FARs Flashcards
1
Q
A coded transponder with altitude reporting capability is required for all controlled airspace
A
C) at and above 10,000 feet MSL (excluding airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL).
2
Q
No pilot may act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least
A
B) six instrument approaches, holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems, or passed an instrument proficiency check.
3
Q
What information must be recorded to show meeting instrument currency requirements to act as PIC during instrument flight?
A
C) Location and type of each instrument approach and safety pilot name, if required.
4
Q
What portion of dual instruction time may a certified instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?
A
B) Only the time during which the instructor is operating as PIC and the aircraft is being flown solely by reference to the flight instruments.
5
Q
Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?
A
A) Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.
6
Q
To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements of 61.57(c), within the last 6 calendar months you need
A
A) holding procedures, six instrument approaches, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft.
7
Q
After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?
A
A) 6 months.
8
Q
Without an instrument rating, you are prohibited from flying
A
B) into class A airspace.
9
Q
What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?
A
B) The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights of more than 50 NM or at night is prohibited.
10
Q
Verifying that the altimeter meets the requirements of 14 CFR part 91 for an instrument flight is the responsibility of the
A
A) Pilot-in-command.
11
Q
Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight including:
A
B) the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing data.
12
Q
To serve as a safety pilot for simulated instrument flight, you must hold at least a private pilot certification and an
A
A) appropriate category and class rating for the aircraft to be flown.
13
Q
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?
A
C) Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.
14
Q
Which enroute under IFR at FL 250, your DME fails. What action should you take?
A
C) Advise ATC of the equipment failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing.
15
Q
What is the procedure when the DME or suitable RNAV malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?
A
C) After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intending landing where repairs can be made.
16
Q
To operate VFR-on-Top in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL, the weather must be at least
A
C) 3 SM visibility, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
17
Q
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?
A
A) 5 miles; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal; 1,000 feet below.
18
Q
During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000’ scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A
B) then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
19
Q
Which data must be recorded in the airport log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?
A
B) Date, place, bearing error, and signature.
20
Q
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?
A
B) Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.
21
Q
When operating under Instrument Flight Rules, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and have received a clearance from ATC before
A
A) entering Class A, B, C, D, or E airspace.
22
Q
You plan to file an airport which has only a VOR approach as your alternate airport. What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at the alternate airport?
A
C) 800 foot ceiling and 2 statute miles visibility.
23
Q
For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?
TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030
FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB
FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040
BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=
A
B) No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.
24
Q
For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?
A
A) Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.
25
What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternative when the airport has no approved IAP?
B) The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.
26
For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?
B) 600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.
27
In the event of two-way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue
B) the flight under VFR, land as soon as practical, and notify ATC.
28
When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
C) The landing minimum published for the type of procedure selected.
29
When planning your IFR flight, an alternate is required. What are the minimums for the IAP?
The minimums prescribed for the approach, prescribed for the PIC, or appropriate for the equipment used; whichever is higher.
30
What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
C) 600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.
31
If executing an ILS approach, and the runway environment is not in sight when reaching the DA/DH, you should
C) immediately execute the missed approach procedure.
32
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of
B) 4 NM from the course flown.
33
An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will
B) allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions.
34
If the aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace, the pilot must
B) request ATC authorization to deviate from the transponder requirement until clear of the Class B airspace.
35
If an unpressurized aircraft is operated at 13,000 feet MSL for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?
A) 1 hour 50 minutes.
36
Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least
C) a slip skip indicator.
37
Which of the following requires DME or suitable RNAV system for a flight conducted under IFR?
A) Operation at or above FL 240 if VOR navigation is required.
38
An aircraft is required to have which of the following for IFR flight?
A) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicators.
39
What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?
A) 15,000 feet.
40
What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?
C) Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.
41
(Refer to figure 89.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight east bound from Milford on V244 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?
B) The pilot must use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet.
42
(Refer to figure 91.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA?
B) The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen.
43
Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on March 9th of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by
C) March 31, 2 years hence.
44
Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?
C) NTSB Part 830.
45
Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?
C) Compass locator and precision radar.
46
Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?
A) LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.
47
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?
A) When weather conditions permit.
48
You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR-on-Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)
A) An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.
49
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?
C) 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
50
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain?
B) 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.
51
The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.
A) No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.
52
While operating on an IFR clearance within Class C airspace, what service is provided by ATC?
B) Separation from all IFR and participating VFR aircraft.
53
In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?
C) An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.
54
To operate an aircraft under IFR in controlled airspace, you must
B) file an IFR flight plan and receive ATC clearance.
55
When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace?
B) A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.
56
Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the
A) controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.
57
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?
B) A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.
58
VFR-on-Top operations are not permitted
C) in Class A airspace.
59
An approach controller has approved your request to cancel an IFR clearance. You must establish radio contact with ATC
B) before entering Class D airspace.
60
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?
C) The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
61
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from
A) 18,000 feet to and including FL 600.
62
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?
A) 700 feet AGL or more tot he base of the overlying controlled airspace.
63
Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?
B) 2,500 feet AGL.
64
What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?
B) 700 feet AGL.
65
What minimum aircraft equipment is required while flying IFR in Class C airspace?
A) Two-way radio communications and Mode C transponder.
66
MOAs are established to
C) separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.
67
When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?
B) At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.
68
What does declaring 'minimum fuel' to ATC imply?
A) An advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible.
69
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between
B) 500 feet per minute and 1,5000 feet per minute.
70
What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?
C) Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1,500 feet per minute.
71
What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft?
B) Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.
72
Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)
A) Designation airport, altitude, DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.
73
A pilot should not accept an abbreviated departure clearance unless it contains at least the
B) destination airport and route.
74
You exercise your emergency authority while flying under IFR. ATC may request a detailed report if you
C) received ATC priority.
75
Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-Top clearance?
C) VFR and IFR.
76
When can a VFR-on-Top clearance be assigned by ATC?
Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.
77
When on a VFR-on-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on
A) magnetic course.
78
In which airspace is VFR-on-Top operation prohibited?
A) Class A airspace.
79
What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR-on-Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?
C) Even thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.
80
What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR-on-Top in a nonradar environment?
B) The same reports that are required for any IFR flight.
81
What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on-Top clearance?
A) Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.
82
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?
C) Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
83
When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?
B) A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.
84
While on an IFR flight plan, you should notify ATC of a variation in speed when
A) average true airspeed changes by 10 knots or 5%.
85
What are the compulsory reporting points for an off-airway flight using VORTACs?
A) Fixes selected to define the route.
86
From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?
C) FAA AFSS/FSS
87
You are departing a non-towered airport with an IFR clearance containing a void time.
C) You must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of intentions if not off by the void time.
88
An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name
B) of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.
89
Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart?
B) To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess either the textual or the graphic form of the approved procedure.
90
When not in radar contact, you should always report
A) departing the FAF inbound.
91
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 receiver has only VOR/Localizer capability.
A) Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
92
During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised "Radar service terminated." What action is appropriate?
C) Resume normal position reporting.
93
What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR-on-Top clearance?
C) Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.
94
Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?
C) When the pilot requests it.
95
You are cruising at 190 knots. ATC instructs you to reduce speed to 160. You comply by reducing
B) IAS to 160 knots and maintaining that speed plus or minus 10 knots.
96
When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?
C) Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.
97
During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should
B) immediately declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.
98
During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?
A) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.
99
Which procedure should you follow if you experience two-way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)
B) Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.
100
You are on an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions and have two-way radio communication failure. You should continue the flight
B) under VFR, land as soon as practicable, and then advise ATC.
101
If you encounter two-way radio communications failure in IMC enroute on an IFR flight plan, you should squawk 7600 and
B) continue to fly along your assigned route, at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.
102
Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?
C) Continue the flight under VFR, land as soon as practicable, and advise ATC.
103
What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way radio communications failure?
C) Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
104
(Refer to figure 87.) While holding at STRUT west of LCH for an ILS approach to RWY 15 at Lake Charles Muni airport, ATC advises you to expect clearance for the approach at 1015. At 1000, you experience two-way radio communications failure. Which procedure should be followed?
B) Squawk 7600, attempt to contact ATC via the previously assigned frequency. Plan to start your approach at 1015.
105
Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by
B) an instrument departure procedure (DP), or radar vectors.
106
You need to know the runway closures, runway lighting, and snow conditions. What sources do you use?
C) Distant (D) NOTAMs.
107
(Refer to figure 89.) What type of airspace exists above Bryce Canyon Airport from the surface to 1,200 feet AGL?
C) Class G.
108
How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?
C) Flight manual supplement.
109
Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?
C) For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.
110
Operating an aircraft under IFR requires you to file an IFR flight plan and receive ATC clearance before
A) entering controlling airspace including Class A airspace.
111
Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of an airplane in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter class rating and instrument helicopter rating?
A) No, you must hold either an unrestricting Airline Transport Pilot-Airplane Certificate or an airplane instrument rating.
112
The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating when operating
B) under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight.
113
How often must the altimeter and altitude reporting equipment be inspected in accordance with 14 CFR 91.411?
A) 24 calendar months before IFR flight into controlled airspace.
114
Which additional instrument experience, within the preceding 6 calendar months, is required to meet the requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR if you already have: 3 hours in an instrument simulator (including holding, intercepting, and tracking courses), and 2 instrument approaches in an airplane?
B) Another 4 instrument approaches in the same category and class.
115
A pilot has an IFR flight planned for July 10 of this year. What is the earliest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirements without having to take an IFR proficiency check?
A) January 10 this year.
116
A pilot intends to act as PIC on an instrument flight on July 10th of this year. That pilot must have performed and logged
A) the required instrument currency tasks between January 01 this year and the date of the flight.
117
When acting as PIC, what is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly over 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?
C) 12,500 feet MSL.
118
A pilot plans to make an IFR flight on July 10th of this year. In order to meet the instrument currency requirements, what must the pilot have?
B) Performed and logged the required tasks and iterations between January 10th of this year and the date of the planned flight.
119
What are the supplemental oxygen requirements of an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?
A) The crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet.
120
It has been one month since you last met the requirements of 14 CFR 61.57(c). Assuming you do not fly anymore, how long until you need to have an instrument proficiency check to act as PIC in IFR?
B) 5 calendar months.
121
To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements to serve as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR, within the last six calendar months, a minimum of six instrument approaches must be conducted
A) in a powered airplane/approved simulator.
122
On an IFR flight plan from KDAL to KSAT (2 hour ETE), the weather requires you file an alternate that is 20 minutes from KSAT. You require a minimum fuel endurance of
C) 3:05 of fuel endurance.
123
Who is responsible for collision avoidance?
B) PIC when weather conditions permit.
124
You have 3 instrument approaches (including holding, intercepting and tracking courses) and 2 hours in a simulator in the last 2 months. What additional experience do you need to be current?
A) 3 approaches in actual or simulated IFR in an airplane of the same category and class.
125
When operating under IFR, you must track the centerline of an ATC assigned airway except
B) for shallow clearing turns while climbing in VMC.
126
Immediate changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publications are disseminated by
A) FDC NOTAMS.
127
The altitude restriction in your IFR clearance is to "CRUISE 7,000 FEET". There is a 5,000 foot MEA on your field airway. What altitude may you use?
B) Any intermediate altitude within this block of airspace.
128
What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 3,000 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility at flight-planning ETA? Fuel to fly to
A) the destination airport, fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
129
A person who holds an airplane category commercial pilot certificate without an instrument rating may carry passengers
B) on a cross-country flight up to 50 nautical miles, but night flights are prohibited with passengers for hire.
130
When flying in an unpressurized aircraft at 16,000 feet MSL, what are the oxygen requirements?
B) Above 14,000 feet, the required minimum flight crew must use supplemental oxygen.
131
What is the minimum number of instrument approaches required to maintain currency to act as PIC in instrument conditions?
A) At least six approaches must be made in an aircraft, simulator, or training device appropriate to the desired aircraft.
132
You have just successfully passed your instrument proficiency check. How long are the recency of experience requirements met for if no further IFR flights are made?
C) 6 calendar months.
133
(Refer to figure 226.) Departing from Lamar Muni (LAA), ceiling is 300 feet overcast and visibility 2 SM. How can you obtain an IFR clearance?
C) Contact Flight Service before taxiing.
134
An abbreviated departure clearance "CLEARED AS FILED" means that
B) you are cleared to fly the filed route unless ATC otherwise directs.
135
(Refer to figure 193.) When doing an airborne VOR check over Brownwood airport over the rotating beacon with the VOR set to 169°, your DME shows 6.2 NM and your VOR receiver shows a 5° deflection to the right. You determine that
C) this was a successful VOR and DME check.
136
You have an IFR clearance for VFR-on-Top. In a non-radar environment, you should
A) make position reports.
137
Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?
B) Place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date, and signature.
138
Under what condition may you fly above 18,000 MSL when using BasicMed medical qualification?
B) Flight above 18,000 MSL is not allowed under BasicMed.
139
What conditions allow a pilot exercising the privileges of BasicMed to act as PIC under instrument flight rules (IFR)?
C) When the PIC is instrument rated and current.
140
You are flying a heading of 090 with a VFR-on-Top clearance. What altitude do you fly?
A) Odd thousand plus 500 feet.
141
As part of the preflight planning for a flight under IFR, the PIC must
C) consider the runway lengths and takeoff and landing distances, including at the alternate.
142
You experience two way radio communication failure in IMC from STL to OKC. You should
C) continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.
143
You are flying a heading of 270 with a VFR-on-TOP clearance. What altitude do you fly?
B) Even thousand plus 500 feet.
144
If you plan to fly under IFR in controlled airspace, you must file an IFR flight plan and
B) receive an appropriate clearance from ATC.
