IFR_Nav Flashcards
If the RVR is inoperative for the runway in use, except for Category II or Category III, you must
B) convert RVR minimums and use the value as ground visibility.
What point should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?
C) The point of first intended landing.
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?
B) 90° and 270°
(Refer to figure 91.) What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots from 260° and your intended TAS is 185 knots?
B) 38 minutes.
(Refer to figure 91.) Southbound on V257, you cross over CPN VORTAC at 0950 and over DIVID intersection at 0954. At what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC?
A) 1043.
(Refer to figure 95.) You are tracking the 170 course to the station. What is your lateral displacement from the desired course on the No. 1 NAV?
C) 5.0 NM.
While in IMC, a pilot often interprets acceleration or deceleration forces as a sensation of
C) climbing or descending.
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°?
B) 50 seconds.
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?
B) 90 seconds.
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
C) The pull of the vertical component of the Earth’s magnetic field.
The turn coordinator indicates
A) rate of roll and rate of turn.
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
A) 4 minutes.
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?
C) 1 minute.
If a half standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?
C) 1 minute.
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?
B) 1 minute.
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
A) climb.
When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a
B) descent.
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?
A) The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.
On a taxi check, the magnetic compass should
B) swing freely and indicate known headings.
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?
B) The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.
Prior to takeoff, the attitude indicator is considered reliable and properly checked when
A) the horizon bar remains in the horizontal position and does not tip more than 5° during taxi.
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?
C) After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?
C) Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
What are the fundamental skills required for attitude instrument flying?
A) Cross-check, Instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
B) Aircraft control.
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?
A) Instrument cross-check.
While taxiing to the runway for an IFR flight, you notice that your VSI indicates a 75 feet per minute climb. In this case, you
A) may take off IFR and use 75 feet per minute climb as your new level flight indication.
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a
A) half bar width on the attitude indicator.
For maintaining straight and level flight, which instrument displays a constant indicator of altitude?
A) Altimeter.
The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?
B) Power only.
Which instruments are supporting bank instruments when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight-and-level flight?
B) Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude?
A) 10 percent.
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately
A) 10 percent of the vertical speed.
To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should
C) simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately
A) 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately
B) 50 feet.
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the
C) attitude indicator shows the approximately pitch attitude appropriate from the 160 knot climb.
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
B) Indirect indication of the bank attitude.
The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will
B) increase as angle of bank increases.
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
B) altimeter and airspeed stabilize.
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
B) Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
C) the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
(Refer to figure 145.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
B) Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight using ailerons and rudder.
(Refer to figure 146. The DG shows a right turn. OAT is -1°C.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight.
B) Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator, apply power, and turn on pitot heat to unblock.
(Refer to figure 147.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?
B) Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.
(Refer to figure 148.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to information to the instruments has malfunctioned.
A) Climbing turn to right.
(Refer to figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.
C) Climbing turn to the right.
To correct from an altitude deviation, identify the primary pitch instruments to include in your cross-check.
B) Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?
A) The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
A) The airplane is flying away from the radial.
(Refer to figure 95.) Using the Nav 1 CDI, which radial is your aircraft located on?
B) R 345.
(Refer to figure 95.) To center the No. 1 NAV CDI with a TO indication, you should turn the OBS to
C) 165°.
(Refer to figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?
C) 4°.
(Refer to figure 95.) Using the Nav 2 CDI, which radial is your aircraft located on?
B) 174°.
(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO?
B) 354°.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond?
B) 9 and 6.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond?
C) 5 and 13.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “C” correspond?
C) 12.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “D” correspond?
C) 2.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond?
C) 8 and 3.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “F” correspond?
C) 4.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “G” correspond?
C) 7 and 11.
(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “H” correspond?
C) 1.
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “D” correspond?
C) 17.
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “E” correspond?
C) 6.
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “F” correspond?
C) 16.
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “A” correspond?
A) 1.
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “B” correspond?
A) 19.
(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation “C” correspond?
B) 12.
(Refer to figure 106.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360°. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the ambiguity meter and the CDI pointing left of center?
B) 2.
(Refer to figure 110.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
C) Northeast.
(Refer to figure 111.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located?
A) Northwest.
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
B) deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
(Refer to figure 192.) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?
C) 10° to 20°.
With regard to slant range error, approximately how far from the DME facility can you be to consider the DME reading usable?
B) One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
(Refer to figure 171.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the RNAV(GPS) RWY 33 approach be initiated?
A) Immediately upon passage of the MAP waypoint with the runway environment not in sight.
(Refer to figure 171.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the approach procedure?
C) 1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM.
When tracking in bound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?
C) Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°.
(Refer to figures 139 and 140.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?
A) 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.
(Refer to figures 139 and 141.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300 foot point from the runway is indicated?
C) 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?
C) When ground speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
C) When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
(Refer to figure 193.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME
No.1 No.2
C) 097° FROM 101° FROM 3.3
(Refer to figure 210.) When on the RWY 6 approach procedure, when approaching the threshold or on the missed approach, you should expect to see
A) White light flashing all dots.
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
B) Slant range distance in NM.
Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?
B) High altitudes close to the VORTAC.
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
A) No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by
B) removal of the identification feature.
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
B) The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
A) 1.0.
When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of
C) 30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used
A) in lieu of the OM.
(Refer to figure 240.) How should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?
A) The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.
Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two letter coded signal?
B) Compass locator.
Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?
C) Six dots per second and a flashing white light.
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?
C) 200 feet.
Immediately after passing the final approach fix in bound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is
A) permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.
Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as
B) an aid to situational awareness.
If Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should
B) select another type of navigation and approach system.
During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities
C) must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage.
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation,
C) the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches without WAAS input, any required alternate airport must have
A) an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS.
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
A) Airport Advisory Service
Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?
C) Airport advisories.
If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?
B) Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR.
You can expect ATC to assign these procedures without a specific pilot request?
B) DP’s, STAR’s, and visual approaches.
The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from
C) Flight Service Station.
What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure?
B) Enter “No DP” in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.
Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?
B) Destination plus specific fix and altitude.
Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures?
B) If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.
During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?
A) When advised by the tower.
What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?
B) Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.
(Refer to figure 87.) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended?
B) Direct.
(Refer to figures 87 and 88.) You are traveling westbound on V222, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FALSE intersection. Which VOR would you use?
C) When the CDI on VOR 2 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FALSE.
(Refer to figure 112, #1.) While on a heading of 350° flying direct to the 15 DME fix from the ABC VORTAC, ATC issues you this clearance. ‘HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX, LEFT TURNS, FIVE MILE LEGS, ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC. EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE AT 2215Z.” What is the recommended entry?
A) Direct entry.
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“…HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Parallel only.
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ONT HE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Direct.
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Teardrop only.
(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
A) Direct only.
(Refer to figure 114.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Direct only.
(Refer to figure 114.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Direct only.
(Refer to figure 114.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“…CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL…”
What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?
C) Teardrop only.
(Refer to figure 115.) You receive this ATC clearance:
“HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…”
You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding entry procedure is recommended?
C) Direct.
(Refer to figure 116, #2.) “…HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS…”
You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 330°. What is the recommended entry procedure?
C) Teardrop entry.
(Refer to figure 242.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn in bound while in the procedure turn at FEHXE?
B) 4 DME miles from FEHXE.
If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to
A) make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than
A) 200 knots IAS.
Which is true regarding STAR’s?
STAR’s are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until
A) established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
While briefing the assigned approach, you review the missed approach procedure. If you execute the missed approach before reaching DA or MDA, you must
A) fly to the MAP at or above DA/MDA before making any turns.
During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?
C) When radar vectors are provided.
During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to
C) minimum altitude shown on the IAP.
(Refer to figure 240.) What is the purpose of the 10,600 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?
A) It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.
Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
C) Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
Where may you use a surveillance approach?
B) At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.
You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?
A) Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.
(Refer to figure 186.) You are flying a Category B airplane, and ATC has cleared you for the PDX ILS RWY 10R, circle to land RWY 28L. For weather reasons, you are flying 5 knots above the maximum airspeed for Category B. You will use
B) the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
Aircraft approach categories are based on
A) 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?
C) The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.
You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?
A) Query ATC.
What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?
A) The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.
When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?
A) As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?
A) You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.
If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon
C) arrival at the DH on the glide slope.
Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?
C) Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.
When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?
A) A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used
B) in lieu of conducting a SIAP.
While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issues, what action should be taken by the pilot?
A) Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.
You received the following clearance: “CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.” When does ATC expect you to commence the side step maneuver?
B) As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
During a “no-gyro” approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns
B) standard rate unless otherwise advised.
After being handed off to the final approach controller during a “no-gyro” surveillance approach, the pilot should make all turns
B) one half standard rate.
When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?
A) When assigned a VFR-on-Top clearance.
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?
B) To see and avoid other traffic.
According to 14 CFR Part 91, what do you set your altimeter to if your aircraft is not equipped with a radio?
C) Departure airport elevation.
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?
A) ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.
Lading on a narrow runway may cause you to perceive the aircraft is
C) higher than actual altitude.
You break out of the clouds on an instrument approach. A narrower than usual runway will have the same appearance as
C) an upsloping runway.
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause
A) Coriolis illusion.
Street lights, stars, sloping cloud formations, or an obscured horizon may lead to
A) false horizon.
An abrupt transition from a climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of
C) tumbling backward.
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of
B) being in a noseup attitude.
The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions
C) must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
B) Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
You are subject to spatial disorientation when you
C) use your sense of kinesthesia to interpret flight attitude.
What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?
C) The horizontal distance a pilot should see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.
How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?
C) All fixes that are labeled IAF.
(Refer to figure 162.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?
C) 0600 2330.
(Refer to figure 184.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the Tower for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect?
B) 0600 to 2200.
(Refer to figure 64.) The course deviation indicators (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check?
VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM
No. 1 No. 2
A) 162° TO 346° FROM
(Refer to figures 65 and 66.) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection?
C) West of GRICE intersection.
(Refer to figures 71 and 71A.) You are traveling northbound on V213, and ATC would like you to report when you reach FLOSI. Which VOR would you use?
A) When the CDI on VOR 1 centers, contact ATC and state you have reached FLOSI.
