Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) > Vitamins and Physiotherapy (Irene Gold) Parts II and III > Flashcards

Vitamins and Physiotherapy (Irene Gold) Parts II and III Flashcards

1
Q

A deficiency in which vitamin will cause night blindness?

A

Vitamin A (Retinol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the name for Vitamin A?

A

Retinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What condition will an increase in Vitamin A cause?

A

Hypervitaminosis: beta-caratinema (yellow skin with normal sclera)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B1?

A

Thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What condition is caused by a decrease in Thiamine?

A

Beri-Beri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are two findings with Beri-Beri syndrome?

A

Encephalopathy

Psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What condition is seen in alcoholics that have a decrease in Vitamin B1?

A

Wernike Kosakoff syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What vitamin is called Riboflavin?

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the name of the condition seen in a person with a decrease in Vitamin B2?

A

Cheilosis (Sore cracks at the corner of the mouth)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B3?

A

Niacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What condition is seen in patients with a decrease in Niacin?

A

Pellagra

4 D’s: Dementia, Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B6?

A

Pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For what condition is Pyridoxine recommended?

A

Peripheral nerve healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What four conditions is Vitamin B6 used to help?

A

Carpal tunnel
Pregnancy
Hypo-tension
Natural Diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When is Vitamin B9 recommended to be taken and for what purpose?

A

Prior to pregnancy

To help with formation of the neural arch;neural tube defects are less likely to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the name for Vitamin B9?

A

Folic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of anemia is seen in alcoholics with a Folic Acid deficiency?

A

Megoloblastic (Macrocyic) Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does a deficiency in B9 produce?

A

Glossitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pain in what location of the body will improve at night when taking B9?

A

Legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What Vitamin has the name Cobalamin?

A

B12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What population will be deficient in B12?

A

Vegetarians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A lack of intrinsic factor with Cobalamin leads to what type of Anemia?

A

Pernicious Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A deficiency of B12 leads to Megaloblastic anemia which is confirmed positive how?

A

Positive Schilling test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What Vitamin is associated with Posterolateral Sclerosis (Combined Systems Disease)?

A

Cobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What two systems are often part of Combined System Disease (PLS)?

A

Gastrointestinal (GI)

Neurological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What Vitamin masks the symptoms of B12?

A

Folic Acid (B9)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What conditions will persist even after Cobalamin is administered?

A

Neuropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the name for Vitamin C?

A

Ascorbic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What two conditions will be seen if a patient has a decrease in Ascorbic Acid?

A

Scurvy

Capillary fragility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In what population should you supplement Vitamin C, because of a deficiency?

A

Smokers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is one function of Ascorbic Acid?

A

Healing of connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Vitamin C helps with the absorption of what mineral?

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When should you avoid the intake/supplementation of Vitamin C?

A

When kidney stones are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What condition can arise if there is an excessive amount of Ascorbic Acid consumed?

A

Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What condition will be seen with a deficiency in Vitamin D?

A

Bone Softening called:
Rickets- Kids
Osteomalacia- Adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are two very good sources of Vitamin D?

A

Fish liver oil (Best source)

Egg yolks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What two signs will be present in a patient with a decrease in Vitamin D?

A

Rachitic Rosary near Sternum

Saber Shin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What will an increase of a Vitamin D do?

A

Increase bone density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the name of the x-ray finding in patients with a decrease of Vitamin D?

A

Paint brush metaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In what climate will you see a deficiency in Vitamin D?

A

In cooler climates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the name for Vitamin E?

A

Tocopherol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What Vitamin is an antioxidant for the cardiovascular system?

A

Vitamin E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Where is Vitamin K made?

A

Intestinal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the major function of Vitamin K?

A

Clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is Vitamin K destroyed in the body?

A

Antibiotic Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is a contraindication with Vitamin K deficiency?

A

Anticoagulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What amino acid is increased in Coronary/ Cardiovascular disease?

A

Homocysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is used to treat hypercholesterolemia, natural anti inflammatory?

A

Omega 3 Fatty Acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What three things will Zinc help with?

A

Prostate health
Wound healing
Immune system health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A toxic does of what mineral will do damage to hair, nails and skin?

A

Selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What mineral is essential for diabetics and is a glucose tolerance factor?

A

Chromium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the number one mineral deficiency in the world?

A

Iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What mineral is the most deficient in the United States?

A

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the name of a cancer specialist?

A

Oncologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What specialist is similar to a General Practitioner?

A

Internist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the focus of a Gastroenterologist?

A

Gastrointestinal (GI) dysfunction

i.e. Stomach and Gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If a patient has a kidney issue, who is the appropriate referral to?

A

Nerphroligist

58
Q

What specialist takes care of glandular problems, i.e. Diabetes Mellitus?

A

Endocrinologist

59
Q

What does a Urologist focus on?

A

Genitourinary (GU) tract

Prostate

60
Q

What is the name of the specialist that takes care of heart conditions?

A

Cardiologist

61
Q

What conditions will often be cared for by a Neurologist?

A

Multiple Sclerosis
Parkinson’s
Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

62
Q

What age is seen by a Pediatrician?

A

Newborn up to 14 years of age

63
Q

What are the three essential fatty acids?

A 
Linolenic acid (omega-3 fatty acid)
Linoleic acid (omega-6 fatty acid)
Arachidonic Acid
64
Q

If there is an increase in dietary protein what else must be increased?

65
Q

What are the time frames for the following:
Acute
Subacute
Chronic

A

Acute: 24-48 hours
Subacute: 48-72 hours
Chronic: 72+ hours

66
Q

What are the indications of massage?

A

Subacute sprains/strains
Bruises
Tendinitis
Bursitis

67
Q

What are the contraindications of massage?

A

Vascular problems i.e. Blood clots

68
Q

What is the name of the modality used to break up adhesions?

A

Friction massage

69
Q

What is one condition that you would use Friction/ Transverse massage?

A

Epicondylitis (Lateral/Medial)

70
Q

When would Trigger Point Therapy be indicated for use?

A

Myofascial pain

71
Q

What is the maximum time you should perform Trigger Point Therapy at one location?

A

Ten seconds

72
Q

What is the purpose of Trigger Point Therapy?

A

To elongate contracted bands of muscle fibers

73
Q

What two modalities can be done to each myofascial pain problem?

A

Trigger Point Therapy

Spray and Stretch

74
Q

What are four indications to carry out Traction?

A

Disc syndrome
Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) encroachment
Chronic muscle spasm
Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)

75
Q

What are three contraindicates of doing Traction?

A

Acute Injury
Bone weak/Inhibitedening conditions
Ligament Instability

76
Q

What is the indication to use Cryotherapy?

A

Acute conditions

77
Q

How long should Cryotherapy be used for?

A

20-30 minutes

78
Q

What mnemonic is often used with the Cryotherapy modality?

A 
RICE
Rest
Ice
Compress
Elevate
79
Q

What are the four contraindicates to Cryotherapy?

A

Circulatory comprise
Raynaud’s
Frostbite
Hypersensitivity to cold

80
Q

What are the three indications to use Infrared?

A

Chronic musculoskeletal conditions
Arthritic conditions
Stiff joints

81
Q

What are three contraindicates to Infrared therapy?

A

Acute conditions
Inflammation
Abnormal thermal sensation

82
Q

When is it appropriate to use Ultraviolet light therapy?

A

Skin and bone conditions (i.e. Infection)

83
Q

What are two contraindicates to Ultraviolet therapy?

A

Hemorrhage

Inflammation

84
Q

What three effects does Ultraviolet therapy have?

A

Antibacterial
Antifungal
Metabolic

85
Q

What is another name for Diathermy?

A

Heat; Short wave and Microwave

86
Q

What are three indications to use Diathermy?

A

Deep chronic musculoskeletal conditions
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Prostatitis

87
Q

What are three contraindicates of Diathermy?

A

Acute conditions
Metallic implants
Epiphyseal centers

88
Q

When is pulsed ultrasound used?

A

During the acute phase

89
Q

When is continuous ultrasound used?

A

Subacute and Chronic phases

90
Q

What are the three indications to where you would use ultrasound?

A

Musculoskeletal conditions
Contractures
Adhesions

91
Q

What are three contraindicates of ultrasound?

A

Epiphyseal centers
Bony prominences
Fractures

92
Q

What four effects does Ultrasound have?

A

Thermal (Continuous only)
Mechanical
Chemical
Neural

93
Q

When would you perform ultrasound underwater?

A

Bony/irregular areas

94
Q

What mode of ultrasound is used for an acute condition?

95
Q

In an acute condition what setting is the ultrasound set on for Thin Tissue?

A

0.5-1.0 w/cm^2

96
Q

What ultrasound setting would be appropriate for a setting of 1.0-1.5 w/cm^2?

A

Thick Tissue of an Acute condition

97
Q

What mode is the ultrasound set on for a Chronic condition?

A

Continuous

98
Q

What setting is the ultrasound set on for Thin Tissue in a Chronic condition?

A

1.0-1.5 w/cm^2

99
Q

What is the setting on the ultrasound for an area of Thick Tissue in a Chronic Condition?

A

1.5-2.0 w/cm^2

100
Q

What is the rule for conducting Ultrasound underwater?

A

Add 0.5 w/cm^2

101
Q

What helps to drive ions into the tissue when using Ultrasound?

A

Phonophoresis

102
Q

When would you use Low-Volt Galvanic?

A

Iontophoresis

Denervated muscle

103
Q

What four conditions would you use High Volt Galvanic?

A

Pain control
Decrease muscle spasm
Decrease edema
To exercise the muscle

104
Q

What is the purpose for a TENS unit?

A

Pain control

105
Q

What three reasons would you use Faradic/Sine wave therapy?

A

Muscle contraction
Stretch fibrotic tissue
Increase lymph flow

106
Q

What modality produces less heat?

A

Interferential

107
Q

What are four uses for Interferential therapy?

A

Pain control
Edema reduction
Break muscle spasms
Exercise the muscle

108
Q

What modality has a penetration twice as deep as High Volt Galvanic?

A

Interferential

109
Q

What is another name for a Trochanteric Belt?

A

Sacroiliac Girdle

110
Q

What two populations can benefit from a Trochanteric Belt?

A 
Pregnant women (Lax SI joints, after pregnancy)
Patients with Osteitis Condensans Ilii (OCI)
111
Q

What kind of muscle contraction would you instruct a patient in a cast to do? This will prevent atrophy

A

Isometric muscle contraction

112
Q

What term is described as “ Muscular contraction in which tension is developed but the muscle does not change in length”?

A

Isometric muscle contraction

113
Q

When is an Isometric muscle contraction most often used?

A

Initial treatment of an injury

114
Q

What is an Isotonic muscle contraction?

A

Muscle contraction when there is a change in the muscle length

115
Q

In an Isotonic muscle contraction the joint movement and the exercise are performed with ___________?

A

Constant Resistance/Same weight

116
Q

What is a Concentric Isotonic Muscle Contraction?

A

Shortened Contraction (+ work)

117
Q

What is it called when there is Negative (-) work or and lengthening contraction?

A

Eccentric Isotonic Muscle Contraction

118
Q

What is the term used for “Muscular contraction with a change in length and a constantly changing resistance performed at a constant speed through the full range of motion”?

A

Isokinetic Muscle contraction

119
Q

What exercises are done for peripheral vascular disease?

A

Buerger-Allen

120
Q

What condition is reduced by performing William’s Flexion exercises?

A

Hyperlordosis

121
Q

What are three example of William’s Flexion exercises?

A

Abdominal crunches
Pelvic tilts
Hamstring stretches

122
Q

What exercises are done to help increase lumbar lordosis and rehab a disc?

A

McKenzie’s Extension Exercises

123
Q

What exercises include “finger tip wall walking” and “pendular exercises”?

A

Codman’s Exercises

124
Q

What condition does Codman’s Exercises help with?

A

Shoulder Issues

125
Q

What exercise is instructed to postpartum women and men with incontinence?

A

Kegel Exercises

126
Q

What is the name of the exercise that provides Feedback?

A

Jacobson’s

127
Q

What is the name of the exercises for knee rehab?

128
Q

What are Frenkel’s Exercises?

A

Increase coordination

Uses a Wobble Board

129
Q

What is the name of the exercises used in patterning and helping patients with Cerebral Palsy (CP)?

130
Q

What is the name for Ballistic exercises?

A

Plyometric

131
Q

What is an example of an Open chain exercise?

A

Bicep curl

Leg extension

132
Q

What is the definition of an Open Chain Exercise?

A

Exercise where the hand/foot is free to move

133
Q

What is the name of the exercise that has a fixed/does not allow the hand/foot to move freely?

A

Closed chain exercise

134
Q

What is an example of a closed chain exercise?

A

Pushup

Squat

135
Q

What is the name of the brace to help with Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

Cho-pat brace

136
Q

What is another name for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

A

Tibial Apophysis

137
Q

What muscles are Weak/Inhibited in Upper Cross Syndrome?

A 
Deep neck Flexors (i.e. Longus Coli and Longus Capitus)
Lower Trapezius
Serratus Anterior 
Rhomboids 
Posterior Deltoid
138
Q

What muscles are Tight/Facilitated in Upper Cross Syndrome?

A 
Pectoralis 
Upper Trapezius
Levator Scapula 
Anterior Deltoid
Superficial neck Flexors (i.e. Scalenes and Sternocleidomastoid (SCM))
139
Q

What three muscles are Weak/Inhibited in Lower Cross Syndrome?

A

Abdominal (Transverse Abdominal)
Gluteus MAXIMUS
Hamstrings

140
Q

What three muscles are Tight/Facilitated in Lower Cross Syndrome?

A

Iliopsoas
Quadriceps
Erector Spinae

141
Q

What two supplements should a patient with Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD) be taking?

A

Glucosamine Sulfate

Chondroitin

142
Q

What supplement should a patient with Herpes be taking?

Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions