Assocaited Clinical Science (ACS) Part II (Irene Gold) Flashcards
1
Q
What is the name of the condition seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the ventral surface of the penis?
A
Hypospadias (Boots)
2
Q
What is the name of the condition that is seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the dorsal side of the penis?
A
Epispadias (Goggles)
3
Q
What is the condition of Phimosis?
A
Foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis
4
Q
What condition is described as “Foreskin becomes trapped behind/under the glans penis”?
A
Paraphimosis (“Turtle Neck”)
5
Q
What is the description of a Hydrocele?
A
Fluid accumulation around testes
Non Tender
Transillumnate
Can palpate above the mass
6
Q
What two male conditions of the male genital area are Not Transillumnate?
A
Scrotal Hernia
Tumor (Seminoma)
7
Q
In what condition can you not palpate above the mass in a male genital disorder?
A
Scrotal Hernia
8
Q
What male genital disorder will there be high levels of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) and a Painless nodule?
A
Tumor (Seminoma)
9
Q
What is the name of the male genital disorder described as a “Bag of Worms”?
A
Varicocele
10
Q
What is often a cause of Varicocele?
A
Portal Hypertension
11
Q
What is the name of the male genital condition that is described as “Common, Cutaneous firm, yellow crust”?
A
Epidermoid Cyst
12
Q
What male genital disorder has “Reddened testes that are tender and has posterior superior scrotal swelling”?
A
Epididymitis
13
Q
What two male genital disorders are Tranillunimate?
A
Hydrocele
Epididymitis
14
Q
What is the name of the male genital disorder that occurs from a blunt trauma and is a surgical emergency?
A
Testicular Torsion
15
Q
What male genital disorder is seen in adolescents and is classified as painful and swollen?
A
Testicular Torsion
16
Q
What are the two characteristics of Cryptorchism?
A
Undescended testicle
Increased risk of Testicular cancer
17
Q
What is the term used to describe and erection lasting longer than four hours?
A
Priapism
18
Q
What are three things that can cause Priapism?
A
Erectile Dysfunction Drugs
Central Nervous System (CNS) trauma
Increased intracranial pressure
19
Q
What is the term for an “Inflamed Penis gland”?
A
Balanitis
20
Q
What is the male genital disorder of Peyronie’s?
A
Crooked erection (“up, up and away”)
21
Q
What is a term that is associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
A
Salpingitisis
22
Q
What part of the reproduction system is most effected by Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
A
Fallopian Tubes
23
Q
What is the main cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
A
Gonorrhea
24
Q
What are four other causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease besides Gonorrhea?
A
Chlamydia
Candidiasis Yeast
Trichomoniasis
Infections=Prior STD
25
What kind of stain is Gonorrhea?
Gram-Negative Diplococcus
26
How is the Gonorrhea organism grown in a lab?
Chocolate Agar Plate
27
What is the most common symptom of Gonorrhea?
Dysuria (Painful Urination)
28
What is the most common sign of Gonorrhea?
Green Mucopurulent discharge
29
What is the most common joint effected in Gonorrhea?
Knee
30
In Gonorrhea the MC site of Sequelae in each of the following populations:
Men
Women
Newborns
Men: Testicles➡️Sterility
Women: Salpingitisis
Newborns: Blindness
31
Chlamydia is the causative agent for what two disorders/conditions?
Reiter's
| Ophthalmia Neonatorum
32
What condition does Chlamydia cause in females?
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
33
What condition is seen in males with Chlamydia?
Nothing, Asymptomatic
34
What is the most common cause of infertility in the United States?
Chlamydia
35
Which Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD), is more common Chlamydia or Gonorrhea?
Gonorrhea
36
What is the organism associated with Syphilis?
Spirochete (Treponema Pallidum)
37
STD transmitted through the placenta?
Syphilis
38
What is a treatment for Syphilis?
Penicillin
39
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is associated with Hutchinson's Triad?
Syphilis
40
What is Hutchinson's Triad?
Interstitial Keratitis
Notched Permanent Incisors (peg)
CN VIII Deafness
STD-Syphilis
41
What Diagnostic Test are done for a patient with Syphilis?
Darkfield Microscopy
42
What Labs are ordered in the condition of Syphilis?
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
FTA/ABS
TPI
43
What are characteristics of the First Stage of Syphilis?
Hard painless Singular Chancre
44
How long does the First Stage of Syphilis last?
Up to 8 weeks
45
What are the three characteristics of Stage Two of Syphilis?
Maculopapular Rash
Condylomata Lata (Flat Warts)
Alopecia
46
How long does the Second Stage of Syphilis last?
8 weeks to 2 years
47
What Stage of Syphilis is the most "Transmission"?
Stage Two
48
What are the three symptoms associated with Stage Three Syphilis?
```
Tabes Dorsalis (Posterior)
Gummas
Vascular Damage (Aortic Aneurysm or Aortic Valve Insufficiency)
```
49
In what Stage of Syphilis is there no transmission of the disease?
Stage Three
50
What is the time frame for Stage Three of Syphilis?
Over 25 years; without treatment
51
What kind of organism causes Trichimoniasis?
Parasite
52
What kind of Discharge is seen in Trichimoniasis?
Greenish Yellow
Frothy
Foul Smelling
53
What is another name for Candidiasis?
Moniliasis
54
What organism causes Candidiasis?
Yeast/Fungus
55
STD with White Cottage Cheese Discharge seen in the mouth of the vagina?
Candidiasis
56
What is Candidiasis of the mouth called?
Thrush
57
What two conditions are associated with Candidiasis?
```
Diabetes
Antibiotic Usage (Probiotics)
```
58
What two populations will often bee seen with Thrush?
Immunocomprimised Infants
| AIDS Patients
59
What organism causes Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
Chlamydia
60
What are two signs/symptoms of Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
Affects the lymph nodes of the groin
| Produces Rectal Strictures
61
What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?
Bacterium
62
What is the incubation time for the bacterium organism of the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?
8-80 days
63
How does the condition of Granuloma Inguinale present?
Red Beefy Lesions
| Nodular, lead to Ulcerations
64
Where is the condition of Granuloma Inguinale seen at?
Anogenital to Perineal Area
65
What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Genital Herpes?
Virus (HSV-2)
66
What is the appearance of Genital Herpes?
Vesicular clusters
67
What two things makes Genital Herpes reoccur?
Decreased immunity
| Stress
68
What is another name for Genital Warts?
Condylomata Accuminata
69
What is the organism that causes Genital Warts?
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
70
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is linked to Cervical Caner?
Genital Warts
71
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has a Papilloma?
Genital Warts
72
What are four characteristics of a Papilloma?
Painful
Soft
Flesh Colored
Cauliflower Erosions
73
What organism is linked to the Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) of Chancroid?
Hemophilus Ducreyi
74
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has "Papules that become soft and painful"?
Chancroid
75
What test is performed on a patient with Chancroid?
Frei Test
76
What kind of organism is the HIV Virus?
Retrovirus
77
What is the condition of AIDS often associated with?
Opportunistic Infections
78
What is one contraindication of a person with AIDS?
Breast Feeding
79
What are two high risk populations of contacting AIDS?
Homosexual Males
| IV Drug users
80
What two Labs are ordered for AIDS patients?
1-ELISA; Screening test (RNA)
| 2-Western Blot; Most accurate (Proteins)
81
What are three associated conditions in AIDS patients?
```
Pneumocystis Carinii (Fungal Lung) (Most Common)
Giardia Lamblia (Diarrhea)
Kaposi's Sarcoma
```
82
What is the organism in the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Virus
83
What two populations will you see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Children
| Adults-transmitted via sex
84
What is the only Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) that can be transmitted by a fomite?
Molluscum Contagiosum
| Fomite-Bath Towel etc.
85
What are two common locations to see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Mucosa of the Mouth
| Eyelids
86
What are the characteristics of the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Dome shaped
| Flesh Colored or Gray umbilicated papule that becomes *pearly white* with a cancerous core
87
What is the size, description and an example of a Macule?
Size: Less the 0.5 cm
Description: Flat
Example: Freckle
88
What is the size and description of a Papule?
Size: Less that 0.5 cm
Description: Raised
89
What two conditions are associated with a Papule?
Measles
| Syphilis (Solid)
90
What is the size and description of a Vesicle?
Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Serous Fluid filled
91
What two conditions are associated with a Vesicle?
Herpes
| Chicken Pox
92
What is the size and description of a Pustule?
Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Pus Filled
93
What condition is associated a Pustule?
Staph (Bacterial)
94
What causes the Staph infection in conjuncture with the Pustule?
Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)
95
What population has several Furuncles, usually seen at the base of the hair line?
African Americans
96
What is the size and description of a Nodule?
Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Hard, Raised
*Grown up Papule*
97
What is the size and description of a Bulla?
Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Fluid filled
*Grown up Vesicle*
98
What condition is associated with a Bulla?
Phemphigus
99
What is the name of a "Precancerous lesion seen on the mucus membrane that is associated with the use of tobacco products"?
Leukoplakia
100
What two conditions are "white" in the mouth which one can be scrapped off?
Thrush (Can be scrapped off)
| Leukoplakia
101
What is the location of Acne Rosacea? (3 areas)
Face
Noes
Cheeks
102
What three things exacerbate Acne Rosacea?
Sunlight
Caffeine
Alcohol
103
What population is the condition of Acne Vulgaris seen in?
Adolescents
104
What gland is infected in the condition of Acne Vulgaris?
Sebaceous Glands
105
How are the Sebaceous Glands of Acne Vulgaris characterized?
Comedones (Blackheads= open, Whiteheads=closed)
| Pus filled cyst
106
What is the name of the most common benign sun induced lesion?
Actinic Lentigo
107
What are two types of spots seen in the condition of Actinic Lentigo?
Sun Spots
| Liver Spots
108
What are the two most common places to see Actinic Lentigo?
Face
Back of Hands
*Areas that get high amounts of sun exposure*
109
What condition is described as "Pitted Erythematous lesion/ulcer of the mouth"?
Aphthous Stomatitis
110
What are two other terms associated with Aphthous Stomatitis?
Cancer Sore
| Yellowish Ulcer
111
What is a "Carload of Furuncles"? Has the same findings as a Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)
Carbuncle
112
What condition is an "Accumulation of sebum within in a pore"?
Comedone (Acne Vulgaris)
113
How is the condition of a Epidermal Cyst (Wen) described?
Non-tender cyst that is filled with sebum
114
What is the organism that is linked tot eh condition of Erysipelas?
Beta Hemolytic STREP
115
What condition has a "Red Fiery, advancing lesion on the skin"?
Erysipelas
116
What are two signs/symptoms a patient with Erysipelas will have?
Fever
| Elevated ASO Titer
117
What condition is; A skin reaction usually associated with strep and characterized by bilateral, red, tender nodules?
Erythema Nodosum
118
What is the term for "Any surface injury to the skin"?
Excoriation
119
How do you diagnosis Fungal/Mycotic Infections?
Wood's Lamp
120
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Corpus?
Body
121
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Pedis?
Athlete's Foot
122
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Ungunum?
Nails
123
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Capitus?
Scalp
124
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Cruris?
Jock Itch
125
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Barbae?
Beard
126
What kind of infection causes Tinea Versicolor?
Fungal Infection
127
What is Tinea Versicolor?
Multiple Hypo pigmented
Asymptomatic Lesions
Varying in color from white to brown
128
Where is one place you can acquire the condition of Tinea Versicolor?
Tanning Beds
129
What is the name of the condition that is described as "Staph infected hair follicle that presents as a Painful nodule"?
Furuncle
130
What condition is characterized by small vesicles located on the mouth or the genital region?
Herpes Simplex
HSV 1- Cold Sores (Mouth Region)
HSV 2- Genital Herpes (Genital Area)
131
When can the Herpes Simplex be reactivated?
During delivery
132
What test is done in a patient that has the Herpes Simplex?
Tzank Test
133
What is another term for Herpes Zoster?
Shingles
134
Where is Herpes Zoster most often found? (2 Locations)
Thoracic Dermatome
| Cranial Nerve V; area
135
In what population is Herpes Zoster exacerbated in?
Immuno-compromised patients
136
What are two characteristics of Herpes Zoster?
Will not cross midline (Thoracic Outbreak)
| Will have pain before outbreak on the skin
137
Where is Herpes Zoster found?
Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)
138
What is another name for Icthyosis?
Fish Skin
139
What condition is an "Increase keratinization producing a Non-inflammatory skin lesion"?
Icthyosis
140
What is the most common organism to cause Impetigo?
Strep
141
What is the sign of Impetigo?
Crusty (Yellow Honey) lesions
142
What two locations are common places to see Impetigo?
Corners of the mouth
| Hands
143
What skin condition is very contagious and often seen in children?
Impetigo
144
What condition is seen in the folds of the skin, that has reddened areas caused by trapped moisture, friction and warmth retained?
Intertrigo
145
What is the name of the condition that is "Dense, sharply elevated, progressive enlarging/excessive scar with collagenous hyperplasia"
Keloid
146
What three populations have a high level of Keloids?
African-Americans
Latinos
Asians
147
What condition has a "Rough thick skin due to constant scratching"(Chronic Dermatitis)?
Lichenificaiton
148
What is the name of the condition that is an inflammatory pruritic (itching) disease?
Lichen Planus
149
What are the three characteristics of Lichen Planus?
Papules with:
Shiny
Fine inconspicuous SCALES
Whitish lines or puncta
150
What condition has a "Discrete coin shaped, ring/annular lesion that coalesces to form patches with ooze and then crust overs"
Nummular Eczema
151
What condition is "Tender Bacterial (Maybe Fungal) hand/foot infection where the nail bed meets the skin at the side"?
Paronychia
152
What causes the condition of Pediculosis?
Lice
153
What are the three locations of the condition of Pediculosis?
Pubic Area- Pubis
Body- Corporis
Head-Capitus
154
What is the most common population to have the condition of Pemphigus Vulgaris?
Males of Jewish Decent
155
What is condition that is potentially life threatening condition of bulla (blisters) on the skin"?
Pemphigus Vulgaris
| Causes dehydration
156
What condition has an oval/round lesion called a "Herald Patch"?
Pityriasis Rosea
157
What is the cause of the condition of Pityriasis Rosea?
Virus
158
What condition has silver scales on the extensor surface of the knees and elbows?
Psoriasis
159
What is a transmittable infection caused by mites?
Scabies
160
What are two characteristics signs of Scabies?
Grouped vesicles
| Superficial linea furrows in the groin (Burrow under the skin)
161
What condition is like dandruff and similar to "Cradle Cap" in newborns?
Seborheic Dermatitis
162
What causes the condition of Urticaria?
Hive called a Wheal due to an Allergy (Penicillin or Food)
163
What is the name of the auto immune condition that has an absence of melanocytes (Depigmentation) after development?
Vitiligo
164
Where is the condition of Vitiligo most commonly seen?
Hands
Feet
Face
165
What condition has a complete depigmentation (Lack of Melanin) of the entire body observed from birth?
Albinism
166
Where are two symptoms of Albinism?
Pink Iris
| Poor Visual Acuity
167
What is the organism that causes Yeast Infections?
Candia Albicans
168
What is the most common skin cancer?
Basal Cell
169
What Is the Least Invasive Skin Cancer?
Basal Cell
170
What are four characteristics of Basal Cell
Waxy
Indurated
Rat Bite Appearance (Small area)
Doesn't Heal
171
What is the name of the cancer that is a malignant tumor of epithelial cells?
Squamous Cell
172
What areas usually get Squamous Cell Cancer?
Sun exposed area
173
What are three terms to describe Squamous Cell?
Irregular
Flaky
Rough area
174
What is the least common type of skin cancer?
Melanoma
175
What is the most invasive type of skin cancer?
Melanoma
176
What skin cancer will be multicolored and be mole like that follows the "ABC's" of cancer?
Melanoma
177
What is the term for "Premalignant condition of the skin caused by exposure to the sun"?
Actinic Keratosis
178
Who is a person who "acts out conflict with out remorse or guilt and struggles to follow rules"?
Psycho/Sociopath
179
What category is a Psycho/Sociopath fall under?
Antisocial
180
What personality disorder is described as "thoughts or behaviors that are automatic responses to anxiety or stress"?
Compulsive
181
What personality disorder is "Attention seeking, aggressive, seductive person who is unable to be deeply involved emotionally"?
Hysterical
182
What is another term for Hysterical in the Personality Disorders?
Histrionic
183
What is the definition of Narcissism?
Attention seeking
No one else is important (Self Centered)
Strong Admiration for self
Exhibitionist
184
What Personality Disorder has the following:
Preoccupied with delusions
Sensitive
Defensive
Suspicion leading to aggression
Unfounded belief that others want to cause them harm
Paranoid
185
What Personality disorder is describes as "Taking aggressive actions in and indirect manner, argumentative"?
Passive Aggressive
186
```
What Personality Disorder has the following:
Ungluing of "reason" or emotion
Introverted
Withdrawn
Emotional cold
Distant
Avoids social interaction
Delusions
Hallucinations
```
Schizoid
187
What Defense Mechanism is described as "Refusal to perceive unpleasant realities"?
Denial
188
What population most often uses the defense mechanism of denial?
Alcoholics
189
What Defense Mechanism is "Act of assigning a feeling or belief to another person, group or outside world"?
Projection
190
What is an example of Projection (Defense Mechanism)?
Cheating Spouse
191
What Defense Mechanism is described as "Attributing one's own unacceptable desires and impulses to someone else"?
Rationalization
192
What Defense Mechanism is described as "Depressed, unacceptable behavior expressed in an exaggerated form or an opposite behavior"?
Reaction Formation
193
In what population is the Defense Mechanism of Reaction Formation often seen?
Former cigarette smoker
194
What Defense Mechanism is "a response to stress in which an individual reverts to a less developmentally mature stage"?
Regression
195
What Defense Mechanism is "unconscious exclusion of painful impulses, desires, or fears from the conscious mind"?
Repression
196
What is the definition of Transference (Defense Mechanism)?
Redirecting ones feelings (aggression or affection) from one person to another
197
What Defense Mechanism is "Channeling unacceptable impulses or energy into socially acceptable activates"?
Sublimation
198
What population uses the defense mechanism of Sublimation?
Alcoholics Anonymous
199
What are the seven symptoms of an Anxiety Disorder?
```
Heart Palpitations
Increased Heart Rate
Shortness of Breathe
Sweating
Tingling
Dizziness
Feeling of Impending Doom
```
200
What kind of disorder last 15-30 minutes and nothing brings it on?
Panic Disorder
201
What is a reoccurring intrusive thought or image that seems senseless or unpleasant?
Obsession
202
What is a Compulsion?
Activity, designed to reduce anxiety that a person feels compelled to repeat with no conscious desire to do so
203
What is the term for someone who "inflexible, uncontrollably entangled with details and highly repetitive actions"?
Perfectionist
204
What is Obsession and what is a Compulsion?
Obsession: Thought
Compulsion: Action
205
When does Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder usually start?
Early adolescence (maybe in childhood)
206
What is the term for an irrational or unrealistic fear?
Phobia
207
What is the word for fear of public spaces?
Agoraphobia
208
What is the definition for Acrophobia?
Fear of Heights
209
If someone has Astrophobia what do they fear?
Thunder and Lightning
210
What is the term if someone has a fear of Stars and Celestial space?
Astraphobia
211
What is the following definition "Psychological conflict that takes on a physical form and no organic evidence exists to explain the symptoms"?
Somatoform Disorder
212
What condition has multiple chronic complaints but no physically illness is present?
Somatization Disorder
213
What are three other things to know about a patient with Somatization Disorder?
More concerned with discomfort than disease
Seeks treatment & changes life as a result of symptoms
Symptoms are vague and exaggerated
214
What is the name of the condition that is an exaggerated pre-occupation with bodily function and fear that one is suffering from a serious disease?
Hypochondriasis
*All over Google*
215
What is another word for the Somatoform Disorder of Conversion Hysteria?
Conversion Reaction
216
What is Conversion Hysteria?
Loss or change of a physical function caused by a psychological conflict
217
When is Conversation Hysteria often seen?
After trauma
218
What are the five most common disabilities seen with Conversion Hysteria?
```
Paralysis
Blindness
Mutism
Deafness
Seizures
```
219
What are two conditions that fall into the category of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Anorexia
| Bulimia
220
What is the definition of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Pervasive belief that a body part is misshapen or malformed
221
What two things may a patient with Body Dysmorphic Disorder avoid?
Mirrors
| Social Contact
222
What condition has the following definition "Severe fluctuation of mood or personality"?
Affective Disorder
223
What condition is associated with delirium tremens and folate deficiency?
Alcoholism
224
What are five things a patient with Anorexia Nervosa may have/do?
```
Severe restriction of calories
Fear of being fat/ body image distortion
Amenorrhea
Excessive exercise
Unreasonable fear of gaining weight
```
225
What is another term for Bipolar Affective Disorder?
Manic Depressive
226
What will the behavior a patient with Bipolar Affective Disorder alternate between?
Manic (Highs)
| Melancholia (Lows)
227
When does the condition of Manic Depressive first occur?
Between childhood and the age of 50
228
What is the average length of both a manic and depressive phase is the condition of Bipolar Affective Disorder?
Manic: Three months
Depressive: Six-Nine Months
229
What condition will have a preoccupation with food, binge eat and then purge and a body image distortion?
Bulimia Nervosa
230
What is the name of the condition that is associated with muscle inhibition?
Catatonia
231
What is a Transvestite?
Cross Dresser
232
What kind of therapy is associating an action with unpleasant consequences?
Aversion Therapy
233
What is the name of the test to measure the severity of Depression?
Beck Test/ Beck Depression Questionnaire
21 multiple choice test, of self-report inventory
234
What is Classical Conditioning?
Two events that occur close together in time and become fused in a person's mind (i.e. Pavlov's Dog)
235
What condition has a definition of "Satisfying reinforcement strengthens a behavior"?
Operant Conditioning
236
What is an example of Operant Conditioning?
Time Out
237
What is the definition of Negative Reinforcement?
Taking away the adverse stimulus in response to a person's action increases that action
238
What is an example of Negative Reinforcement?
Purchasing a candy bar for a screaming child at the check out
239
What is the name of the Therapy that is defined as "Form of desensitization for the treatment of phobias and related disorders in which a patient is repeatedly exposed to emotionally distressing stimuli of high intensity"?
Flooding Therapy
240
What is the name of the test that is used to screen for Dementia, 30 point questionnaire to screen for cognitive impairment?
Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
AKA
Folstein Test
241
What is the name of the Therapy defined as "Behavior modification technique in which one is taught to imitate the desired behavior of another"?
Modeling
| Saying please and Thank you
242
What is the name of the test that is a psychological test using inkblot images?
Rorschach Test
243
What is one method of testing the IQ of a person?
Wechsler Scale
244
What test initiated the modern field of intelligence testing?
Stanford Binet Test
245
What person used "collective unconscious of man" and "Psychoanalysis"?
Jung
246
What person goes with Operant Conditioning?
Skinner
247
Who is linked to Classical Conditioning?
Pavlov
248
Who came up with the Hierarchy of human needs?
Maslow
249
What are the Hierarchy of Human Needs (5 things)?
```
Physiology
Safety
Love
Self Esteem/Respect
Self Actualization
```
250
Who is linked to Development of free association and dream analysis as a route to the unconscious mind?
Freud
251
Who developed the Psychosexual stage of development; oral to anal to phallic or genital?
Freud
252
What are the three levels of one's self and what are they paired with?
Id: Basic Instinct
Ego: Reality and Control
Superego: Guilt and Consciousness
253
What is the category that Tylenol is in?
Acetaminophen
254
What can long use of Acetaminophens lead to?
Liver Damage (Hepatotoxic)
255
What is an absorbent that treats poisoning and overdoses?
Activated Charcoal
256
What is the name of the Antiviral for Herpes?
Acyclovir
257
What is used to treat chronic gout?
Allopurinol
258
What drug has the odor of garlic?
Arsenic
259
What is the term for sleeping pills?
Barbiturates
260
What can Barbiturates produce?
Respiratory Depression
261
What is the name of Muscle Relaxant?
Benzodiazepines
262
What two conditions are Beta Blockers used for?
Hypertension
| Arrhythmias
263
What are two signs/symptoms of a person with Carbon Monoxide poisoning?
Blue Mucous Membrane
| Cherry Red Lips
264
What use to be found often in Fire Extinguishers?
Carbon Tetrachloride
265
What two organs is Chloroform toxic to?
Kidney
| Liver
266
What is the name of the drug to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders?
Chlorpromazine
267
What type/class does the drug Cholinesterase Inhibitor fall into?
Organophosphate
268
What is the classification of Cocaine?
Narcotic
269
What drug can be used as a local anesthetic?
Lidocaine
270
What drug is used to treat acute symptomatic gout?
Colchicine
271
Where can Cyanide be found?
Peach Pits
| Bitter Almonds
272
What is the best substance to remove lead from blood chelation therapy?
Ethylene Diaminete Traacetic Acid (EDTA)
273
What is the name of a substance that will make a person vomit?
Emetic
274
What is used to treat Anaphylactic Shock?
Epinephrine (Epi Pen)
275
How is the contents of the stomach removed?
Gastric Lavage
276
What drug can be used to treat psychotic disorders?
Haldol
277
What classification of drug includes mushroom and nutmeg?
Hallucinogenic Drugs
278
What are two things that happen with Lead Poisoning?
Produces Basophilic Stippling of Red Blood Cells (RBC)
Affects the Central Nervous System (CNS); Radial Nerve Palsy
279
What is the name of the drug that is used to treat Bi-Polar disorder and causes tremors?
Lithium
280
What drug is used in people who have Coronary Artery Disease?
Nitroglycerine
281
What drug is used to treat Depression?
Prozac
282
What drug is classified as an Antipsychotic?
Reserpine
283
What is the clinical name given to Aspirin?
Salicylates
284
Who do you not give Aspirin to?
Children with a viral infection
285
What is the active ingredient in the drug Seconal?
Secobarbital
286
What is the name of the drug that will induce vomiting?
Syrup of Ipecac
287
What will predispose elderly people to fall?
Tranquilizers
288
What classification of drug is Tricyclic?
Anti-Depressant
289
What drug can cause hypertension?
Tyramine
290
What are two things the drug Tyramine can be found in?
Wine
| Cheese
291
What is the name of the drug that is an anticoagulant?
Warfarin/Coumadin
292
What is the name of the condition that is "Chronic respiratory disease caused by inhalation of various minerals or metallic particles"?
Pneumoconiosis
293
What condition can Asbestosis exposure lead to?
Mesothelioma
294
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Iron Dust?
Siderosis
295
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Coal Dust? (Black Lung)
Anthracosis
296
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Cotton Dust?
Byssinosis
297
Who is often effected with the condition of Byssinosis?
Textile Workers
298
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Sand/Stone Dust or glass?
Silicosis
299
What two population will have the condition of Silicosis?
Pottery Workers
| Rock Corey Workers
300
What hormone is measured in pregnant women?
Alpha Fetoprotein
301
What does Alpha Fetoprotein test help determine?
Developmental Abnormalities
302
In what two conditions will there be a change is Alpha Fetoprotein?
Open neural tube defects- Increased levels
Down's Syndrome- Deceased levels
303
What is the term for absence of Menses?
Amenorrhea
304
When are two times Amenorrhea is commonly seen?
Post Menopause
| Anorexia
305
What are three things that are evaluated when doing Amniocentesis?
Heath of the fetus
Chromosomes
Lung maturity
306
What two minerals is breast milk deficient in?
Vitamin D
| Iron
307
What is the term for the first breast milk?
Colostrum
1-3 days after delivery
High in Antibodies
308
When is Dilation of the Cervix seen?
1st stage of labor
309
What is the term for painful menses?
Dysmenorrhea
310
What are two possible causes of Dysmenorrhea?
```
Increased prostaglandin (Hormonal)
Pathological (Endometriosis, Fibroids)
```
311
What is the definition of Dystocia?
Abnormal, Painful, Prolonged Labor
312
What is the term for Thinning of the Cervix?
Effacement
313
How is the term Engagement defined (during pregnancy)?
Decent of the fetal skull to the levels of the ischial spines
314
What is the term if a women has "Excessive nausea and vomiting during pregnancy"?
Hyperemesis Gravidarum
315
What is the most common surgical procedure for the diagnosis and treatment of Endometriosis?
Laparoscopy
316
What term is defined as "Baby drops into the pelvis two weeks before delivery and produces lower abdominal pain"?
Lightening
317
What is Linea Nigra?
A dark streak down the midline of the abdomen seen during pregnancy
318
What is the term for "Vaginal discharge after delivery and throughout the puerperium"?
Lochia
319
What are the colors of Lochia?
1st- Red
2nd- Yellow
3rd- White
320
What is the term for the first menstrual cycle?
Menarche
321
What is it called if there is pain in the abdomen at ovulation?
Mittelschmerz
322
What is the definition of Multiparous?
More than one delivery to a Viable infant
323
What is the term given to a women if she has never given birth to a viable infant?
Nulliparous
324
What is the term for "First pregnancy with a viable infant"?
Primpara
325
What is the most common complication of child birth?
Post Partum Infection
326
What is Post Partum Infection most commonly seen?
C-Section deliveries
327
What is the term defined as "Period of time after the delivery of the placenta to the complete involution of the organs"?
Puerperium
328
What is the name of an infection that happens during Puerperium?
Puerperal Sepsis
329
What is the term for "First movement of fetal life felt by the mother"?
Quickening
330
How is the term "Stations" defined (Pregnancy)?
Fetal position (cm) in relation to the spines of the Ischium
331
What are two signs of Pregnancy?
Presence of fetal heartbeat (Best)
| Menses is three weeks late
332
What is Chadwick's Sign?
Bluish discoloration of the vagina
333
What is it called when "the tip of the cervix softens"?
Goodell's Sign
334
What is Hegar's Sign?
Softening of the isthmus of the uterus
335
How is Piskacek's Sign defined?
Enlargement of the uterus near the uterine tube over the site of implantation
336
What is the most common reason for a post partum hemorrhage?
Atonic Uterus
337
What is the name associated with "Early uterine contractions (Oxytocin) without cervical changes"?
Braxton Hick's Contractions
338
What movement will cause a decrease in Braxton Hick's Contractions?
Sitting Down
339
What is the most common malignancy of the female genital tract?
Cervix
340
What is the term that has "brown hyperpigmentation of the face/mask of pregnancy"?
Chloasma
AKA
Melasma
341
What is the term for a "Malignancy of the placenta due to abnormal epithelium" (No Pregnancy)?
Choriocarcinoma
342
What is the condition of "Herniation of the urinary bladder into the vagina' (Anterior Wall)?
Cystocele
343
What is the definition of Eclampsia?
Toxemia of Pregnancy caused by Hypertension, leading to convulsions
344
Where is the most common place for an Ectopic Pregnancy at?
Fallopian Tube
345
What are the three symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy?
Light Vaginal Bleeding
Lower abdominal pain
Cramping on one side of the pelvis
346
What is Endometriosis?
Abnormal endometrial tissue outside of the uterus
347
What kind of pain is seen in Endometriosis?
Abdominal/Back Pain
| Painful Sex
348
What can Endometriosis cause?
Infertility
349
What is the most common type of post partum infection?
Staph or Strep
350
What is it called if there is inflammation of the endometrium?
Endometritis
351
What condition is described as "Palpable nodules in the breast after ovulation but regress after menses"?
Fibrocystic Breast Disease
352
What population have a higher likelihood to have Fibrocystic Breast Disease?
Overweight Diabetic Women
353
What is it called if there is a "Begin mass of trophoblastic tissue which develops at the placenta"?
Hydatidifrom Mole
354
If a Hydatidifrom Mole become malignant what is it called?
Choriocarcinoma
355
What hormone will be extremely elevated if a Hydatidifrom Mole is present?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
356
What condition has "Numerous cyst along the outer edge of the ovary caused by a hormonal imbalance"?
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
357
What are three possible indications that a women has Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCSO)?
High testosterone levels
Obese
Not able to get pregnant
358
What condition has the following signs; Toxemia of pregnancy with Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria (HEP)?
Pre-Eclampsia
359
What is the name of the condition that has "Herniation of the rectum into the vagina", "Collapsed Pouch", along the Posterior wall of the vagina?
Rectocele
360
What happen in the First (1st) stage of Pregnancy?
Dilation
| From first meaningful contraction to full dilation (10 cm) of the cervix
361
What is the longest stage of Pregnancy?
First Stage
362
What is a term for the "Release of the mucous plug during the first stage of labor"?
Bloody Show
363
What happens in the Second (2nd) stage of Pregnancy?
Expulsion
| From full dilation of the cervix to the delivery of the baby
364
In what stage of pregnancy does the women have hot/cold flashes and the urge to push?
Second Stage
365
In what stage of pregnancy is the placenta delivered?
Third Stage
366
What stage of pregnancy is most dangerous to the mother?
Third Stage
| Mother could bleed out, time between when the baby is delivered and the placenta comes out
367
What happens in the Fourth stage of Pregnancy?
Stabilization
Time from delivery to placenta to several hours when the tone of the uterus is established and the contractions of the uterus expel any remaining contents
368
What is the term for a "Low lying placenta with partial obstruction of the internal os"?
Placenta Previa
369
What is the definition of Placenta Abruptio?
Normally Placed
Detaches from the site
Spontaneous abortion/Premature Separation
370
What is the name of the condition if the "Placenta does not separate after delivery"?
Placenta Accreta
371
What is another term for Placenta Accreta?
Atonic Placenta
372
What is required if a women has a Placenta Accreta?
Hysterectomy
373
What is it called when the "Umbilical cord is attached to the margin of the placenta"?
Battledore Placenta
| Rarely occurs, no affect to the function of the placenta
374
Where is a Pap Smear taken from?
Tip of the cervix and surround structures
375
What is considered a "Normal" Pap Smear?
Classification I
376
What does a Classification II Pap Smear indicate?
Atypical or benign (Possible infection/inflammation/STD)
377
What Classification of Pap Smear is "Pre cancerous/Dysplasia"?
Classification III
378
What is a Classification IV Pap Smear indicate?
In Situ/ Non-invasive carcinoma
379
What Classification of Pap Smear indicated "Malignancy/Invasive"?
Classification V
380
When should an infant get it first teeth?
6-8 months
381
At what age can you introduce the "first food" to a child?
6 months
382
When should a baby start to crawl?
9 months
383
At what age should a baby be able to "Walk with Assistance"?
10-14 months
384
A child should be able to "Walk unassisted" by what age?
12-18 months
385
What should a child be able to do by 18 months?
Talk 10-15 words
386
When does the Umbilical Cord usually fall off?
7-10 days
387
When does the Posterior Fontanelle close?
3 months
388
When does the Anterior Fontanelle close?
2 years (This is the larger of the two fontanelles)
389
What does a Depressed Fontanelle indicated?
Dehydration
390
What does and Bulging Fontanelle indicate?
Intracranial Pressure, possible excessive crying
391
What two time is the APGAR score taken?
Immediately after birth and 5 minuets after birth
392
What are the five components of the APGAR Score?
```
Heart Rate (Pulse)
Respiration Rate
Color (Appearance)
Muscle Tone (Grimace)
Reflex Activity
```
393
What is NOT included in the APGAR Score?
Birth Weight
394
What is the term for "fuzzy hair on the baby's skin"?
Lanugo
395
What is Meconium?
First discharge for the intestines of a newborn
| Green Paste, dead Red Blood Cells (RBC)
396
What is the following description "Bluish, ill defined areas of the skin in the buttock/scrotal region"?
Mongolian Spots
397
What are the two indications that a child is born premature?
Born between 26-37 weeks gestation
| Weighs less than 2500 grams
398
What is the term for "White cheesy substance on the baby's skin at birth"?
Vernix Caseosa
399
What syndrome is a mild form of Autism?
Asperger's Syndrome
400
What three foods can cause Botulism in newborns?
Honey
Corn Syrup
Molasses
401
What is the condition of Caput Succedeum?
Baby's head has an unusual shape due to swelling of the scalp, considered benign
402
What condition in a child is similar to that of Seborrheic Dermatitis in an adult?
Cradle Cap
403
What is the term for Bedwetting?
Enuresis
404
How is Erythroblastosis Fetalis caused?
Hemolytic Anemia in the fetus/neonate
Trans-placental transmission of maternal antibodies to fetal Red Blood Cells (RBC)
405
What is usually a result from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood groups, often Rh0 (D) antigens?
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
406
What color will the child be that has Erythroblastosis Fetalis be?
Jaundice, place under a blue light
407
What condition in a child will cause the following findings:
Delayed Growth
Microcephaly
Mental Retardation
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
408
What is the name of the condition if a child has a protein malnutrition?
Kwashiorkor
409
What is the classic sign of Kwashiorkor?
Ascites, distended abdomen
410
What is the most common cancer of children and Down's Syndrome individuals?
Leukemia
411
What is the term for General Malnutrition?
Marasmus
412
What is the term described as "Prickly Heat"?
Miliaria from sweat glands
413
What can lead to fetal suffocation?
Prolapsed Umbilical Cord
414
What vitamin prevents hemorrhaging in newborns?
Vitamin K
415
What condition can lead to mental retardation and seizures in children?
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
416
What enzyme is nonfunctional in the genetic disorder of Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Phenylalanine
417
What are four communicable diseases associated with a virus?
Measles (Rubella and Rubeola)
Chicken Pox
Mumps
Croup
418
What is another name for Rubella? (Measles)
German Measles
419
How long does German Measles last?
3 days
| Last a short time
420
What two symptoms are seen with Rubella?
Maculopapular Rash
| Mild Fever
421
When is German Measles the most dangerous?
1st trimester of fetal life, may lead to birth defects
422
What type of Measles has a "Prodromal stage"?
Rubeola
423
What are two symptoms of Rubeola? (Measles)
Runny Nose
| Koplic Spots, on buccal mucosa
424
How long does Rubeola last?
2 weeks
425
What two things will Rubeola be present with?
Maculopapular Rash
| High Fever
426
What is the most common serious complication of Rubeola?
Bronchopneumonia
427
What is the lesion type of Chicken Pox?
Vesicular Rash
428
What is the name of the disease that is "Mild in children and adult and located in the parotid gland"?
Mumps
429
What condition can be produced after an person has Mumps?
Orchitis (Inflammation of the testicles)
430
What condition is seen in children and is characterized by a "resonant barking cough (Seal Like)?
Croup
431
In the condition of Croup what may have a membrane?
Laryngeal spasm
432
What are four communicable diseases associated with Bacteria?
Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
Diphtheria
Scarlet Fever
Roseola Infantum
433
What is another name for Pertussis?
Whooping Cough
434
What is the causative organism of Pertussis?
Bordetella Pertussis
435
What age group is Pertussis most dangerous to?
Infants under the age of one
436
What causes death in patients with Whooping Cough?
Bronchopneumonia (Death by Anoxia)
437
What is the organism that causes Diphtheria?
Corybacterium Diphtheria
438
How does Diphtheria present?
Grey pseudo membrane o the throat
439
What test is done on a patient with Diphtheria?
Schick Test
440
What causes Scarlet Fever?
Group A Strep Pyogenes
441
What are two findings in the condition of Scarlet Fever?
Strawberry Tongue
| Peeling (Desquamation) of the superficial layer
442
What test will be positive in a Patient with Scarlet Fever?
ASO Titer
443
At what age will you see the condition of Roseola Infantum?
Less than 2 years of age
444
In the condition of Roseola Infantum what is the pattern of the rash?
Starts on the trunk and works out to the extremities
445
When will the rash appear in the condition of Roseola Infantum?
After the fever breaks
446
How is the Rooting Reflex stimulated?
Stroke the corner of the mouth; the infant's mouth will open and turn to the side that was touched
447
What is the most primitive reflex originating from the brain stem?
Rooting Reflex
448
What reflex is elicited by placing a finger or nipple in the mouth of a newborn?
Sucking Reflex
449
What does the Sucking Reflex stimulate?
Release of Oxytocin
450
What is the Tonic Neck Reflex?
Doctor rotates the head of a supine child and the ipsilateral arm and leg extend while the contralateral arm and leg flex
451
What is a positive Moro(Startle) Reflex?
Arms and legs flare out to the sides in response to a loud sound and then are brought back into the body
452
What reflex has Sensory Integrations?
Moro (Startle) Reflex
453
What is the name of the reflex that an "Infant should attempt to raise head and arch the back when placed in a prone position"?
Landau Reflex
454
What is a positive Perez Reflex?
While running a finger down the spine of a prone infant the whole body will extend
455
What is the name of the reflex described:
| "While running a finger down the ipsilateral paraspinal muscles the baby will contract to that side"?
Gallant Reflex
456
What is the most common geriatric neuromuscular complaint?
Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)
457
What is the name of the condition that is normal in the older population and is described as "a greyish opaque ring around the cornea"?
Arcus Senilis
458
What is the name of the condition seen in the geriatric population that has loss of elasticity of the lens OR hardening of the lens (cannot focus on up close objects)?
Presbyopia
459
What is the definition of the condition Presbycussis?
Inability to hear high frequencies
460
What is the most common Endocrine Malfunction in the elderly?
Diabetes Mellitus
461
What is the most common anemia is everyone?
Iron Deficient Anemia
462
What is the name of bed sore that requires protein for healing?
Decubitus Ulcer
463
What is the area most often seen with a Decubitus Ulcer?
Over the Sacrum
464
What is the most common fractured bone in the elderly?
Hip Fracture
465
What is the most common visual problem in the elderly leading to blindness?
Macular Degeneration
466
What is the term used if there is discriminatory treatment towards the elderly?
Ageism
467
What is the most common type of dementia among older people?
Alzheimer's Disease
468
What are three things that are impaired in a patient that has Alzheimer's Disease?
Thought
Memory
Language
469
What is the only diagnosis for Alzheimer's Disease?
Autopsy
470
How is the condition of Glaucoma tested?
Tonometer
471
What condition has an increase in intraocular pressure?
Glaucoma
472
What test is best used to measure the following:
Blood Volume
Oxygen uptake transport
Metabolism
Positron Emission Test (PET)
473
What syndrome is seen in alcoholics with a B1 (Thiamin) deficiency?
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
474
What is the term for an "abnormal passage between two organs"
OR
"an organ and the exterior of the body"?
Fistula
475
What is the term for "small tear in the mucosa that lines the anus"?
Fissure
476
What is the definition of an Abscess?
Collection of pus that accumulated in a tissue
477
What is the term linked to the following definition:
| "Transfer of a patient to another doctor without the patient's consent"?
Abandonment
478
What is the definition of Assault?
Threat of violence to another person
479
What is it called if you adjust without consent?
Battery
480
What is the following definition "A dispute that is resolved by an unbiased third party and has no appeal process"?
Binding Arbitration
481
In what court system are malpractices cases against a chiropractor tried?
Civil Court
482
What are the five components that make up a contract?
```
Acceptance
Consideration
Two or more competent parties
Legal Object
Consent
```
483
What term is associated with the following definition: "Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harm's a persons reputation"?
Defamation of Character
484
What three things must and employer pay for their employees?
Worker's Compensation
FICA (Federal Insurance)
Social Security
485
What is Expressed Consent?
Patient has the procedure explained to them, understands and agrees to it
486
What is the Good Samaritan Law?
Good faith rendering of care at an emergency, isn't liable for civil damages
487
What is the following definition: "Patient is unable to communicate their consent, but life saving interventions are needed"?
Implied Consent
488
What is Informed Consent?
Providing the patient with feasible alternatives and informing them of the dangers of treatment
**May be verbal**
489
What term is associated with the following definition: "False statement submitted in Writing that harms another"?
Libel
490
What is the following definition: "A professional negligence by acts or omission by a health care provide in which care provided Deviate from the accepted standards of practice in the medical community and cause injury or death the patient"
Malpractice
491
What is Negligence?
Failure to conform to the standard of care expected and imposed by law
492
What is the following definition: "Where the burden of proof lies in a court of law"?
Plaintiff
493
What is the term for "Employer is responsible for the actions of employees"?
Respondent Superior
494
What is "A false Verbal statement of another person"?
Slander
495
What is the following definition: "Formal diagnostic and treatment process a doctor will follow for a patient with a certain set of symptoms or a specific illness.
The standard will follow guidelines and protocols that Experts would agree with as most appropriate, so called "Best Practice"?
Standards of Care
496
What is "The Length of time you have to sue for an injury"?
Statutes of Limitation (2 years)
497
What is the following definition: "Standard of care is the basis on which negligence and fault and determined in medical malpractice lawsuits.
It refers to the level of care, skill and knowledge that is expected of all physicians in a particular field, in and particular region, acting in similar circumstances"?
Substandard Care
498
What is Third Party Consent?
Patient is mentally incapable of understanding the procedure and/or the ramification of consent or refused, so consent is given or withheld on their behalf by a legal designate
499
What is the following definition: "Body of law which allows an injured person to obtain compensation from the person who caused the injury"?
Tort
500
What is Vicarious Liability?
Responsibility is imposed upon one person for failure of another in the case of special relationships (parent/child or employer/employee)
501
What is the Pulse Rate for an Adult (12 years and older)?
60-100 Beats per minute
502
What is the Blood Pressure for an Adult (12 years and older)?
Systolic: 90-140 mm Hg
Diastolic: 60-90 mm Hg
503
What is the Respiration for an Adult (12 years and older)?
12-20 breaths per minute
504
What is the Pulse Rate for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
80-100 Beats per minute
505
What is the Blood Pressure for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
Systolic: 80-100 mm Hg
506
What is the Respirations for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
15-30 breaths per minute
507
What is the Pulse Rate for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
100-140 Beats per minute
508
What is the Blood Pressure for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
Systolic: 70-95 mm Hg
509
What is the Respirations for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
25-50 breaths per minute
510
What is the Pulse Rate for a Newborn?
120-160 Beats per minute
511
What is the Blood Pressure for a Newborn?
Systolic: Greater than 60 mm Hg
512
What is the Respirations for a Newborn?
40-60 breaths per minute
513
What are the three steps for Conscious Choking in an Adult or Child?
1. Encourage Coughing
2. If they cannot cough, 5 blows between the shoulder blades
3. Give 5 Abdominal Thrust
514
What are the four steps for Conscious Choking in an Infant?
1. Place infant face down along the forearm
2. Give 5 back blows
3. Turn infant face up
4. Give 4 chest thrust (Below the nipple line, compress 5 times about 1.5 inches)
515
What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Adult or Child?
1. Rise and tilt the head to prepare for ventilations
| 2. 30 compressions (About two inches in depth) Compress at a rate of 100 compressions per minute
516
What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Infant?
1. Fix Head
| 2. 30 Compressions (about 1.5 inches in depth)
517
What are the three things to know about the Finger Sweep Technique?
Used to Clear and Airway Obstruction
ONLY perform on an unconscious patient
ONLY perform when you can see foreign object in patient's mouth
518
What must you do before you start any rescue efforts on a patient (i.e. CPR)?
Check for responsiveness
519
How do you check the circulation of a patient?
Place to fingers on the carotid artery and apply slight pressure for a few seconds
520
If no pulse is present what is your next step?
Perform chest compressions
521
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Adult?
12 (1 Ventilation about every 5 seconds)
522
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Child?
About 20
523
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Infant?
About 20
524
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Newborn?
30-60 (1 Ventilation about every 1-2 seconds)
525
How is CPR performed on an Adult:
```
Hand Position
Compression Depth
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Rate
```
Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)
Compression Depth: At least 2 inches
Breaths: Until chest clearly rises (1 second/ventilation)
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
Cycles; Two Rescuers:30:2
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
526
How is CPR performed on a Child:
```
Hand Position
Compression Depth
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Rate
```
Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)
Compression Depth: At least 2 inches
**Breaths: 1 second per ventilation**
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
**Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2**
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
527
How is CPR performed on an Infant:
```
Hand Position
Compression Depth
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers
Rate
```
**Hand Position: Two or three fingers on the center of the chest (Just below the nipple line)**
**Compression Depth: About 1.5 inches**
**Breaths: 1 second per Second**
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
**Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2**
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
528
When are three times you stop CPR?
Another responder takes over
You are too exhausted to continue
The scene becomes unsafe
529
What are two risk factors of performing CPR?
Fractured Ribs
| Punctured Lung
530
If someone Ingested a poison what may you have them take and why?
Take: Emetic
Why: Prevent moving to Small intestine; where most absorption takes place
531
In what four conditions should you not induce vomiting in a patient?
Unconscious
Having a Seizure
Last Trimester of Pregnancy
Ingested corrosive substance or Gasoline
532
What do all patients that inhaled a poison need?
Oxygen As soon as possible
533
What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Plant?
Rinse with water for at least 20 minuets
534
What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Dry Chemical?
Brush it off with a gloved hand
| Flush for 20 minuets with tap water
535
What is the care if a poison has come in contact with a patient's eyes?
Irrigate from the noes (Medial to Lateral) side
536
What type of shock is "result of the heart being unable to supply adequate blood circulation to the vital organs"?
Cardiogenic Shock
537
What are two causes of Cardiogenic Shock?
Trauma
| Disease
538
What is the care for a Patient with Cardiogenic Shock?
Patient Supine with their feet higher than their head
539
What type of shock is caused by an abnormal decrease in blood volume?
Hypovolemic Shock
540
What are three causes of Hypovolemic Shock?
Limb chopped off
Spleen Rupture
Abdominal Aortic Aneurism (AAA)
541
What kind of shock is caused by trauma to the spinal cord or brain?
Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock
542
What type of Shock is "where the blood vessel walls abnormally constrict and dilate, preventing relay messages and cause blood to pool in the lowest part of the body"?
Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock
543
What causes Obstructive Shock?
Obstruction of blood flow
544
What is an example of Obstructive Shock?
Pulmonary Embolism
545
What kind of shock is caused by failure of the lungs to transfer sufficient oxygen into the blood stream?
Respiratory Shock
546
When does Respiratory Shock occur?
Respiratory Distress (i.e. Asthma)
547
What is the definition of Septic Shock?
When an infection has spread to the point that bacteria are releasing toxins into the bloodstream
548
What position should you lay a person in that has been struck by Lightening?
Head slightly lower than the trunk, with legs elevated and supported
549
What two locations should you find on a person that has been struck by lightening?
Enter and exit sights
550
How should you remove a visible foreign object (body) from the eye?
*Never touch the eye*
Pull the eyelid down and try and remove with sterile gauze pad
Flush the eye with irrigation
551
How should you care for a chemical exposure to the eye?
Irrigate the eye with clean water for 20 minuets
552
What should you do if there is an impaled object in the eye?
Cover Both eyes
| Support the object
553
What is a "Battle Sign"?
Ecchymosis (Bleeding) around the Mastoid
554
What does a "Battle Sign" indicate?
Possible Basilar Skull Fracture
555
How are burns graded?
By the depth of the burn
556
What is the characteristic, layer and example of an 1st Degree Burn?
Characteristic: Redness
Layer: Epidermis
Example: Sunburn
557
What is the characteristic and layers of an 2nd Degree Burn?
Characteristic: Blister
Layer: Epidermis and Dermis, Not the base of the Dermis
558
How is a 3rd Degree Burn described?
Charring of the skin
559
What are six signs/symptoms of a Grade 1 Concussion?
```
No loss of Consciousness
Confusion
Memory Loss
Headache
Dizziness
Nausea (May occur)
```
560
How long does a Grade 1 Concussion last?
15-30 Minuets (Approximately)
561
How long does a Grade 2 Concussion last?
30 minutes to the entire day
*Same signs/symptoms of Grade 1, just stronger*
562
What are three Signs/Symptoms of a Grade3 Concussion?
Loss of Consciousness
Intense Confusion
Memory Loss
563
How long does a Grade 3 Concussion last?
Seconds to Minutes
564
What is the most common condition in the general population that results from trauma and has a fast bleeding rate?
Epidural Hematoma
565
What does an Epidural Hematoma increase?
Intracranial Pressure
566
What is one cause of Epidural Hematoma?
Hypertension
567
What kind of headache will be seen in a patient that has an Epidural Hematoma?
Quick/Fast onset
568
When is the Glasgow Scale used?
Assess the level of consciousness for any medial or trauma patient
569
What are the three parameters used on the Glasgow Scale?
Eye Opening
Verbal Response
Motor Response
570
What condition is a "brief muscle cramp due to excess heat or exercise"?
Heat Cramps
571
What condition has an electrolyte deficiency?
Heat Cramps
572
What condition has the following care:
Move the patient out of the hot environment to a cooler area
Remove excess clothing
Cool the patient's body by spraying with cool water, applying cool wet clothes to the body
Hydrate with electrolytes
Heat Exhaustion
573
What are two signs of Heat Shock?
Low Blood Pressure
| Rapid, weak pulse
574
What are the nine signs of Heat Stroke?
```
Cessation of sweating
High Body Temperature
Rapid weak pulse
Shallow breathing
Low Blood Pressure
Throbbing Headache
Dizziness
Nausea
Vomiting
```
575
What is the care for a patient having Heat Stroke?
Immerse the patient in cold water up to their neck (Preferred Method)
Douse the patient with towels soaked in ice water over entire body
576
What condition would you perform the following care:
Remove any wet clothing and dry off patient
Passively warm the patient by wrapping all exposed body surfaces
Hypothermia
577
What are two things you NEVER do to a patient with Hypothermia?
Immerse the patient in warm water
Rub or massage the extremities
578
If a patient has frostbite how must you handle the area?
Very carefully
579
Should you attempt to rewarm the frostbitten area?
NO
580
How do your treat a more serious frostbite case?
Rewarm the body, not the effected area, by gently soaking it in water no warmer than 105 degrees F
581
What is it called when an Injury produces black and blue spots around the eyes?
Raccoon Sign
582
What condition is usually a result of a cerebral aneurysm?
Subarachnoid Hematoma
583
What condition is considered a form of a stroke?
Subarachnoid Hematoma
584
What condition is usually the result of a serious head injury and most commonly seen in athletes?
Subdural Hematoma
585
What kind of hematoma is among the most deadly?
Acute Subdural Hematoma
586
What is the major symptom of a Subdural Hemorrhage?
Slower Bleed (Than Epidural Hemorrhage, veins bleed slower) =Slower onset
587
What does the term Res Ipsa Loquitur mean?
"The thing speaks for itself"
588
What four things must a Malpractice Suit contain?
Duty
Dereliction (Poor result to do negligence)
Damage
Direct Causation
