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Frontier Recurrent Flashcards/Upgrade Flashcards > Volume 1 Material > Flashcards

Volume 1 Material Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three volumes of the Flight Operations Manuals? (FOMS)

A

Vol 1 - policy and procedures that are not aircraft specific
Vol 2 - policy and procedures specific to the Airbus
Vol 3 - Aircraft and systems in depth information

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2
Q

What’s the difference between a bulletin and a pilot alert?

A

Bulletins supersede company policies while effective. Pilot alerts tend to clarify company policies but not modify them.

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3
Q

What are some of the PIC responsibilities?

A

The Captain is in command of the entire crew and is responsible for the safety of them, the aircraft, and the passengers. They are responsible for ensuring the aircraft is airworthy and that all legality is checked prior to flight.

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4
Q

What is PIC emergency authority? Must they do anything after they exercise it?

A

The Captain may deviate from any FAR, company policy, etc, and take any action necessary to ensure the safety of the Flight that they think necessary. They must keep the company and ATC notified and within 36 hours of completing the sequence file an incident report. If ATC requests a report this must be done within 48 hrs.

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5
Q

Can pilots and dispatchers of other airlines use our jumpseat?

A

Yes for domestic flights only. Must be CASS verified

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6
Q

Can crew or employees use the FA jumpseat on international flights?

A

Yes, eligible employees can use the FA jumpseat on domestic or international flights

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7
Q

Who can occupy the flight deck jumpseat on international flights?

A

Frontier employees with ACM authorization on their badge OR they have a LOA to do so

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8
Q

Who must fill out the ACM authorization form?

A

Everyone except FAA inspectors. This applies to flight deck and cabin jumpseats

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9
Q

What is the responsibility of the Captain with regards to jumpseaters?

A

Show them the jumpseat briefing card to satisfy all requirements

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10
Q

What is the Frontier policy regarding alcohol?

A

10 hours between consumption and showtime.

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11
Q

When must you use Cockpit oxygen?

A

Cabin altitude over 10,000 feet

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12
Q

What braking action would preclude you from operating an aircraft on any surface?

A

NIL

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13
Q

Can an intoxicated person be allowed to board?

A

No

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14
Q

Can you stow passenger baggage in the Cockpit?

A

Yes, but only if that passenger would be authorized to occupy a flight deck jumpseat

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15
Q

Does Frontier carry HAZMAT?

A

No

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16
Q

What would you do if you lost weather radar enroute?

A

The flight may continue provided hazardous weather can be avoided visually

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17
Q

What credentials must a pilot have on them at all times?

A

FAA and medical certificates, company ID, FCC permit, valid passport

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18
Q

How can one be qualified to fly into a special use airport?

A

Pictorial means or the PIC or SIC has made a takeoff and landing at that airport in the preceding 12 months. This doesn’t apply if weather mins are 1000’ above the MEA for the IAF of the approach to be used.

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19
Q

A ‘High Mins FO’ with less than 100 hours, the Capt must make all takeoffs and landings when?

A

1) RVR is at or below 4000
2) or Visibility is below 3/4 mi
3) Water, slush, or snow on the runway may affect performance
4) Braking action reported LESS than Good
5) Crosswind MORE than 15 knots
6) Windshear is present or reported
7) Any time the Capt deems prudent
8) special use airport

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20
Q

Are there FO minimums for takeoff?

A

1/2 mi or 1800RVR but this is only a RECOMMENDATION

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21
Q

What are the Capt high minimum restrictions?

A

With less than 100 hrs PIC (does NOT include OE) the following must be applied to each instrument approach flown:
1) Increase DA or MDA by 100 feet AND
2) Increase visibility by 1/2 mi or RVR equivalent

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22
Q

What requirements are there for a High Mins Captain to be dispatched?

A

The destination visibility must be increased by 1/2 mi unless using exemption 21515. Alternate mins do not change but the Capt must still add 100’ and 1/2 mi when conducting an approach there.

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23
Q

What Approaches are High Mins captains not allowed to conduct?

A

CAT III operations

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24
Q

What is exemption 21515?

A

Allows high mins Captains to operate to lower Cat 1 and 2 limits. Check Vol 1 for specific limits and landings with less than 1000RVR still not authorized

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25
In a 168 hour period (1 week) a crew member must be given how many hours of rest free from all company assigned duty?
30 hours
26
When must crews have company apps updated by?
Prior to reporting for duty
27
When is the PIC the ISC? (in flight security coordinator)
Cabin doors shut to cabin doors open
28
If there is an inflight engine shutdown, where must the PIC land?
At the nearest suitable airport in point of time, that a safe landing can be made.
29
Must all flight attendants be on board during passenger loading and unloading?
Yes
30
Can pilots stand in for flight attendants during loading or unloading?
No
31
Can pilots stand in for flight attendants on a through flight?
Yes. Half of the FA compliment (2 even for 321's) must remain onboard and a pilot can stand in for them. One in the rear and one at the front.
32
Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?
The CRO.
33
Must a passenger have a physicians statement about the use of POC? Must the Captain be notified?
Yes and Yes
34
What is the joint responsibility of the PIC and dispatcher for a flight?
Both are responsible for safe preflight planning including weather, traffic, and Enroute facilities. Both have the authority to delay a flight.
35
Who can cancel a flight?
Systems Operational Control (SOC)
36
When is an alternate required?
1) 1-2-3 rule 2) Marginal weather (ceiling within 100' or Visibility within 1/2 mi of the mins for that airport). If derived alternate mins are marginal then a 2nd alternate is needed 3) Severe icing forecast within 1 hr of arrival time 4) Method 2 5) Supplemental or offline charters 6) Flag ops more than 6 hrs 7) Exemption 20144 (domestic flights only) 8) RNAV only approaches 9) Thunderstorms
37
What are derived alternate minimums?
These are minimums you can use to determine a good alternate by doing the following: 1) Add 400' to the DA or MDA and 1sm for any airport with only 1 operational navigational facility OR 2) Add 200' to the DA or MDA and 1/2sm for airports with at least two operational facilities with straight in approach procedures to do different suitable runways.
38
What is exemption 20295? Are there limitations?
Allows dispatch of flights to airports without designating an alternate when: 1) CAT 1 available: 1000' ceiling and 3sm vis 2) CAT 2 available: 1,000' ceiling and 2sm vis 3) CAT 3 available: 1,000' ceiling and 2sm vis If so, no alternate is required. Limitations include: 1) must be listed on the release as Exemption 20295 2) Aircraft and crew capable 3) Reports of thunderstorms +/- one hr 4) Cannot be used with exemption 20144 5) Contiguous United States only 6) ACARS must be operable 7) Dispatch must be notified of any route, altitude, fuel, icing, or weather changes that could affect the flight
39
What flight paperwork is required before block out?
1) Dispatch or flight release 2) Flight Plan 3) Weather 4) NOTAMS 5) Performance Data 6) Weight and Balance manifest
40
Is a TLR required for block out?
No. Only needed for special ACARS codes when a runway is shortened
41
What is Method 1?
Ensures an aircraft can clear all obstacles by 1,000 feet within 5nm of the route in the event of an engine failure from V1 onwards
42
What is Method 2?
Ensures an aircraft can clear all obstacles by 2,000' within 5nm of the route and reach a suitable alternate in the event of an engine failure
43
If an engine is lost dispatched Method 2, what is assumed if cruising altitude is not yet reached?
That the flight will return back to it's departure airport. If there was a takeoff alternate it will proceed to the departure airport first and THEN the takeoff alternate.
44
What is considered a suitable airport for emergency purposes?
1) has suitable navaids and approaches 2) has suitable emergency services 3) suitable weather 4) suitable passenger handling facilities 5) suitable runway length
45
Are correct crew names required on a release?
No, unless it's a supplemental flight
46
When is an ARTR required?
1) Supp Ops crew change 2) More than 1 hour past release time 3) Alternate added or changed 4) More than 1,000lbs of fuel added 5) MEL/CDL/NEF added or removed 6) Route change increased flight by MORE than 100nm. 7) Takeoff alternate added or changed 8) Capt changes after release acceptance
47
How must an ARTR be delivered?
Any available means including by phone, radio, aviobook, etc.
48
For an ARTR to be valid what must the Captain do? What makes an ARTR legal?
Acknowledge it via ACARS, phone, etc. ARTR must have a number, dispatcher initials, and time of issuance.
49
How can the crew obtain release paperwork if ACARS/Aviobook is not available and the station cannot print it out?
Use the manual dispatch release form in the diversion/forms kit. Anything in light blue must be filled in. Call dispatch to do so.
50
What is Contingency fuel for?
1) weather that may delay a flight 2) traffic delays 3) MEL/CDL unusable fuel restrictions 4) fuel for when an aircraft's position may not be reliably determined
51
What does Alternate fuel consist of?
1) Climb to cruise 2) Flight to most distant IAF at alternate airport 3) Cost index 0 4) One approach and landing
52
What does Brake Release Fuel Consist of?
Burn, Contingency, Alternate, Reserve
53
What is EXTRA fuel for?
Extended taxi times
54
At what point will QNH change the validity of the TLR?
When QNH is MORE than .10 below the planned QNH
55
How is a simple special procedure different than a standard one?
It will require a turn below 1000' AFE
56
When is a complex-special procedure issued?
When it's too complex to fit on the TLR
57
Must you follow a Complex-Special in VFR conditions?
Yes in it's entirety, both IMC and VMC
58
Can we accept bags after block out?
Yes, prior to engine start with coordination from the loadmaster
59
If a passenger purchases an extra seat for their luggage, how much does it weigh?
90lbs. Note: a wheelchair stowed in the cabin will not count as cargo
60
Do we need the closeout (final flight info list) for departure?
No
61
What are the four ways to get W&B for departure?
1) ACARS AWP (primary) 2) W&B manifest from Central Load Planning 3) Computer generated W&B from CLP 4) AeroData cFDP app along with TLR
62
Must a Captain sign a computer generated W&B from CLP?
Yes, except in Denver. And leave it with station personnel
63
If not using AWP when must Load Planning be notified?
When fuel on board varies more than 400lbs from fuel on weight and balance manifest
64
Can you depart without a fuel slip?
Yes as long as fuel is within 500lbs of release fuel
65
Must the main cabin door be open for refueling?
Yes, it must remain open until fueling is completed
66
What is the lowest authorized RVR for departure?
500 with HIRL and CL
67
When does SMGCS go into effect?
RVR is 1200 or less
68
At airports with ops below RVR600 what is usually available?
A follow-me car
69
What is considered severe icing?
When anti and deice equipment on the plane fails to reduce or control the hazard
70
What winter weather operations are prohibited?
1) ops in moderate or worse freezing rain or heavy freezing drizzle 2) in known severe icing conditions 3) when braking action is NIL
71
Are circle to land approaches authorized at Frontier?
No. Only circle to land maneuvers.
72
Can Frontier conduct Special Authorization CAT 1 or 2 approaches?
CAT 2 SA only
73
What airports are considered terrain sensitive?
Any airport with contour lines published on SIDS/STARS or approaches and/or those labeled as mountainous terrain in AvioBook
74
Must you always brief terrain?
No. Example: a flight departing east out of Denver is not terrain sensitive
75
When is the sterile signal given?
10000 AFE or 30 nm, whichever is first (on Descent)
76
If the PA becomes inoperative during flight how would you signal to the FA's to prepare for landing?
Push the forward and aft call buttons
77
What are the minimum hand signals that must be discussed prior to pushback if the headset is inoperative?
1) Brake release 2) clear to push 3) emergency stop
78
Is Frontier authorized to use A-VDGS?
Yes, Frontier can use the Advanced Visual Docking Guidance System
79
What must be checked when using the A-VDGS system prior to entering gate area?
1) correct aircraft type 2) safety zone is clear 3) never move past the jetbridge unless there is a centerline indicator 4) stop and wait whenever it tells you
80
Can you build an RNAV SID or STAR in the box?
No. It must be retrieved from the database
81
What equipment is required for RVSM flight?
Two altitude measuring systems One altitude alerting device One altitude reporting transponder One autopilot
82
What is the difference between Class 1 and Class 2 navigation?
Class 1 navigation is conducted within the service volume of ground based facilities. Class 2 is anything outside of Class 1
83
What is RNP 10 and where can Frontier conduct it?
Allows for 50nm separation. Gulf of Mexico and Atlantic ocean airspace
84
Can CAT 2/3 be conducted outside of the US?
No
85
Must a ceiling be reported to conduct an approach?
No, only visibility unless it's a circling manuever
86
When can we accept a LAHSO clearance?
1) runway is DRY 2) no windshear 3) less than 3 knots of tailwind 4) 1500' ceiling and 5 mi visibility unless there's a PAPI or VASI then 1000' ceiling and 3 mi visibility 5) clearance must be accepted prior to 1000AFE 6) no MEL/CDL's that impact landing performance
87
Who is responsible to ensure the international briefcase is on board for international flights?
The 'A' flight attendant
88
What is the required equipment for dispatch to an international destination? For the return?
ACARS TCAS GPWS Return: ACARS
89
Can Frontier conduct visual approaches in international airspace?
No, we must request a VMC approach
90
Is an HF radio required in WAT or Gulf of Mexico?
Only WAT
91
Can direct clearances off a flight planned route be accepted in Class 2 airspace?
Yes.
92
What is SLOP, where can we do it, and do we have to get permission?
Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures - a 1 or 2 nm deviation right of centerline which we can do in WAT or the Gulf of Mexico without permission
93
If an international flight diverts and does not clear customs what is required?
A permit to proceed
94
On an international diversion what is important to remember?
Coordinate with OPS as soon as possible and do not open and door, window, or panel until cleared by customs to do so.
95
How many pax can be onboard a repositioning flight?
19 with no flight attendants
96
If engines or landing gear must be deiced what is the proper procedure?
Contact MCC and make a logbook entry.
97
Is any ice allowed on the aircraft prior to flight?
A thin layer of hoarfrost on the upper fuselage A frost layer no more than 1/8" thick on the underside of the wing near the fuel tanks Snow slow on the landing gear from taxiing
98
What configuration for deicing is approved for Frontier airplanes?
Any combination of engine/APU config is approved, but none should be started while being sprayed
99
If a holdover time expires can the flight crew still depart?
Yes if the wingtip check from the exit row is performed and takeoff is done within 5 mins
100
Is deicing or anti-icing allowed with slats/flaps extended?
Yes for deice, must retract for anti-ice
101
When must you conduct a pre-takeoff wingtip check?
When you have been anti-iced and are still within the holdover time
102
When must you conduct a pre takeoff contamination check?
When there has been heavy snow OR you've exceeded your holdover time. This check is done from the exit row
103
What must the crew do if Type 4 fluid is used forward of the passenger doors?
Return to the gate and contact MCC
104
What medical kit must be authorized by the Captain before it can be used?
The Emergency Medical Kit
105
What are some of the things to keep in mind about the Tarmac Delay Program?
3 hour limit for domestic flights, 4 hrs for international Clock starts with the ON time for arrivals, for departures it's 5 mins after the last passenger has boarded. If we allow pax to egress during a delay at the gate the clock does not start Captains should talk to the pax every 15 mins to keep them informed
106
When can we use the extended delay kit?
At the two hour mark
107
Can you depart without an extended delay kit?
Yes. No logbook writeup needed. Aircraft must return to the gate within 2 hrs
108
If a plane diverts who is usually responsible for the decision to allow passengers to disembark?
SOC
109
What is the difference between a cabin advisory and emergency preparation?
Cabin Advisory: use the normal FA call buttons, identify the nature of the irregularity, advise of new flight plan, remind FA's that emergency prep is not anticipated. Emergency Preparation: Call using EMERG button. Give them TEST acronym.
110
What is the TEST acronym?
Type of Emergency Evacuation Anticpated Signal Review (brace, remain seated, evacuate 3 times each) Time until landing
111
When are security searches conducted? If a suspicious item is found who do you call?
First flight of the day and international flights. Call the GSC
112
Can a deadheading crew member in uniform who has a seat in the back come to the flight deck during the flight?
No.
113
Do FAM's have to fill out the noticed to armed individual form? Must a Captain sign this form?
No. Only LEO's and yes, the Captain must sign it
114
Must the Captain be informed of all individuals carrying firearms on board? Do all armed individuals have to know where other armed individuals are on the plane?
Yes and yes
115
What are the responsibilities of the Captain regarding armed individuals on a plane?
They must ensure that all crew members are aware of armed individuals on board and that each armed individuals is aware of all other armed individuals onboard the aircraft.
116
If you hear an FA whistle during flight what will the Captain do?
Declare an emergency and land at the nearest suitable airport pending no communication from the flight attendants.
117
What are the four threat levels?
1) Verbal 2) Physical 3) Imminent threat of death or harm 4) Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
118
When does the ILS critical hold area go into effect?
800'/2nm
119
When do runway edge lights turn from white to yellow/amber?
Last 2000' or 1/2 of the runway whichever is less
120
When do runway centerline lights change from white to alternating red/white?
3000' remaining
121
When do centerline lights turn all red?
Last 1000'
122
What color are taxiway lead off lights from a runway?
Alternating green and yellow
123
How much of a runway is considered the touchdown zone?
The first 3000' or 1/3 of the runway, whichever is shorter
124

Frontier Recurrent Flashcards/Upgrade Flashcards (13 decks)

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