

Answer 32

A) white lettering with a red background.

Question 33

(Refer to figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are

Answer 33

C) yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.

Question 34

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

Answer 34

A) 1,000 feet.

Question 35

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?

Answer 35

C) 500 feet.

Question 36

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

Answer 36

B) 500 feet.

Question 37

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

Answer 37

A) Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

Question 38

(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

Answer 38

A) Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

Question 39

Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non mountainous area.)

Answer 39

A) 1,000 foot obstacle clearance.

Question 40

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?

Answer 40

B) IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.

Question 41

During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound.” The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

Answer 41

C) 40° to the right of the aircraft’s nose.

Question 42

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

Answer 42

C) Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible and obtain an amended ATC clearance.

Question 43

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?

Answer 43

C) As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.

Question 44

When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?

Answer 44

B) Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace.

Question 45

Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

Answer 45

A) Special use airspace.

Question 46

For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigational aids used to describe the “route of flight” should be no more than

Answer 46

C) 80 NM apart.

Question 47

(Refer to figure 24.) Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on:

Answer 47

C) 118.575 MHz.

Question 48

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

Answer 48

C) When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

Question 49

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

Answer 49

C) Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.

Question 50

ATC instructs you to hold at 6,000 feet. What is the maximum indicated airspeed you may use?

Answer 50

B) 200 knots.

Question 51

(Refer to figure 242.) What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern while flying the missed approach for the RNAV (GPS) RWY 36 approach at LIT?

Answer 51

C) Teardrop.

Question 52

You are in a civil turbojet aircraft holding above 14,000 MSL. What is the maximum permitted airspeed?

Answer 52

B) 265 knots.

Question 53

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within

Answer 53

B) the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view.

Question 54

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?

Answer 54

C) 1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.

Question 55

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made

Answer 55

B) only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.

Question 56

How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?

Answer 56

A) Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches.

Question 57

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

Answer 57

B) When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot request “No STAR.”

Question 58

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

Answer 58

A) Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92” Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.

Question 59

Descending from FL 350 to an approximate field elevation of 650 MSL, you fail to set the altimeter to 30.57. Upon landing, you altimeter shows

Answer 59

B) Sea level.

Question 60

While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92” Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?

Answer 60

C) 25,000 feet.

Question 61

En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26” Hg during descent. What will the altimeter indicate after landing at a sea level airport?

Answer 61

A) Below MSL.

Question 62

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

Answer 62

C) May cause hard to recognize symptoms.

Question 63

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?

Answer 63

A) The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.

Question 64

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

Answer 64

A) Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.

Question 65

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is supected?

Answer 65

A) Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.

Question 66

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?

Answer 66

A) Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.

Question 67

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

Answer 67

A) Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

Question 68

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

Answer 68

B) Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway.

Question 69

Departure control has instructed you to “resume own navigation” after being vectored to a victor airway. You should

Answer 69

B) maintain airway by use of your own navigation equipment.

Question 70

While on on IFR clearance, ATC tells you “radar contact”. This means

Answer 70

A) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

Question 71

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.” This phrase means that

Answer 71

B) resume operations as filed or cleared.

Question 72

What is the definition of MEA?

Answer 72

C) The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

Question 73

The altitude the provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements, is the minimum:

Answer 73

A) enroute altitude.

Question 74

Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

Answer 74

C) MRA.

Question 75

If no MEA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?

Answer 75

C) The MEA at which the fix is approached.

Question 76

MEA is an altitude which assures

Answer 76

C) acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.

Question 77

Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

Answer 77

A) MRA.

Question 78

ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within

Answer 78

C) 22 NM of a VOR.

Question 79

If you are flying at minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA), how far from the VOR is acceptable navigational signal coverage assured?

Answer 79

C) 22 NM.

Question 80

(Refer to figure 193.) On which frequencies could you communicate with the Montgomery County FSS while on the ground at College Station?

Answer 80

A) 122.65, 122.2.

Question 81

(Refer to figure 24.) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V382 between Grand Junction Rgnl (JNC) and Durango, La Plata Co. (DRO) airports?

Answer 81

B) 15,300 feet.

Question 82

(Refer to figure 24.) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?

Answer 82

B) 52 NM south of JNC.

Question 83

(Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC and HERRM intersection of V187?

Answer 83

B) 12,100 feet MSL.

Question 84

(Refer to figure 34.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC?

Answer 84

C) 16,000 feet MSL.

Question 85

(Refer to figure 40.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight eastbound on V66 between HYMAN and the Abilene VORTAC (ABI)?

Answer 85

17,000 feet MSL.

Question 86

(Refer to figure 53.) When flying between GVO and MQO on V27, where should you tune in MQO?

Answer 86

B) 20 DME from GVO VORTAC.

Question 87

(Refer to figure 65.) You are flying east on V552 from the LFT to the TBD VORTACs? Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP?

Answer 87

A) 34 DME from the LFT VORTAC.

Question 88

(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to Lake Charles?

Answer 88

B) 30 NM east of DAS.

Question 89

(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?

Answer 89

A) Halfway point.

Question 90

(Refer to figure 89.) When flying from Milford Municipal to Bryce Canyon via V235 and V293, what minimum altitude should you be at when crossing Cedar City VOR?

Answer 90

A) 12,000 feet.

Question 91

(Refer to figure 89.) What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS?

Answer 91

B) 122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 112.1.

Question 92

(Refer to figure 89.) What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?

Answer 92

B) 127.55.

Question 93

(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBA VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257?

Answer 93

B) 8,600 feet.

Question 94

(Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?

Answer 94

C) Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS.

Question 95

(Refer to figure 91.) Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520?

Answer 95

A) 60 NM from DBS VORTAC.

Question 96

(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum altitude you should be flying at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298?

Answer 96

C) 11,100 feet.

Question 97

(Refer to figure 47.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing GYMME intersection is

Answer 97

B) 7,000 feet.

Question 98

(Refer to figure 47.) When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection?

Answer 98

C) One VOR receiver.

Question 99

(Refer to figure 904.) En route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum enroute altitude at TROTS intersection is

Answer 99

A) 11,500 feet.

Question 100

(Refer to figure 160.) What is the TDZE for RWY 16L on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?

Answer 100

B) 369 feet MSL.

Question 101

(Refer to figure 185.) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX?

Answer 101

B) 6,000 feet.

Question 102

(Refer to figure 210.) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?

Answer 102

B) ALSF2 and HIRL.

Question 103

(Refer to figure 230.) The symbol on the plan view of the VOR/DME or GPS-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of

Answer 103

B) White Cloud VOR/DME.

Question 104

When exiting the runway, the ‘runway exit’ sign indicates the

Answer 104

B) direction to turn to exit runway onto named taxiway.

Question 105

Within aircraft movement areas, ‘destination signs’ identify the

Answer 105

B) direction to specified destinations.

Question 106

The ‘runway threshold marking’ indicates

Answer 106

B) the beginning of a runway available for landing when the threshold is displaced.

Question 107

What purpose does the ILS critical area boundary sign serve?

Answer 107

A) Identifies the exit boundary for the ILS critical area.

Question 108

While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is know as

Answer 108

B) Coriolis illusion.

Question 109

Roll upsets caused by ice accumulations forward of the ailerons can be remedied by

Answer 109

C) reducing angle of attack by increasing airspeed or extending wing flaps to the first setting and, if in a turn, rolling wings level.

Question 110

When using deicing boots, the pilot should

Answer 110

B) activate the deicing system at the first indication of icing, and in accordance with the manufacturer’s guidance.

Question 111

If you experience icing during an approach, you should

Answer 111

A) retract flaps as necessary and disengage the autopilot.

Question 112

On initial climbout after takeoff, with the autopilot engaged, you encounter icing conditions. In this situation it is recommended that

Answer 112

A) the vertical speed (VS) mode be disengaged.

Question 113

During a preflight inspection, how can you be sure the wing is free of critical ice?

Answer 113

C) Conduct a tactile inspection (touch the surface) as well as a visual inspection.

Question 114

For pneumatic deicer boot systems, it is generally recommended that

Answer 114

C) the deicing system activation be continued for a period after exiting icing conditions so that the wing will be as clean as possible.

Question 115

What type of icing should be expected when you encounter supercooled large droplets (SLD) that splash or splatter on impact at temperatures below +5°C OAT?

Answer 115

B) Ice that forms on the wing aft of the active part of the deicing boots.

Question 116

Which is true concerning airplane structural icing?

Answer 116

B) Airplane tailplane is a better ice collector than the wings.

Question 117

Where would you see the first sign of ice buildup?

Answer 117

C) Pitot tube.

Question 118

Which is true concerning aircraft icing?

Answer 118

A) Small almost imperceptible amounts of ice on the wing upper surface cause the same aerodynamic penalties as much larger and more visible accumulations.

Question 119

During or after flight in icing conditions, vibration or buffeting that follows flap deployment and was not evident prior to flap deployment is most likely due to

Answer 119

A) incipient tail plane stall as a result of negative tail plane angle after flap deployment.

Question 120

Regarding supercooled large droplets (SLD), which statement is true?

Answer 120

A) Supercooled large droplets can occur aloft even without precipitation at the surface.

Question 121

The term Airport means an area of land or water that is

Answer 121

C) used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.

Question 122

The sensory system responsible for most of the illusions leading to spatial disorientation is the

Answer 122

B) vestibular system.

Question 123

Residual ice, after cycling of the deicing boots, will

Answer 123

A) increase as the airspeed or temperature decreases.

Question 124

Which is true about ice formation on a wing surface?

Answer 124

B) ice or frost formation on a wing surface can result in localized, asymmetrical stalls on the wing resulting in roll control problems during lift off.

Question 125

Which of the following is true about icing characteristics?

Answer 125

C) Ice on the surface of the wing is virtually undetectable and causes a reduction in lift over the wing.

Question 126

What is true regarding ice accumulation on a wing surface?

Answer 126

B) Small, visually imperceptible amounts of ice on a wing surface during takeoff can result in significant performance degradation.

Question 127

Where will the pilot first notice an accumulation of ice?

Answer 127

C) Air temperature probe.

Question 128

(Refer to figure 254.) While clearing an active runway, you see the top sign. You know

Answer 128

B) aircraft are prohibited.

Question 129

Pilot fatigue is a hazard because

Answer 129

B) judgement may be impaired.

Question 130

Where is airplane icing most difficult to identify?

Answer 130

B) On the flat, upper wing surface where it is hard to tell if wet or icy.

Question 131

(Refer to figure 254.) While clearing the runway after landing, pilots contact ground control after passing

Answer 131

A) the solid lines of the middle sign.

Question 132

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is ‘far below’ glidepath?

Answer 132

C) 12.

Question 133

Autopilot during cruise flight in icing conditions should be

Answer 133

B) periodically disengaged and the airplane manually controlled.

Question 134

Refer to figures 176, 176A, and 177.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the THRE for Rwy 36L?

Answer 134

A) 25 feet.

Question 135

Pilots of newer aircraft often use Electronic Flight Displays (EFDs). When an EFD fails in IFR conditions, the pilot should

Answer 135

B) continue the flight with backup/standby flight references.

Question 136

An engaged function of an autopilot means

Answer 136

A) the autopilot will maintain the mode that is engaged.

Question 137

In an aircraft equipped with electronic instrumentation and displays, you have three important learning challenges;

Answer 137

A) how and when to use the systems and how it affects the way you fly the aircraft.

Question 138

Which is true concerning the use of a primary flight display (PFD)?

Answer 138

A) The PFD supports the same control and performance, or primary and supporting methods of attitude instrument flying as conventional instruments.

Question 139

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the Tower?

Answer 139

C) Taking off from the runway intersection.

Question 140

In an aircraft equipped with Electronic Flight Displays (EFD’s), a failure is usually signified by

Answer 140

A) a bold red “X” over the display.

Question 141

(Refer to figure 158.) Winds are reported as 330° at 4 knots. You are given instructions to taxi to runway 04 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner on runway 29. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices.

Answer 141

B) the upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

Question 142

During descent from FL 290, you fail to reset the altimeter to the local setting of 30.26”. During approach to the minimums, this oversight results in a missed approach because the altimeter reads

Answer 142

A) 340 feet below true altitude.

Question 143

Since software and databases in new avionics software are continually updated, that requires you, the user, to

Answer 143

A) continually learn systems functions, capabilities, and limitations.

Question 144

Your flight may be completed after dark. How could your vision be affected?

Answer 144

A) Degraded by hypoxia.

Question 145

(Refer to figure 259, illustration E.) This sign indicates

Answer 145

A) your taxiway location.

Question 146

In an aircraft equipped with a Multi-function Display, the substitute display or the backup instrument mode is known as the

Answer 146

C) Faildown or Standby Instrument.

Question 147

Complacency is a risk to pilots operating aircraft with full glass cockpits because they

Answer 147

B) provide greater situational awareness.

Question 148

When below the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see

Answer 148

A) red over red.

Question 149

What airspace is designed to separate certain military training activities from IFR traffic?

Answer 149

B) MOA.

Question 150

There are two types of emergency conditions. Which one represents an ‘urgency’ condition?

Answer 150

A) After deviating for weather, you are concerned you will not have enough fuel to reach your destination.

Question 151

When ATC clears you for a descent, you should

Answer 151

B) begin the descent at an optimum rate consistent with the operating characteristics of the aircraft.

Question 152

You are enroute at 8,000 MSL on an IFR flight plan. What is the most appropriate source for obtaining the altimeter setting?

Answer 152

C) Use the setting obtained from a reporting station within 100 NM of your aircraft.

Question 153

While descending in icing conditions for an instrument approach procedure, you extend the flaps to the approach position. While the flaps are in transit, you begin to notice vibrations and pulsing in the elevator control. What is the best procedure to follow?

Answer 153

B) Immediately retract the flaps to their previous setting and increase airspeed as appropriate.

Question 154

(Refer to figure 89.) When flying northeast on V208, 53 DME from the PGA VOR, you lose communications with ATC. Which frequency should you try to re-establish contact?

Answer 154

A) 127.55.

Question 155

(Refer to figure 247.) What does the star symbol (*) next to the Riverside tower frequency indicate?

Answer 155

A) Part-time tower operations.

Question 156

(Refer to figure 34.) You are flying outbound on V54 from the TXK VOR. Which waypoint will have unreliable navigation reception?

Answer 156

A) WASHO at 4,000 feet.

Question 157

to ensure proper airspace protection while holding above 6,000 feet in a civil aircraft, what is the maximum indicated airspeed a pilot should use?

Answer 157

A) 230 knots.

Question 158

(Refer to figure 185.) In low visibility conditions, why are certain intersections circled in color?

Answer 158

A) To indicate well known hazardous spots on the airport.

Question 159

You are flying in the clouds with freezing temperatures. Where would you expect ice to accumulate first?

Answer 159

A) On a small, thin protuberance.

Question 160

What are the primary benefits of satellite-based area navigation (RNAV)?

Answer 160

A) GNSS can generate direct courses that suit operational requirements for almost any flight.

Question 161

(Refer to figure 254, the top sign.) The “No Entry” sign identifies

Answer 161

A) a paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.

Question 162

During the preflight of a rental aircraft for flight into IMC, you notice it is equipped with a heated windshield. How would you determine if the aircraft is approved for flight into known icing conditions?

Answer 162

C) Check the Aircraft Flight Manual or the approved Pilot’s Operating Handbook.

Question 163

What action should be taken if you encounter an in-flight anomaly with an installed GPS during enroute navigation?

Answer 163

B) Inform ATC immediately.

Question 164

ATC wants to confirm your altitude, and you are are 21,000 feet MSL. How should you report it?

Answer 164

B) level at two one zero.

Question 165

If an aircraft is equipped with an installed GPS device, who may update the database?

Answer 165

B) A pilot.

Question 166

(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which HSI does the aircraft in position 2 correspond?

Answer 166

C) D.

Question 167

ATC has cleared you on course and deleted your airspeed restriction. You begin a level turn while the aircraft is accelerating. Which bank correction is necessary in order to maintain a standard rate turn?

Answer 167

A) Increase bank angle.

Question 168

While on arrival, you check the ATIS and notice the recording is over an hour old. This would indicate

Answer 168

B) new ATIS will be recorded soon and you may consider checking for updated information in a few minutes.

Question 169

(Refer to figure 193.) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Alice International airport? Position the aircraft on the taxiway near the FBO, tune the VOR receiver to 114.5 Mhz, and set the OBS to 272°.

Answer 169

A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication.

Question 170

You consider asking ATC for help deviating around weather while flying on an IFR clearance. You should know that

Answer 170

A) ATC radar has limitations regarding weather.

Question 171

(Refer to figure 196.) You are taking off on runway 04 behind a departing B-737. Which wind conditions would prolong wake turbulence?

Answer 171

B) Winds 180 at 5 knots.

Question 172

(Refer to figure 169.) What lighting equipment installed for RWY 33 at ADS is designed to help locate the runway, which is surrounded by a preponderance of other lights?

Answer 172

C) REIL.

Question 173

A displaced threshold will

Answer 173

C) reduce available landing distance.

Question 174

When holding at a VOR above 14,000 feet, when should timing be started?

Answer 174

A) When over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.

Question 175

A VFR-on-top clearance allows the pilot to

Answer 175

A) select an altitude in lieu of an assigned altitude.

Question 176

ATC clears you to descend, but does not include “at pilot’s discretion”. You should

Answer 176

A) descend at an optimum rate for the aircraft.

Question 177

At a constant indicated altitude and constant power, the outside air temperature becomes warmer than standard. The true airspeed will

Answer 177

A) increase.

Question 178

What is the purpose of Class E airspace transitions from the en route to the terminal area for IFR operations?

Answer 178

A) Provides controlled airspace to contain standard instrument approach procedures.

Question 179

When operating VFR-on-Top on an IFR flight plan, the pilot

Answer 179

C) is responsible to maintain VFR cloud clearance requirements.

Question 180

(Refer to figure 242.) What is the distance from FEHXE to the threshold of the runway?

Answer 180

A) 13.9 NM.

Question 181

What should be done if signs of hyperventilation are suspected?

Answer 181

C) Breathe at a normal rate.

Question 182

You are flying toward a VOR with a TO indication. After crossing the VOR, your CDI indicates a half-scale deflection to the right with a FROM indication. After flying for several minutes on your present heading, the CDI still shows a half-scale deflection. You should

Answer 182

C) turn toward the right to get back on course.

Question 183

The En Route Low Altitude Chart depicts what type of airspace?

Answer 183

C) The limits of controlled airspace.

Question 184

(Refer to figure 252.) Due to a runway closure at your destination airport, you divert to your alternate OSH. What decision altitude would apply to the ILS RWY 36 approach at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH)?

Answer 184

C) Decision altitude 1,008 feet MSL.

Question 185

(Refer to figure 254.) Which answer refers to illustration C?

Answer 185

B) Protected ILS critical area.

Question 186

If you suspect hyperventilation, you should

Answer 186

B) breathe at a normal rate and depth.

Question 187

When making an approach to landing, you are slightly above glidepath when the indications of the 2-bar VASI show the

Answer 187

B) far bar change from red to white.

Question 188

While on glideslope for an ILS approach, a tailwind shears to a headwind. This is

Answer 188

B) extremely hazardous because the aircraft will have a decreased power setting as it encounters the headwind.

Question 189

Failure to maintain a heading may be a result of

Answer 189

A) fixation during crosscheck.

Question 190

ATC issues an amendment to you IFR clearance. Your readback should include

Answer 190

B) any changes to altitude or heading and any additional verification.

Question 191

To maintain a constant airspeed when entering a standard rate turn you should

Answer 191

A) increase power.

Question 192

(Refer to figure 158.) You are given instructions to line up and wait on runway 04 while an airliner departs on runway 11. Winds are reported as 030° at 5 knots. What effect would you expect from the airliner vortices?

Answer 192

B) The upwind vortex will tend to remain over the runway.

Question 193

You must comply with the MEA on a federal airway because it assures

Answer 193

A) acceptable navigation signal coverage and obstacle clearance between the fixes.

Question 194

(Refer to figure 193.) What procedure should you follow to perform a ground VOR receiver check at Easterwood Field? Position the aircraft on the west edge of the parking ramp, tune the VOR receiver to 113.3 MHz, and set the OBS to 097°.

Answer 194

A) The OBS must center within plus or minus 4° with a FROM indication.

Question 195

ATC has just assigned you a new heading. As you establish a standard rate turn, what must you do to maintain altitude and airspeed?

Answer 195

A) Increase angle of attack and increase power.

Question 196

The major factor which influences sky wave propagation?

Answer 196

B) Time of day.

Question 197

Pilots first learning to utilize the trend indicators on a primary flight display (PFD)

Answer 197

B) tend to fixate, and attempt to hold airspeed to an unnecessarily tight tolerance.

Question 198

(Refer to figure 256.) At what locations would this sign appear?

Answer 198

A) Locations 10 and 11.

Question 199

When the pilot initiates a missed approach procedure, how should the airplane be configured?

Answer 199

B) Climb configuration.

Question 200

(Refer to figure 257.) You are cleared to taxi to runway 18R via Alpha to Echo. You are on taxiway Alpha at position 5. Which taxiway ahead will you follow?

Answer 200

A) 4.

Question 201

(Refer to figure 251.) You have been cleared to taxi to runway 9 via Alpha, Bravo, to Bravo Three in low visibility conditions. HS-1 indicates

Answer 201

B) a location that is historically hazardous.

Question 202

Activating deicing boots prior to entering icing conditions

Answer 202

B) may or may not clear off all ice accumulation.

Question 203

(Refer to figure 259.) ATC instructs you to “Taxi to Runway 04, hold short Runway 22.” Which sign will be at the hold short line?

Answer 203

A) A.

Question 204

(Refer to figure 254.) After landing, ATC instructs you to exit the runway and remain clear of the ILS critical area while awaiting further taxi instructions. Which sign indicates you are clear of the ILS critical area?

Answer 204

C) C.

Question 205

(Refer to figure 254, illustration B.) What does the yellow sign in the middle indicate?

Answer 205

A) Runway boundary.