Vitamins and Physiotherapy (Irene Gold) Parts II and III Flashcards

1
Q

A deficiency in which vitamin will cause night blindness?

A

Vitamin A (Retinol)

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2
Q

What is the name for Vitamin A?

A

Retinol

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3
Q

What condition will an increase in Vitamin A cause?

A

Hypervitaminosis: beta-caratinema (yellow skin with normal sclera)

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4
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B1?

A

Thiamine

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5
Q

What condition is caused by a decrease in Thiamine?

A

Beri-Beri

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6
Q

What are two findings with Beri-Beri syndrome?

A

Encephalopathy

Psychosis

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7
Q

What condition is seen in alcoholics that have a decrease in Vitamin B1?

A

Wernike Kosakoff syndrome

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8
Q

What vitamin is called Riboflavin?

A

B2

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9
Q

What is the name of the condition seen in a person with a decrease in Vitamin B2?

A

Cheilosis (Sore cracks at the corner of the mouth)

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10
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B3?

A

Niacin

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11
Q

What condition is seen in patients with a decrease in Niacin?

A

Pellagra

4 D’s: Dementia, Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Death

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12
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B6?

A

Pyridoxine

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13
Q

For what condition is Pyridoxine recommended?

A

Peripheral nerve healing

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14
Q

What four conditions is Vitamin B6 used to help?

A

Carpal tunnel
Pregnancy
Hypo-tension
Natural Diuretic

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15
Q

When is Vitamin B9 recommended to be taken and for what purpose?

A

Prior to pregnancy

To help with formation of the neural arch;neural tube defects are less likely to occur

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16
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B9?

A

Folic Acid

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17
Q

What type of anemia is seen in alcoholics with a Folic Acid deficiency?

A

Megoloblastic (Macrocyic) Anemia

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18
Q

What does a deficiency in B9 produce?

A

Glossitis

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19
Q

Pain in what location of the body will improve at night when taking B9?

A

Legs

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20
Q

What Vitamin has the name Cobalamin?

A

B12

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21
Q

What population will be deficient in B12?

A

Vegetarians

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22
Q

A lack of intrinsic factor with Cobalamin leads to what type of Anemia?

A

Pernicious Anemia

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23
Q

A deficiency of B12 leads to Megaloblastic anemia which is confirmed positive how?

A

Positive Schilling test

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24
Q

What Vitamin is associated with Posterolateral Sclerosis (Combined Systems Disease)?

A

Cobalamin

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25
What two systems are often part of Combined System Disease (PLS)?
Gastrointestinal (GI) | Neurological
26
What Vitamin masks the symptoms of B12?
Folic Acid (B9)
27
What conditions will persist even after Cobalamin is administered?
Neuropathies
28
What is the name for Vitamin C?
Ascorbic Acid
29
What two conditions will be seen if a patient has a decrease in Ascorbic Acid?
Scurvy | Capillary fragility
30
In what population should you supplement Vitamin C, because of a deficiency?
Smokers
31
What is one function of Ascorbic Acid?
Healing of connective tissue
32
Vitamin C helps with the absorption of what mineral?
Iron
33
When should you avoid the intake/supplementation of Vitamin C?
When kidney stones are present
34
What condition can arise if there is an excessive amount of Ascorbic Acid consumed?
Diarrhea
35
What condition will be seen with a deficiency in Vitamin D?
Bone Softening called: Rickets- Kids Osteomalacia- Adults
36
What are two very good sources of Vitamin D?
Fish liver oil (Best source) | Egg yolks
37
What two signs will be present in a patient with a decrease in Vitamin D?
Rachitic Rosary near Sternum | Saber Shin
38
What will an increase of a Vitamin D do?
Increase bone density
39
What is the name of the x-ray finding in patients with a decrease of Vitamin D?
Paint brush metaphysis
40
In what climate will you see a deficiency in Vitamin D?
In cooler climates
41
What is the name for Vitamin E?
Tocopherol
42
What Vitamin is an antioxidant for the cardiovascular system?
Vitamin E
43
Where is Vitamin K made?
Intestinal flora
44
What is the major function of Vitamin K?
Clotting
45
How is Vitamin K destroyed in the body?
Antibiotic Therapy
46
What is a contraindication with Vitamin K deficiency?
Anticoagulants
47
What amino acid is increased in Coronary/ Cardiovascular disease?
Homocysteine
48
What is used to treat hypercholesterolemia, natural anti inflammatory?
Omega 3 Fatty Acids
49
What three things will Zinc help with?
Prostate health Wound healing Immune system health
50
A toxic does of what mineral will do damage to hair, nails and skin?
Selenium
51
What mineral is essential for diabetics and is a glucose tolerance factor?
Chromium
52
What is the number one mineral deficiency in the world?
Iron
53
What mineral is the most deficient in the United States?
Calcium
54
What is the name of a cancer specialist?
Oncologist
55
What specialist is similar to a General Practitioner?
Internist
56
What is the focus of a Gastroenterologist?
Gastrointestinal (GI) dysfunction | i.e. Stomach and Gallbladder
57
If a patient has a kidney issue, who is the appropriate referral to?
Nerphroligist
58
What specialist takes care of glandular problems, i.e. Diabetes Mellitus?
Endocrinologist
59
What does a Urologist focus on?
Genitourinary (GU) tract | Prostate
60
What is the name of the specialist that takes care of heart conditions?
Cardiologist
61
What conditions will often be cared for by a Neurologist?
Multiple Sclerosis Parkinson's Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
62
What age is seen by a Pediatrician?
Newborn up to 14 years of age
63
What are the three essential fatty acids?
``` Linolenic acid (omega-3 fatty acid) Linoleic acid (omega-6 fatty acid) Arachidonic Acid ```
64
If there is an increase in dietary protein what else must be increased?
Calcium
65
What are the time frames for the following: Acute Subacute Chronic
Acute: 24-48 hours Subacute: 48-72 hours Chronic: 72+ hours
66
What are the indications of massage?
Subacute sprains/strains Bruises Tendinitis Bursitis
67
What are the contraindications of massage?
Vascular problems i.e. Blood clots
68
What is the name of the modality used to break up adhesions?
Friction massage
69
What is one condition that you would use Friction/ Transverse massage?
Epicondylitis (Lateral/Medial)
70
When would Trigger Point Therapy be indicated for use?
Myofascial pain
71
What is the maximum time you should perform Trigger Point Therapy at one location?
Ten seconds
72
What is the purpose of Trigger Point Therapy?
To elongate contracted bands of muscle fibers
73
What two modalities can be done to each myofascial pain problem?
Trigger Point Therapy | Spray and Stretch
74
What are four indications to carry out Traction?
Disc syndrome Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) encroachment Chronic muscle spasm Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)
75
What are three contraindicates of doing Traction?
Acute Injury Bone weak/Inhibitedening conditions Ligament Instability
76
What is the indication to use Cryotherapy?
Acute conditions
77
How long should Cryotherapy be used for?
20-30 minutes
78
What mnemonic is often used with the Cryotherapy modality?
``` RICE Rest Ice Compress Elevate ```
79
What are the four contraindicates to Cryotherapy?
Circulatory comprise Raynaud's Frostbite Hypersensitivity to cold
80
What are the three indications to use Infrared?
Chronic musculoskeletal conditions Arthritic conditions Stiff joints
81
What are three contraindicates to Infrared therapy?
Acute conditions Inflammation Abnormal thermal sensation
82
When is it appropriate to use Ultraviolet light therapy?
Skin and bone conditions (i.e. Infection)
83
What are two contraindicates to Ultraviolet therapy?
Hemorrhage | Inflammation
84
What three effects does Ultraviolet therapy have?
Antibacterial Antifungal Metabolic
85
What is another name for Diathermy?
Heat; Short wave and Microwave
86
What are three indications to use Diathermy?
Deep chronic musculoskeletal conditions Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) Prostatitis
87
What are three contraindicates of Diathermy?
Acute conditions Metallic implants Epiphyseal centers
88
When is pulsed ultrasound used?
During the acute phase
89
When is continuous ultrasound used?
Subacute and Chronic phases
90
What are the three indications to where you would use ultrasound?
Musculoskeletal conditions Contractures Adhesions
91
What are three contraindicates of ultrasound?
Epiphyseal centers Bony prominences Fractures
92
What four effects does Ultrasound have?
Thermal (Continuous only) Mechanical Chemical Neural
93
When would you perform ultrasound underwater?
Bony/irregular areas
94
What mode of ultrasound is used for an acute condition?
Pulsed
95
In an acute condition what setting is the ultrasound set on for Thin Tissue?
0.5-1.0 w/cm^2
96
What ultrasound setting would be appropriate for a setting of 1.0-1.5 w/cm^2?
Thick Tissue of an Acute condition
97
What mode is the ultrasound set on for a Chronic condition?
Continuous
98
What setting is the ultrasound set on for Thin Tissue in a Chronic condition?
1.0-1.5 w/cm^2
99
What is the setting on the ultrasound for an area of Thick Tissue in a Chronic Condition?
1.5-2.0 w/cm^2
100
What is the rule for conducting Ultrasound underwater?
Add 0.5 w/cm^2
101
What helps to drive ions into the tissue when using Ultrasound?
Phonophoresis
102
When would you use Low-Volt Galvanic?
Iontophoresis | Denervated muscle
103
What four conditions would you use High Volt Galvanic?
Pain control Decrease muscle spasm Decrease edema To exercise the muscle
104
What is the purpose for a TENS unit?
Pain control
105
What three reasons would you use Faradic/Sine wave therapy?
Muscle contraction Stretch fibrotic tissue Increase lymph flow
106
What modality produces less heat?
Interferential
107
What are four uses for Interferential therapy?
Pain control Edema reduction Break muscle spasms Exercise the muscle
108
What modality has a penetration twice as deep as High Volt Galvanic?
Interferential
109
What is another name for a Trochanteric Belt?
Sacroiliac Girdle
110
What two populations can benefit from a Trochanteric Belt?
``` Pregnant women (Lax SI joints, after pregnancy) Patients with Osteitis Condensans Ilii (OCI) ```
111
What kind of muscle contraction would you instruct a patient in a cast to do? This will prevent atrophy
Isometric muscle contraction
112
What term is described as " Muscular contraction in which tension is developed but the muscle does not change in length"?
Isometric muscle contraction
113
When is an Isometric muscle contraction most often used?
Initial treatment of an injury
114
What is an Isotonic muscle contraction?
Muscle contraction when there is a change in the muscle length
115
In an Isotonic muscle contraction the joint movement and the exercise are performed with ___________?
Constant Resistance/Same weight
116
What is a Concentric Isotonic Muscle Contraction?
Shortened Contraction (+ work)
117
What is it called when there is Negative (-) work or and lengthening contraction?
Eccentric Isotonic Muscle Contraction
118
What is the term used for "Muscular contraction with a change in length and a constantly changing resistance performed at a constant speed through the full range of motion"?
Isokinetic Muscle contraction
119
What exercises are done for peripheral vascular disease?
Buerger-Allen
120
What condition is reduced by performing William's Flexion exercises?
Hyperlordosis
121
What are three example of William's Flexion exercises?
Abdominal crunches Pelvic tilts Hamstring stretches
122
What exercises are done to help increase lumbar lordosis and rehab a disc?
McKenzie's Extension Exercises
123
What exercises include "finger tip wall walking" and "pendular exercises"?
Codman's Exercises
124
What condition does Codman's Exercises help with?
Shoulder Issues
125
What exercise is instructed to postpartum women and men with incontinence?
Kegel Exercises
126
What is the name of the exercise that provides Feedback?
Jacobson's
127
What is the name of the exercises for knee rehab?
DeLorme
128
What are Frenkel's Exercises?
Increase coordination | Uses a Wobble Board
129
What is the name of the exercises used in patterning and helping patients with Cerebral Palsy (CP)?
Bobarth
130
What is the name for Ballistic exercises?
Plyometric
131
What is an example of an Open chain exercise?
Bicep curl | Leg extension
132
What is the definition of an Open Chain Exercise?
Exercise where the hand/foot is free to move
133
What is the name of the exercise that has a fixed/does not allow the hand/foot to move freely?
Closed chain exercise
134
What is an example of a closed chain exercise?
Pushup | Squat
135
What is the name of the brace to help with Osgood-Schlatter disease?
Cho-pat brace
136
What is another name for Osgood-Schlatter disease?
Tibial Apophysis
137
What muscles are Weak/Inhibited in Upper Cross Syndrome?
``` Deep neck Flexors (i.e. Longus Coli and Longus Capitus) Lower Trapezius Serratus Anterior Rhomboids Posterior Deltoid ```
138
What muscles are Tight/Facilitated in Upper Cross Syndrome?
``` Pectoralis Upper Trapezius Levator Scapula Anterior Deltoid Superficial neck Flexors (i.e. Scalenes and Sternocleidomastoid (SCM)) ```
139
What three muscles are Weak/Inhibited in Lower Cross Syndrome?
Abdominal (Transverse Abdominal) Gluteus MAXIMUS Hamstrings
140
What three muscles are Tight/Facilitated in Lower Cross Syndrome?
Iliopsoas Quadriceps Erector Spinae
141
What two supplements should a patient with Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD) be taking?
Glucosamine Sulfate | Chondroitin
142
What supplement should a patient with Herpes be taking?
L-Lysine