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Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) > Assocaited Clinical Science (ACS) Part II (Irene Gold) > Flashcards

Assocaited Clinical Science (ACS) Part II (Irene Gold) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the condition seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the ventral surface of the penis?

A

Hypospadias (Boots)

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2
Q

What is the name of the condition that is seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the dorsal side of the penis?

A

Epispadias (Goggles)

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3
Q

What is the condition of Phimosis?

A

Foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis

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4
Q

What condition is described as “Foreskin becomes trapped behind/under the glans penis”?

A

Paraphimosis (“Turtle Neck”)

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5
Q

What is the description of a Hydrocele?

A

Fluid accumulation around testes
Non Tender
Transillumnate
Can palpate above the mass

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6
Q

What two male conditions of the male genital area are Not Transillumnate?

A

Scrotal Hernia

Tumor (Seminoma)

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7
Q

In what condition can you not palpate above the mass in a male genital disorder?

A

Scrotal Hernia

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8
Q

What male genital disorder will there be high levels of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) and a Painless nodule?

A

Tumor (Seminoma)

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9
Q

What is the name of the male genital disorder described as a “Bag of Worms”?

A

Varicocele

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10
Q

What is often a cause of Varicocele?

A

Portal Hypertension

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11
Q

What is the name of the male genital condition that is described as “Common, Cutaneous firm, yellow crust”?

A

Epidermoid Cyst

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12
Q

What male genital disorder has “Reddened testes that are tender and has posterior superior scrotal swelling”?

A

Epididymitis

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13
Q

What two male genital disorders are Tranillunimate?

A

Hydrocele

Epididymitis

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14
Q

What is the name of the male genital disorder that occurs from a blunt trauma and is a surgical emergency?

A

Testicular Torsion

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15
Q

What male genital disorder is seen in adolescents and is classified as painful and swollen?

A

Testicular Torsion

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16
Q

What are the two characteristics of Cryptorchism?

A

Undescended testicle

Increased risk of Testicular cancer

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17
Q

What is the term used to describe and erection lasting longer than four hours?

A

Priapism

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18
Q

What are three things that can cause Priapism?

A

Erectile Dysfunction Drugs
Central Nervous System (CNS) trauma
Increased intracranial pressure

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19
Q

What is the term for an “Inflamed Penis gland”?

A

Balanitis

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20
Q

What is the male genital disorder of Peyronie’s?

A

Crooked erection (“up, up and away”)

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21
Q

What is a term that is associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

A

Salpingitisis

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22
Q

What part of the reproduction system is most effected by Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

A

Fallopian Tubes

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23
Q

What is the main cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?

A

Gonorrhea

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24
Q

What are four other causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease besides Gonorrhea?

A

Chlamydia
Candidiasis Yeast
Trichomoniasis
Infections=Prior STD

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25
Q

What kind of stain is Gonorrhea?

A

Gram-Negative Diplococcus

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26
Q

How is the Gonorrhea organism grown in a lab?

A

Chocolate Agar Plate

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27
Q

What is the most common symptom of Gonorrhea?

A

Dysuria (Painful Urination)

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28
Q

What is the most common sign of Gonorrhea?

A

Green Mucopurulent discharge

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29
Q

What is the most common joint effected in Gonorrhea?

A

Knee

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30
Q

In Gonorrhea the MC site of Sequelae in each of the following populations:
Men
Women
Newborns

A

Men: Testicles➡️Sterility

Women: Salpingitisis

Newborns: Blindness

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31
Q

Chlamydia is the causative agent for what two disorders/conditions?

A

Reiter’s

Ophthalmia Neonatorum

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32
Q

What condition does Chlamydia cause in females?

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

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33
Q

What condition is seen in males with Chlamydia?

A

Nothing, Asymptomatic

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34
Q

What is the most common cause of infertility in the United States?

A

Chlamydia

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35
Q

Which Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD), is more common Chlamydia or Gonorrhea?

A

Gonorrhea

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36
Q

What is the organism associated with Syphilis?

A

Spirochete (Treponema Pallidum)

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37
Q

STD transmitted through the placenta?

A

Syphilis

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38
Q

What is a treatment for Syphilis?

A

Penicillin

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39
Q

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is associated with Hutchinson’s Triad?

A

Syphilis

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40
Q

What is Hutchinson’s Triad?

A

Interstitial Keratitis
Notched Permanent Incisors (peg)
CN VIII Deafness

STD-Syphilis

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41
Q

What Diagnostic Test are done for a patient with Syphilis?

A

Darkfield Microscopy

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42
Q

What Labs are ordered in the condition of Syphilis?

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
FTA/ABS
TPI

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43
Q

What are characteristics of the First Stage of Syphilis?

A

Hard painless Singular Chancre

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44
Q

How long does the First Stage of Syphilis last?

A

Up to 8 weeks

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45
Q

What are the three characteristics of Stage Two of Syphilis?

A

Maculopapular Rash
Condylomata Lata (Flat Warts)
Alopecia

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46
Q

How long does the Second Stage of Syphilis last?

A

8 weeks to 2 years

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47
Q

What Stage of Syphilis is the most “Transmission”?

A

Stage Two

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48
Q

What are the three symptoms associated with Stage Three Syphilis?

A 
Tabes Dorsalis (Posterior) 
Gummas
Vascular Damage (Aortic Aneurysm or Aortic Valve Insufficiency)
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49
Q

In what Stage of Syphilis is there no transmission of the disease?

A

Stage Three

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50
Q

What is the time frame for Stage Three of Syphilis?

A

Over 25 years; without treatment

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51
Q

What kind of organism causes Trichimoniasis?

A

Parasite

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52
Q

What kind of Discharge is seen in Trichimoniasis?

A

Greenish Yellow
Frothy
Foul Smelling

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53
Q

What is another name for Candidiasis?

A

Moniliasis

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54
Q

What organism causes Candidiasis?

A

Yeast/Fungus

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55
Q

STD with White Cottage Cheese Discharge seen in the mouth of the vagina?

A

Candidiasis

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56
Q

What is Candidiasis of the mouth called?

A

Thrush

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57
Q

What two conditions are associated with Candidiasis?

A 
Diabetes 
Antibiotic Usage (Probiotics)
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58
Q

What two populations will often bee seen with Thrush?

A

Immunocomprimised Infants

AIDS Patients

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59
Q

What organism causes Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

A

Chlamydia

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60
Q

What are two signs/symptoms of Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

A

Affects the lymph nodes of the groin

Produces Rectal Strictures

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61
Q

What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?

A

Bacterium

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62
Q

What is the incubation time for the bacterium organism of the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?

A

8-80 days

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63
Q

How does the condition of Granuloma Inguinale present?

A

Red Beefy Lesions

Nodular, lead to Ulcerations

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64
Q

Where is the condition of Granuloma Inguinale seen at?

A

Anogenital to Perineal Area

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65
Q

What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Genital Herpes?

A

Virus (HSV-2)

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66
Q

What is the appearance of Genital Herpes?

A

Vesicular clusters

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67
Q

What two things makes Genital Herpes reoccur?

A

Decreased immunity

Stress

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68
Q

What is another name for Genital Warts?

A

Condylomata Accuminata

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69
Q

What is the organism that causes Genital Warts?

A

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

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70
Q

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is linked to Cervical Caner?

A

Genital Warts

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71
Q

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has a Papilloma?

A

Genital Warts

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72
Q

What are four characteristics of a Papilloma?

A

Painful
Soft
Flesh Colored
Cauliflower Erosions

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73
Q

What organism is linked to the Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) of Chancroid?

A

Hemophilus Ducreyi

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74
Q

What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has “Papules that become soft and painful”?

A

Chancroid

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75
Q

What test is performed on a patient with Chancroid?

A

Frei Test

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76
Q

What kind of organism is the HIV Virus?

A

Retrovirus

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77
Q

What is the condition of AIDS often associated with?

A

Opportunistic Infections

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78
Q

What is one contraindication of a person with AIDS?

A

Breast Feeding

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79
Q

What are two high risk populations of contacting AIDS?

A

Homosexual Males

IV Drug users

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80
Q

What two Labs are ordered for AIDS patients?

A

1-ELISA; Screening test (RNA)

2-Western Blot; Most accurate (Proteins)

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81
Q

What are three associated conditions in AIDS patients?

A 
Pneumocystis Carinii (Fungal Lung) (Most Common)
Giardia Lamblia (Diarrhea) 
Kaposi's Sarcoma
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82
Q

What is the organism in the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

Virus

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83
Q

What two populations will you see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

Children

Adults-transmitted via sex

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84
Q

What is the only Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) that can be transmitted by a fomite?

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

Fomite-Bath Towel etc.

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85
Q

What are two common locations to see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

Mucosa of the Mouth

Eyelids

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86
Q

What are the characteristics of the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?

A

Dome shaped

Flesh Colored or Gray umbilicated papule that becomes pearly white with a cancerous core

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87
Q

What is the size, description and an example of a Macule?

A

Size: Less the 0.5 cm
Description: Flat
Example: Freckle

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88
Q

What is the size and description of a Papule?

A

Size: Less that 0.5 cm
Description: Raised

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89
Q

What two conditions are associated with a Papule?

A

Measles

Syphilis (Solid)

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90
Q

What is the size and description of a Vesicle?

A

Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Serous Fluid filled

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91
Q

What two conditions are associated with a Vesicle?

A

Herpes

Chicken Pox

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92
Q

What is the size and description of a Pustule?

A

Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Pus Filled

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93
Q

What condition is associated a Pustule?

A

Staph (Bacterial)

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94
Q

What causes the Staph infection in conjuncture with the Pustule?

A

Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)

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95
Q

What population has several Furuncles, usually seen at the base of the hair line?

A

African Americans

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96
Q

What is the size and description of a Nodule?

A

Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Hard, Raised

Grown up Papule

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97
Q

What is the size and description of a Bulla?

A

Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Fluid filled

Grown up Vesicle

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98
Q

What condition is associated with a Bulla?

A

Phemphigus

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99
Q

What is the name of a “Precancerous lesion seen on the mucus membrane that is associated with the use of tobacco products”?

A

Leukoplakia

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100
Q

What two conditions are “white” in the mouth which one can be scrapped off?

A

Thrush (Can be scrapped off)

Leukoplakia

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101
Q

What is the location of Acne Rosacea? (3 areas)

A

Face
Noes
Cheeks

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102
Q

What three things exacerbate Acne Rosacea?

A

Sunlight
Caffeine
Alcohol

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103
Q

What population is the condition of Acne Vulgaris seen in?

A

Adolescents

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104
Q

What gland is infected in the condition of Acne Vulgaris?

A

Sebaceous Glands

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105
Q

How are the Sebaceous Glands of Acne Vulgaris characterized?

A

Comedones (Blackheads= open, Whiteheads=closed)

Pus filled cyst

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106
Q

What is the name of the most common benign sun induced lesion?

A

Actinic Lentigo

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107
Q

What are two types of spots seen in the condition of Actinic Lentigo?

A

Sun Spots

Liver Spots

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108
Q

What are the two most common places to see Actinic Lentigo?

A

Face
Back of Hands

Areas that get high amounts of sun exposure

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109
Q

What condition is described as “Pitted Erythematous lesion/ulcer of the mouth”?

A

Aphthous Stomatitis

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110
Q

What are two other terms associated with Aphthous Stomatitis?

A

Cancer Sore

Yellowish Ulcer

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111
Q

What is a “Carload of Furuncles”? Has the same findings as a Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)

A

Carbuncle

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112
Q

What condition is an “Accumulation of sebum within in a pore”?

A

Comedone (Acne Vulgaris)

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113
Q

How is the condition of a Epidermal Cyst (Wen) described?

A

Non-tender cyst that is filled with sebum

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114
Q

What is the organism that is linked tot eh condition of Erysipelas?

A

Beta Hemolytic STREP

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115
Q

What condition has a “Red Fiery, advancing lesion on the skin”?

A

Erysipelas

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116
Q

What are two signs/symptoms a patient with Erysipelas will have?

A

Fever

Elevated ASO Titer

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117
Q

What condition is; A skin reaction usually associated with strep and characterized by bilateral, red, tender nodules?

A

Erythema Nodosum

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118
Q

What is the term for “Any surface injury to the skin”?

A

Excoriation

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119
Q

How do you diagnosis Fungal/Mycotic Infections?

A

Wood’s Lamp

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120
Q

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Corpus?

A

Body

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121
Q

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Pedis?

A

Athlete’s Foot

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122
Q

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Ungunum?

A

Nails

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123
Q

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Capitus?

A

Scalp

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124
Q

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Cruris?

A

Jock Itch

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125
Q

What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Barbae?

A

Beard

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126
Q

What kind of infection causes Tinea Versicolor?

A

Fungal Infection

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127
Q

What is Tinea Versicolor?

A

Multiple Hypo pigmented
Asymptomatic Lesions
Varying in color from white to brown

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128
Q

Where is one place you can acquire the condition of Tinea Versicolor?

A

Tanning Beds

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129
Q

What is the name of the condition that is described as “Staph infected hair follicle that presents as a Painful nodule”?

A

Furuncle

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130
Q

What condition is characterized by small vesicles located on the mouth or the genital region?

A

Herpes Simplex
HSV 1- Cold Sores (Mouth Region)
HSV 2- Genital Herpes (Genital Area)

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131
Q

When can the Herpes Simplex be reactivated?

A

During delivery

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132
Q

What test is done in a patient that has the Herpes Simplex?

A

Tzank Test

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133
Q

What is another term for Herpes Zoster?

A

Shingles

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134
Q

Where is Herpes Zoster most often found? (2 Locations)

A

Thoracic Dermatome

Cranial Nerve V; area

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135
Q

In what population is Herpes Zoster exacerbated in?

A

Immuno-compromised patients

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136
Q

What are two characteristics of Herpes Zoster?

A

Will not cross midline (Thoracic Outbreak)

Will have pain before outbreak on the skin

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137
Q

Where is Herpes Zoster found?

A

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

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138
Q

What is another name for Icthyosis?

A

Fish Skin

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139
Q

What condition is an “Increase keratinization producing a Non-inflammatory skin lesion”?

A

Icthyosis

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140
Q

What is the most common organism to cause Impetigo?

A

Strep

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141
Q

What is the sign of Impetigo?

A

Crusty (Yellow Honey) lesions

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142
Q

What two locations are common places to see Impetigo?

A

Corners of the mouth

Hands

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143
Q

What skin condition is very contagious and often seen in children?

A

Impetigo

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144
Q

What condition is seen in the folds of the skin, that has reddened areas caused by trapped moisture, friction and warmth retained?

A

Intertrigo

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145
Q

What is the name of the condition that is “Dense, sharply elevated, progressive enlarging/excessive scar with collagenous hyperplasia”

A

Keloid

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146
Q

What three populations have a high level of Keloids?

A

African-Americans
Latinos
Asians

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147
Q

What condition has a “Rough thick skin due to constant scratching”(Chronic Dermatitis)?

A

Lichenificaiton

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148
Q

What is the name of the condition that is an inflammatory pruritic (itching) disease?

A

Lichen Planus

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149
Q

What are the three characteristics of Lichen Planus?

A

Papules with:
Shiny
Fine inconspicuous SCALES
Whitish lines or puncta

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150
Q

What condition has a “Discrete coin shaped, ring/annular lesion that coalesces to form patches with ooze and then crust overs”

A

Nummular Eczema

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151
Q

What condition is “Tender Bacterial (Maybe Fungal) hand/foot infection where the nail bed meets the skin at the side”?

A

Paronychia

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152
Q

What causes the condition of Pediculosis?

A

Lice

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153
Q

What are the three locations of the condition of Pediculosis?

A

Pubic Area- Pubis
Body- Corporis
Head-Capitus

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154
Q

What is the most common population to have the condition of Pemphigus Vulgaris?

A

Males of Jewish Decent

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155
Q

What is condition that is potentially life threatening condition of bulla (blisters) on the skin”?

A

Pemphigus Vulgaris

Causes dehydration

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156
Q

What condition has an oval/round lesion called a “Herald Patch”?

A

Pityriasis Rosea

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157
Q

What is the cause of the condition of Pityriasis Rosea?

A

Virus

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158
Q

What condition has silver scales on the extensor surface of the knees and elbows?

A

Psoriasis

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159
Q

What is a transmittable infection caused by mites?

A

Scabies

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160
Q

What are two characteristics signs of Scabies?

A

Grouped vesicles

Superficial linea furrows in the groin (Burrow under the skin)

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161
Q

What condition is like dandruff and similar to “Cradle Cap” in newborns?

A

Seborheic Dermatitis

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162
Q

What causes the condition of Urticaria?

A

Hive called a Wheal due to an Allergy (Penicillin or Food)

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163
Q

What is the name of the auto immune condition that has an absence of melanocytes (Depigmentation) after development?

A

Vitiligo

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164
Q

Where is the condition of Vitiligo most commonly seen?

A

Hands
Feet
Face

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165
Q

What condition has a complete depigmentation (Lack of Melanin) of the entire body observed from birth?

A

Albinism

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166
Q

Where are two symptoms of Albinism?

A

Pink Iris

Poor Visual Acuity

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167
Q

What is the organism that causes Yeast Infections?

A

Candia Albicans

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168
Q

What is the most common skin cancer?

A

Basal Cell

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169
Q

What Is the Least Invasive Skin Cancer?

A

Basal Cell

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170
Q

What are four characteristics of Basal Cell

A

Waxy
Indurated
Rat Bite Appearance (Small area)
Doesn’t Heal

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171
Q

What is the name of the cancer that is a malignant tumor of epithelial cells?

A

Squamous Cell

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172
Q

What areas usually get Squamous Cell Cancer?

A

Sun exposed area

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173
Q

What are three terms to describe Squamous Cell?

A

Irregular
Flaky
Rough area

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174
Q

What is the least common type of skin cancer?

A

Melanoma

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175
Q

What is the most invasive type of skin cancer?

A

Melanoma

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176
Q

What skin cancer will be multicolored and be mole like that follows the “ABC’s” of cancer?

A

Melanoma

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177
Q

What is the term for “Premalignant condition of the skin caused by exposure to the sun”?

A

Actinic Keratosis

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178
Q

Who is a person who “acts out conflict with out remorse or guilt and struggles to follow rules”?

A

Psycho/Sociopath

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179
Q

What category is a Psycho/Sociopath fall under?

A

Antisocial

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180
Q

What personality disorder is described as “thoughts or behaviors that are automatic responses to anxiety or stress”?

A

Compulsive

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181
Q

What personality disorder is “Attention seeking, aggressive, seductive person who is unable to be deeply involved emotionally”?

A

Hysterical

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182
Q

What is another term for Hysterical in the Personality Disorders?

A

Histrionic

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183
Q

What is the definition of Narcissism?

A

Attention seeking
No one else is important (Self Centered)
Strong Admiration for self
Exhibitionist

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184
Q

What Personality Disorder has the following:
Preoccupied with delusions
Sensitive
Defensive
Suspicion leading to aggression
Unfounded belief that others want to cause them harm

A

Paranoid

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185
Q

What Personality disorder is describes as “Taking aggressive actions in and indirect manner, argumentative”?

A

Passive Aggressive

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186
Q 
What Personality Disorder has the following:
Ungluing of "reason" or emotion 
Introverted
Withdrawn
Emotional cold
Distant 
Avoids social interaction 
Delusions 
Hallucinations
A

Schizoid

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187
Q

What Defense Mechanism is described as “Refusal to perceive unpleasant realities”?

A

Denial

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188
Q

What population most often uses the defense mechanism of denial?

A

Alcoholics

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189
Q

What Defense Mechanism is “Act of assigning a feeling or belief to another person, group or outside world”?

A

Projection

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190
Q

What is an example of Projection (Defense Mechanism)?

A

Cheating Spouse

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191
Q

What Defense Mechanism is described as “Attributing one’s own unacceptable desires and impulses to someone else”?

A

Rationalization

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192
Q

What Defense Mechanism is described as “Depressed, unacceptable behavior expressed in an exaggerated form or an opposite behavior”?

A

Reaction Formation

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193
Q

In what population is the Defense Mechanism of Reaction Formation often seen?

A

Former cigarette smoker

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194
Q

What Defense Mechanism is “a response to stress in which an individual reverts to a less developmentally mature stage”?

A

Regression

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195
Q

What Defense Mechanism is “unconscious exclusion of painful impulses, desires, or fears from the conscious mind”?

A

Repression

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196
Q

What is the definition of Transference (Defense Mechanism)?

A

Redirecting ones feelings (aggression or affection) from one person to another

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197
Q

What Defense Mechanism is “Channeling unacceptable impulses or energy into socially acceptable activates”?

A

Sublimation

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198
Q

What population uses the defense mechanism of Sublimation?

A

Alcoholics Anonymous

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199
Q

What are the seven symptoms of an Anxiety Disorder?

A 
Heart Palpitations
Increased Heart Rate
Shortness of Breathe
Sweating
Tingling
Dizziness
Feeling of Impending Doom
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200
Q

What kind of disorder last 15-30 minutes and nothing brings it on?

A

Panic Disorder

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201
Q

What is a reoccurring intrusive thought or image that seems senseless or unpleasant?

A

Obsession

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202
Q

What is a Compulsion?

A

Activity, designed to reduce anxiety that a person feels compelled to repeat with no conscious desire to do so

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203
Q

What is the term for someone who “inflexible, uncontrollably entangled with details and highly repetitive actions”?

A

Perfectionist

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204
Q

What is Obsession and what is a Compulsion?

A

Obsession: Thought

Compulsion: Action

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205
Q

When does Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder usually start?

A

Early adolescence (maybe in childhood)

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206
Q

What is the term for an irrational or unrealistic fear?

A

Phobia

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207
Q

What is the word for fear of public spaces?

A

Agoraphobia

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208
Q

What is the definition for Acrophobia?

A

Fear of Heights

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209
Q

If someone has Astrophobia what do they fear?

A

Thunder and Lightning

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210
Q

What is the term if someone has a fear of Stars and Celestial space?

A

Astraphobia

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211
Q

What is the following definition “Psychological conflict that takes on a physical form and no organic evidence exists to explain the symptoms”?

A

Somatoform Disorder

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212
Q

What condition has multiple chronic complaints but no physically illness is present?

A

Somatization Disorder

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213
Q

What are three other things to know about a patient with Somatization Disorder?

A

More concerned with discomfort than disease
Seeks treatment & changes life as a result of symptoms
Symptoms are vague and exaggerated

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214
Q

What is the name of the condition that is an exaggerated pre-occupation with bodily function and fear that one is suffering from a serious disease?

A

Hypochondriasis

All over Google

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215
Q

What is another word for the Somatoform Disorder of Conversion Hysteria?

A

Conversion Reaction

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216
Q

What is Conversion Hysteria?

A

Loss or change of a physical function caused by a psychological conflict

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217
Q

When is Conversation Hysteria often seen?

A

After trauma

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218
Q

What are the five most common disabilities seen with Conversion Hysteria?

A 
Paralysis
Blindness
Mutism
Deafness
Seizures
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219
Q

What are two conditions that fall into the category of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

A

Anorexia

Bulimia

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220
Q

What is the definition of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

A

Pervasive belief that a body part is misshapen or malformed

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221
Q

What two things may a patient with Body Dysmorphic Disorder avoid?

A

Mirrors

Social Contact

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222
Q

What condition has the following definition “Severe fluctuation of mood or personality”?

A

Affective Disorder

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223
Q

What condition is associated with delirium tremens and folate deficiency?

A

Alcoholism

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224
Q

What are five things a patient with Anorexia Nervosa may have/do?

A 
Severe restriction of calories
Fear of being fat/ body image distortion 
Amenorrhea
Excessive exercise 
Unreasonable fear of gaining weight
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225
Q

What is another term for Bipolar Affective Disorder?

A

Manic Depressive

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226
Q

What will the behavior a patient with Bipolar Affective Disorder alternate between?

A

Manic (Highs)

Melancholia (Lows)

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227
Q

When does the condition of Manic Depressive first occur?

A

Between childhood and the age of 50

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228
Q

What is the average length of both a manic and depressive phase is the condition of Bipolar Affective Disorder?

A

Manic: Three months

Depressive: Six-Nine Months

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229
Q

What condition will have a preoccupation with food, binge eat and then purge and a body image distortion?

A

Bulimia Nervosa

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230
Q

What is the name of the condition that is associated with muscle inhibition?

A

Catatonia

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231
Q

What is a Transvestite?

A

Cross Dresser

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232
Q

What kind of therapy is associating an action with unpleasant consequences?

A

Aversion Therapy

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233
Q

What is the name of the test to measure the severity of Depression?

A

Beck Test/ Beck Depression Questionnaire

21 multiple choice test, of self-report inventory

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234
Q

What is Classical Conditioning?

A

Two events that occur close together in time and become fused in a person’s mind (i.e. Pavlov’s Dog)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
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235
Q

What condition has a definition of “Satisfying reinforcement strengthens a behavior”?

A

Operant Conditioning

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2
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236
Q

What is an example of Operant Conditioning?

A

Time Out

237
Q

What is the definition of Negative Reinforcement?

A

Taking away the adverse stimulus in response to a person’s action increases that action

238
Q

What is an example of Negative Reinforcement?

A

Purchasing a candy bar for a screaming child at the check out

239
Q

What is the name of the Therapy that is defined as “Form of desensitization for the treatment of phobias and related disorders in which a patient is repeatedly exposed to emotionally distressing stimuli of high intensity”?

A

Flooding Therapy

240
Q

What is the name of the test that is used to screen for Dementia, 30 point questionnaire to screen for cognitive impairment?

A

Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
AKA
Folstein Test

241
Q

What is the name of the Therapy defined as “Behavior modification technique in which one is taught to imitate the desired behavior of another”?

A

Modeling

Saying please and Thank you

242
Q

What is the name of the test that is a psychological test using inkblot images?

A

Rorschach Test

243
Q

What is one method of testing the IQ of a person?

A

Wechsler Scale

244
Q

What test initiated the modern field of intelligence testing?

A

Stanford Binet Test

245
Q

What person used “collective unconscious of man” and “Psychoanalysis”?

A

Jung

246
Q

What person goes with Operant Conditioning?

A

Skinner

247
Q

Who is linked to Classical Conditioning?

A

Pavlov

248
Q

Who came up with the Hierarchy of human needs?

A

Maslow

249
Q

What are the Hierarchy of Human Needs (5 things)?

A 
Physiology
Safety
Love
Self Esteem/Respect
Self Actualization
250
Q

Who is linked to Development of free association and dream analysis as a route to the unconscious mind?

A

Freud

251
Q

Who developed the Psychosexual stage of development; oral to anal to phallic or genital?

A

Freud

252
Q

What are the three levels of one’s self and what are they paired with?

A

Id: Basic Instinct
Ego: Reality and Control
Superego: Guilt and Consciousness

253
Q

What is the category that Tylenol is in?

A

Acetaminophen

254
Q

What can long use of Acetaminophens lead to?

A

Liver Damage (Hepatotoxic)

255
Q

What is an absorbent that treats poisoning and overdoses?

A

Activated Charcoal

256
Q

What is the name of the Antiviral for Herpes?

A

Acyclovir

257
Q

What is used to treat chronic gout?

A

Allopurinol

258
Q

What drug has the odor of garlic?

A

Arsenic

259
Q

What is the term for sleeping pills?

A

Barbiturates

260
Q

What can Barbiturates produce?

A

Respiratory Depression

261
Q

What is the name of Muscle Relaxant?

A

Benzodiazepines

262
Q

What two conditions are Beta Blockers used for?

A

Hypertension

Arrhythmias

263
Q

What are two signs/symptoms of a person with Carbon Monoxide poisoning?

A

Blue Mucous Membrane

Cherry Red Lips

264
Q

What use to be found often in Fire Extinguishers?

A

Carbon Tetrachloride

265
Q

What two organs is Chloroform toxic to?

A

Kidney

Liver

266
Q

What is the name of the drug to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders?

A

Chlorpromazine

267
Q

What type/class does the drug Cholinesterase Inhibitor fall into?

A

Organophosphate

268
Q

What is the classification of Cocaine?

A

Narcotic

269
Q

What drug can be used as a local anesthetic?

A

Lidocaine

270
Q

What drug is used to treat acute symptomatic gout?

A

Colchicine

271
Q

Where can Cyanide be found?

A

Peach Pits

Bitter Almonds

272
Q

What is the best substance to remove lead from blood chelation therapy?

A

Ethylene Diaminete Traacetic Acid (EDTA)

273
Q

What is the name of a substance that will make a person vomit?

A

Emetic

274
Q

What is used to treat Anaphylactic Shock?

A

Epinephrine (Epi Pen)

275
Q

How is the contents of the stomach removed?

A

Gastric Lavage

276
Q

What drug can be used to treat psychotic disorders?

A

Haldol

277
Q

What classification of drug includes mushroom and nutmeg?

A

Hallucinogenic Drugs

278
Q

What are two things that happen with Lead Poisoning?

A

Produces Basophilic Stippling of Red Blood Cells (RBC)

Affects the Central Nervous System (CNS); Radial Nerve Palsy

279
Q

What is the name of the drug that is used to treat Bi-Polar disorder and causes tremors?

A

Lithium

280
Q

What drug is used in people who have Coronary Artery Disease?

A

Nitroglycerine

281
Q

What drug is used to treat Depression?

A

Prozac

282
Q

What drug is classified as an Antipsychotic?

A

Reserpine

283
Q

What is the clinical name given to Aspirin?

A

Salicylates

284
Q

Who do you not give Aspirin to?

A

Children with a viral infection

285
Q

What is the active ingredient in the drug Seconal?

A

Secobarbital

286
Q

What is the name of the drug that will induce vomiting?

A

Syrup of Ipecac

287
Q

What will predispose elderly people to fall?

A

Tranquilizers

288
Q

What classification of drug is Tricyclic?

A

Anti-Depressant

289
Q

What drug can cause hypertension?

A

Tyramine

290
Q

What are two things the drug Tyramine can be found in?

A

Wine

Cheese

291
Q

What is the name of the drug that is an anticoagulant?

A

Warfarin/Coumadin

292
Q

What is the name of the condition that is “Chronic respiratory disease caused by inhalation of various minerals or metallic particles”?

A

Pneumoconiosis

293
Q

What condition can Asbestosis exposure lead to?

A

Mesothelioma

294
Q

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Iron Dust?

A

Siderosis

295
Q

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Coal Dust? (Black Lung)

A

Anthracosis

296
Q

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Cotton Dust?

A

Byssinosis

297
Q

Who is often effected with the condition of Byssinosis?

A

Textile Workers

298
Q

What is the name of the condition that is caused by Sand/Stone Dust or glass?

A

Silicosis

299
Q

What two population will have the condition of Silicosis?

A

Pottery Workers

Rock Corey Workers

300
Q

What hormone is measured in pregnant women?

A

Alpha Fetoprotein

301
Q

What does Alpha Fetoprotein test help determine?

A

Developmental Abnormalities

302
Q

In what two conditions will there be a change is Alpha Fetoprotein?

A

Open neural tube defects- Increased levels

Down’s Syndrome- Deceased levels

303
Q

What is the term for absence of Menses?

A

Amenorrhea

304
Q

When are two times Amenorrhea is commonly seen?

A

Post Menopause

Anorexia

305
Q

What are three things that are evaluated when doing Amniocentesis?

A

Heath of the fetus
Chromosomes
Lung maturity

306
Q

What two minerals is breast milk deficient in?

A

Vitamin D

Iron

307
Q

What is the term for the first breast milk?

A

Colostrum

1-3 days after delivery
High in Antibodies

308
Q

When is Dilation of the Cervix seen?

A

1st stage of labor

309
Q

What is the term for painful menses?

A

Dysmenorrhea

310
Q

What are two possible causes of Dysmenorrhea?

A 
Increased prostaglandin (Hormonal)
Pathological (Endometriosis, Fibroids)
311
Q

What is the definition of Dystocia?

A

Abnormal, Painful, Prolonged Labor

312
Q

What is the term for Thinning of the Cervix?

A

Effacement

313
Q

How is the term Engagement defined (during pregnancy)?

A

Decent of the fetal skull to the levels of the ischial spines

314
Q

What is the term if a women has “Excessive nausea and vomiting during pregnancy”?

A

Hyperemesis Gravidarum

315
Q

What is the most common surgical procedure for the diagnosis and treatment of Endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy

316
Q

What term is defined as “Baby drops into the pelvis two weeks before delivery and produces lower abdominal pain”?

A

Lightening

317
Q

What is Linea Nigra?

A

A dark streak down the midline of the abdomen seen during pregnancy

318
Q

What is the term for “Vaginal discharge after delivery and throughout the puerperium”?

A

Lochia

319
Q

What are the colors of Lochia?

A

1st- Red
2nd- Yellow
3rd- White

320
Q

What is the term for the first menstrual cycle?

A

Menarche

321
Q

What is it called if there is pain in the abdomen at ovulation?

A

Mittelschmerz

322
Q

What is the definition of Multiparous?

A

More than one delivery to a Viable infant

323
Q

What is the term given to a women if she has never given birth to a viable infant?

A

Nulliparous

324
Q

What is the term for “First pregnancy with a viable infant”?

A

Primpara

325
Q

What is the most common complication of child birth?

A

Post Partum Infection

326
Q

What is Post Partum Infection most commonly seen?

A

C-Section deliveries

327
Q

What is the term defined as “Period of time after the delivery of the placenta to the complete involution of the organs”?

A

Puerperium

328
Q

What is the name of an infection that happens during Puerperium?

A

Puerperal Sepsis

329
Q

What is the term for “First movement of fetal life felt by the mother”?

A

Quickening

330
Q

How is the term “Stations” defined (Pregnancy)?

A

Fetal position (cm) in relation to the spines of the Ischium

331
Q

What are two signs of Pregnancy?

A

Presence of fetal heartbeat (Best)

Menses is three weeks late

332
Q

What is Chadwick’s Sign?

A

Bluish discoloration of the vagina

333
Q

What is it called when “the tip of the cervix softens”?

A

Goodell’s Sign

334
Q

What is Hegar’s Sign?

A

Softening of the isthmus of the uterus

335
Q

How is Piskacek’s Sign defined?

A

Enlargement of the uterus near the uterine tube over the site of implantation

336
Q

What is the most common reason for a post partum hemorrhage?

A

Atonic Uterus

337
Q

What is the name associated with “Early uterine contractions (Oxytocin) without cervical changes”?

A

Braxton Hick’s Contractions

338
Q

What movement will cause a decrease in Braxton Hick’s Contractions?

A

Sitting Down

339
Q

What is the most common malignancy of the female genital tract?

A

Cervix

340
Q

What is the term that has “brown hyperpigmentation of the face/mask of pregnancy”?

A

Chloasma
AKA
Melasma

341
Q

What is the term for a “Malignancy of the placenta due to abnormal epithelium” (No Pregnancy)?

A

Choriocarcinoma

342
Q

What is the condition of “Herniation of the urinary bladder into the vagina’ (Anterior Wall)?

A

Cystocele

343
Q

What is the definition of Eclampsia?

A

Toxemia of Pregnancy caused by Hypertension, leading to convulsions

344
Q

Where is the most common place for an Ectopic Pregnancy at?

A

Fallopian Tube

345
Q

What are the three symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy?

A

Light Vaginal Bleeding
Lower abdominal pain
Cramping on one side of the pelvis

346
Q

What is Endometriosis?

A

Abnormal endometrial tissue outside of the uterus

347
Q

What kind of pain is seen in Endometriosis?

A

Abdominal/Back Pain

Painful Sex

348
Q

What can Endometriosis cause?

A

Infertility

349
Q

What is the most common type of post partum infection?

A

Staph or Strep

350
Q

What is it called if there is inflammation of the endometrium?

A

Endometritis

351
Q

What condition is described as “Palpable nodules in the breast after ovulation but regress after menses”?

A

Fibrocystic Breast Disease

352
Q

What population have a higher likelihood to have Fibrocystic Breast Disease?

A

Overweight Diabetic Women

353
Q

What is it called if there is a “Begin mass of trophoblastic tissue which develops at the placenta”?

A

Hydatidifrom Mole

354
Q

If a Hydatidifrom Mole become malignant what is it called?

A

Choriocarcinoma

355
Q

What hormone will be extremely elevated if a Hydatidifrom Mole is present?

A

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)

356
Q

What condition has “Numerous cyst along the outer edge of the ovary caused by a hormonal imbalance”?

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

357
Q

What are three possible indications that a women has Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCSO)?

A

High testosterone levels
Obese
Not able to get pregnant

358
Q

What condition has the following signs; Toxemia of pregnancy with Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria (HEP)?

A

Pre-Eclampsia

359
Q

What is the name of the condition that has “Herniation of the rectum into the vagina”, “Collapsed Pouch”, along the Posterior wall of the vagina?

A

Rectocele

360
Q

What happen in the First (1st) stage of Pregnancy?

A

Dilation

From first meaningful contraction to full dilation (10 cm) of the cervix

361
Q

What is the longest stage of Pregnancy?

A

First Stage

362
Q

What is a term for the “Release of the mucous plug during the first stage of labor”?

A

Bloody Show

363
Q

What happens in the Second (2nd) stage of Pregnancy?

A

Expulsion

From full dilation of the cervix to the delivery of the baby

364
Q

In what stage of pregnancy does the women have hot/cold flashes and the urge to push?

A

Second Stage

365
Q

In what stage of pregnancy is the placenta delivered?

A

Third Stage

366
Q

What stage of pregnancy is most dangerous to the mother?

A

Third Stage

Mother could bleed out, time between when the baby is delivered and the placenta comes out

367
Q

What happens in the Fourth stage of Pregnancy?

A

Stabilization
Time from delivery to placenta to several hours when the tone of the uterus is established and the contractions of the uterus expel any remaining contents

368
Q

What is the term for a “Low lying placenta with partial obstruction of the internal os”?

A

Placenta Previa

369
Q

What is the definition of Placenta Abruptio?

A

Normally Placed
Detaches from the site
Spontaneous abortion/Premature Separation

370
Q

What is the name of the condition if the “Placenta does not separate after delivery”?

A

Placenta Accreta

371
Q

What is another term for Placenta Accreta?

A

Atonic Placenta

372
Q

What is required if a women has a Placenta Accreta?

A

Hysterectomy

373
Q

What is it called when the “Umbilical cord is attached to the margin of the placenta”?

A

Battledore Placenta

Rarely occurs, no affect to the function of the placenta

374
Q

Where is a Pap Smear taken from?

A

Tip of the cervix and surround structures

375
Q

What is considered a “Normal” Pap Smear?

A

Classification I

376
Q

What does a Classification II Pap Smear indicate?

A

Atypical or benign (Possible infection/inflammation/STD)

377
Q

What Classification of Pap Smear is “Pre cancerous/Dysplasia”?

A

Classification III

378
Q

What is a Classification IV Pap Smear indicate?

A

In Situ/ Non-invasive carcinoma

379
Q

What Classification of Pap Smear indicated “Malignancy/Invasive”?

A

Classification V

380
Q

When should an infant get it first teeth?

A

6-8 months

381
Q

At what age can you introduce the “first food” to a child?

A

6 months

382
Q

When should a baby start to crawl?

A

9 months

383
Q

At what age should a baby be able to “Walk with Assistance”?

A

10-14 months

384
Q

A child should be able to “Walk unassisted” by what age?

A

12-18 months

385
Q

What should a child be able to do by 18 months?

A

Talk 10-15 words

386
Q

When does the Umbilical Cord usually fall off?

A

7-10 days

387
Q

When does the Posterior Fontanelle close?

A

3 months

388
Q

When does the Anterior Fontanelle close?

A

2 years (This is the larger of the two fontanelles)

389
Q

What does a Depressed Fontanelle indicated?

A

Dehydration

390
Q

What does and Bulging Fontanelle indicate?

A

Intracranial Pressure, possible excessive crying

391
Q

What two time is the APGAR score taken?

A

Immediately after birth and 5 minuets after birth

392
Q

What are the five components of the APGAR Score?

A 
Heart Rate (Pulse)
Respiration Rate 
Color (Appearance)
Muscle Tone (Grimace)
Reflex Activity
393
Q

What is NOT included in the APGAR Score?

A

Birth Weight

394
Q

What is the term for “fuzzy hair on the baby’s skin”?

A

Lanugo

395
Q

What is Meconium?

A

First discharge for the intestines of a newborn

Green Paste, dead Red Blood Cells (RBC)

396
Q

What is the following description “Bluish, ill defined areas of the skin in the buttock/scrotal region”?

A

Mongolian Spots

397
Q

What are the two indications that a child is born premature?

A

Born between 26-37 weeks gestation

Weighs less than 2500 grams

398
Q

What is the term for “White cheesy substance on the baby’s skin at birth”?

A

Vernix Caseosa

399
Q

What syndrome is a mild form of Autism?

A

Asperger’s Syndrome

400
Q

What three foods can cause Botulism in newborns?

A

Honey
Corn Syrup
Molasses

401
Q

What is the condition of Caput Succedeum?

A

Baby’s head has an unusual shape due to swelling of the scalp, considered benign

402
Q

What condition in a child is similar to that of Seborrheic Dermatitis in an adult?

A

Cradle Cap

403
Q

What is the term for Bedwetting?

A

Enuresis

404
Q

How is Erythroblastosis Fetalis caused?

A

Hemolytic Anemia in the fetus/neonate

Trans-placental transmission of maternal antibodies to fetal Red Blood Cells (RBC)

405
Q

What is usually a result from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood groups, often Rh0 (D) antigens?

A

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

406
Q

What color will the child be that has Erythroblastosis Fetalis be?

A

Jaundice, place under a blue light

407
Q

What condition in a child will cause the following findings:
Delayed Growth
Microcephaly
Mental Retardation

A

Fetal Alcohol Syndrome

408
Q

What is the name of the condition if a child has a protein malnutrition?

A

Kwashiorkor

409
Q

What is the classic sign of Kwashiorkor?

A

Ascites, distended abdomen

410
Q

What is the most common cancer of children and Down’s Syndrome individuals?

A

Leukemia

411
Q

What is the term for General Malnutrition?

A

Marasmus

412
Q

What is the term described as “Prickly Heat”?

A

Miliaria from sweat glands

413
Q

What can lead to fetal suffocation?

A

Prolapsed Umbilical Cord

414
Q

What vitamin prevents hemorrhaging in newborns?

A

Vitamin K

415
Q

What condition can lead to mental retardation and seizures in children?

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

416
Q

What enzyme is nonfunctional in the genetic disorder of Phenylketonuria (PKU)?

A

Phenylalanine

417
Q

What are four communicable diseases associated with a virus?

A

Measles (Rubella and Rubeola)
Chicken Pox
Mumps
Croup

418
Q

What is another name for Rubella? (Measles)

A

German Measles

419
Q

How long does German Measles last?

A

3 days

Last a short time

420
Q

What two symptoms are seen with Rubella?

A

Maculopapular Rash

Mild Fever

421
Q

When is German Measles the most dangerous?

A

1st trimester of fetal life, may lead to birth defects

422
Q

What type of Measles has a “Prodromal stage”?

A

Rubeola

423
Q

What are two symptoms of Rubeola? (Measles)

A

Runny Nose

Koplic Spots, on buccal mucosa

424
Q

How long does Rubeola last?

A

2 weeks

425
Q

What two things will Rubeola be present with?

A

Maculopapular Rash

High Fever

426
Q

What is the most common serious complication of Rubeola?

A

Bronchopneumonia

427
Q

What is the lesion type of Chicken Pox?

A

Vesicular Rash

428
Q

What is the name of the disease that is “Mild in children and adult and located in the parotid gland”?

A

Mumps

429
Q

What condition can be produced after an person has Mumps?

A

Orchitis (Inflammation of the testicles)

430
Q

What condition is seen in children and is characterized by a “resonant barking cough (Seal Like)?

A

Croup

431
Q

In the condition of Croup what may have a membrane?

A

Laryngeal spasm

432
Q

What are four communicable diseases associated with Bacteria?

A

Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
Diphtheria
Scarlet Fever
Roseola Infantum

433
Q

What is another name for Pertussis?

A

Whooping Cough

434
Q

What is the causative organism of Pertussis?

A

Bordetella Pertussis

435
Q

What age group is Pertussis most dangerous to?

A

Infants under the age of one

436
Q

What causes death in patients with Whooping Cough?

A

Bronchopneumonia (Death by Anoxia)

437
Q

What is the organism that causes Diphtheria?

A

Corybacterium Diphtheria

438
Q

How does Diphtheria present?

A

Grey pseudo membrane o the throat

439
Q

What test is done on a patient with Diphtheria?

A

Schick Test

440
Q

What causes Scarlet Fever?

A

Group A Strep Pyogenes

441
Q

What are two findings in the condition of Scarlet Fever?

A

Strawberry Tongue

Peeling (Desquamation) of the superficial layer

442
Q

What test will be positive in a Patient with Scarlet Fever?

A

ASO Titer

443
Q

At what age will you see the condition of Roseola Infantum?

A

Less than 2 years of age

444
Q

In the condition of Roseola Infantum what is the pattern of the rash?

A

Starts on the trunk and works out to the extremities

445
Q

When will the rash appear in the condition of Roseola Infantum?

A

After the fever breaks

446
Q

How is the Rooting Reflex stimulated?

A

Stroke the corner of the mouth; the infant’s mouth will open and turn to the side that was touched

447
Q

What is the most primitive reflex originating from the brain stem?

A

Rooting Reflex

448
Q

What reflex is elicited by placing a finger or nipple in the mouth of a newborn?

A

Sucking Reflex

449
Q

What does the Sucking Reflex stimulate?

A

Release of Oxytocin

450
Q

What is the Tonic Neck Reflex?

A

Doctor rotates the head of a supine child and the ipsilateral arm and leg extend while the contralateral arm and leg flex

451
Q

What is a positive Moro(Startle) Reflex?

A

Arms and legs flare out to the sides in response to a loud sound and then are brought back into the body

452
Q

What reflex has Sensory Integrations?

A

Moro (Startle) Reflex

453
Q

What is the name of the reflex that an “Infant should attempt to raise head and arch the back when placed in a prone position”?

A

Landau Reflex

454
Q

What is a positive Perez Reflex?

A

While running a finger down the spine of a prone infant the whole body will extend

455
Q

What is the name of the reflex described:

“While running a finger down the ipsilateral paraspinal muscles the baby will contract to that side”?

A

Gallant Reflex

456
Q

What is the most common geriatric neuromuscular complaint?

A

Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)

457
Q

What is the name of the condition that is normal in the older population and is described as “a greyish opaque ring around the cornea”?

A

Arcus Senilis

458
Q

What is the name of the condition seen in the geriatric population that has loss of elasticity of the lens OR hardening of the lens (cannot focus on up close objects)?

A

Presbyopia

459
Q

What is the definition of the condition Presbycussis?

A

Inability to hear high frequencies

460
Q

What is the most common Endocrine Malfunction in the elderly?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

461
Q

What is the most common anemia is everyone?

A

Iron Deficient Anemia

462
Q

What is the name of bed sore that requires protein for healing?

A

Decubitus Ulcer

463
Q

What is the area most often seen with a Decubitus Ulcer?

A

Over the Sacrum

464
Q

What is the most common fractured bone in the elderly?

A

Hip Fracture

465
Q

What is the most common visual problem in the elderly leading to blindness?

A

Macular Degeneration

466
Q

What is the term used if there is discriminatory treatment towards the elderly?

A

Ageism

467
Q

What is the most common type of dementia among older people?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

468
Q

What are three things that are impaired in a patient that has Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Thought
Memory
Language

469
Q

What is the only diagnosis for Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Autopsy

470
Q

How is the condition of Glaucoma tested?

A

Tonometer

471
Q

What condition has an increase in intraocular pressure?

A

Glaucoma

472
Q

What test is best used to measure the following:
Blood Volume
Oxygen uptake transport
Metabolism

A

Positron Emission Test (PET)

473
Q

What syndrome is seen in alcoholics with a B1 (Thiamin) deficiency?

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

474
Q

What is the term for an “abnormal passage between two organs”

OR

“an organ and the exterior of the body”?

A

Fistula

475
Q

What is the term for “small tear in the mucosa that lines the anus”?

A

Fissure

476
Q

What is the definition of an Abscess?

A

Collection of pus that accumulated in a tissue

477
Q

What is the term linked to the following definition:

“Transfer of a patient to another doctor without the patient’s consent”?

A

Abandonment

478
Q

What is the definition of Assault?

A

Threat of violence to another person

479
Q

What is it called if you adjust without consent?

A

Battery

480
Q

What is the following definition “A dispute that is resolved by an unbiased third party and has no appeal process”?

A

Binding Arbitration

481
Q

In what court system are malpractices cases against a chiropractor tried?

A

Civil Court

482
Q

What are the five components that make up a contract?

A 
Acceptance 
Consideration 
Two or more competent parties
Legal Object
Consent
483
Q

What term is associated with the following definition: “Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harm’s a persons reputation”?

A

Defamation of Character

484
Q

What three things must and employer pay for their employees?

A

Worker’s Compensation
FICA (Federal Insurance)
Social Security

485
Q

What is Expressed Consent?

A

Patient has the procedure explained to them, understands and agrees to it

486
Q

What is the Good Samaritan Law?

A

Good faith rendering of care at an emergency, isn’t liable for civil damages

487
Q

What is the following definition: “Patient is unable to communicate their consent, but life saving interventions are needed”?

A

Implied Consent

488
Q

What is Informed Consent?

A

Providing the patient with feasible alternatives and informing them of the dangers of treatment

May be verbal

489
Q

What term is associated with the following definition: “False statement submitted in Writing that harms another”?

A

Libel

490
Q

What is the following definition: “A professional negligence by acts or omission by a health care provide in which care provided Deviate from the accepted standards of practice in the medical community and cause injury or death the patient”

A

Malpractice

491
Q

What is Negligence?

A

Failure to conform to the standard of care expected and imposed by law

492
Q

What is the following definition: “Where the burden of proof lies in a court of law”?

A

Plaintiff

493
Q

What is the term for “Employer is responsible for the actions of employees”?

A

Respondent Superior

494
Q

What is “A false Verbal statement of another person”?

A

Slander

495
Q

What is the following definition: “Formal diagnostic and treatment process a doctor will follow for a patient with a certain set of symptoms or a specific illness.

The standard will follow guidelines and protocols that Experts would agree with as most appropriate, so called “Best Practice”?

A

Standards of Care

496
Q

What is “The Length of time you have to sue for an injury”?

A

Statutes of Limitation (2 years)

497
Q

What is the following definition: “Standard of care is the basis on which negligence and fault and determined in medical malpractice lawsuits.

It refers to the level of care, skill and knowledge that is expected of all physicians in a particular field, in and particular region, acting in similar circumstances”?

A

Substandard Care

498
Q

What is Third Party Consent?

A

Patient is mentally incapable of understanding the procedure and/or the ramification of consent or refused, so consent is given or withheld on their behalf by a legal designate

499
Q

What is the following definition: “Body of law which allows an injured person to obtain compensation from the person who caused the injury”?

A

Tort

500
Q

What is Vicarious Liability?

A

Responsibility is imposed upon one person for failure of another in the case of special relationships (parent/child or employer/employee)

501
Q

What is the Pulse Rate for an Adult (12 years and older)?

A

60-100 Beats per minute

502
Q

What is the Blood Pressure for an Adult (12 years and older)?

A

Systolic: 90-140 mm Hg
Diastolic: 60-90 mm Hg

503
Q

What is the Respiration for an Adult (12 years and older)?

A

12-20 breaths per minute

504
Q

What is the Pulse Rate for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?

A

80-100 Beats per minute

505
Q

What is the Blood Pressure for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?

A

Systolic: 80-100 mm Hg

506
Q

What is the Respirations for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?

A

15-30 breaths per minute

507
Q

What is the Pulse Rate for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?

A

100-140 Beats per minute

508
Q

What is the Blood Pressure for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?

A

Systolic: 70-95 mm Hg

509
Q

What is the Respirations for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?

A

25-50 breaths per minute

510
Q

What is the Pulse Rate for a Newborn?

A

120-160 Beats per minute

511
Q

What is the Blood Pressure for a Newborn?

A

Systolic: Greater than 60 mm Hg

512
Q

What is the Respirations for a Newborn?

A

40-60 breaths per minute

513
Q

What are the three steps for Conscious Choking in an Adult or Child?

A
  1. Encourage Coughing
  2. If they cannot cough, 5 blows between the shoulder blades
  3. Give 5 Abdominal Thrust
514
Q

What are the four steps for Conscious Choking in an Infant?

A
  1. Place infant face down along the forearm
  2. Give 5 back blows
  3. Turn infant face up
  4. Give 4 chest thrust (Below the nipple line, compress 5 times about 1.5 inches)
515
Q

What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Adult or Child?

A
  1. Rise and tilt the head to prepare for ventilations

2. 30 compressions (About two inches in depth) Compress at a rate of 100 compressions per minute

516
Q

What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Infant?

A
  1. Fix Head

2. 30 Compressions (about 1.5 inches in depth)

517
Q

What are the three things to know about the Finger Sweep Technique?

A

Used to Clear and Airway Obstruction
ONLY perform on an unconscious patient
ONLY perform when you can see foreign object in patient’s mouth

518
Q

What must you do before you start any rescue efforts on a patient (i.e. CPR)?

A

Check for responsiveness

519
Q

How do you check the circulation of a patient?

A

Place to fingers on the carotid artery and apply slight pressure for a few seconds

520
Q

If no pulse is present what is your next step?

A

Perform chest compressions

521
Q

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Adult?

A

12 (1 Ventilation about every 5 seconds)

522
Q

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Child?

A

About 20

523
Q

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Infant?

A

About 20

524
Q

What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Newborn?

A

30-60 (1 Ventilation about every 1-2 seconds)

525
Q

How is CPR performed on an Adult:

Hand Position
Compression Depth 
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers 
Rate
A

Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)

Compression Depth: At least 2 inches

Breaths: Until chest clearly rises (1 second/ventilation)

Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2

Cycles; Two Rescuers:30:2

Rate: 100 compressions per minute

526
Q

How is CPR performed on a Child:

Hand Position
Compression Depth 
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers 
Rate
A

Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)

Compression Depth: At least 2 inches

Breaths: 1 second per ventilation

Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2

Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2

Rate: 100 compressions per minute

527
Q

How is CPR performed on an Infant:

Hand Position
Compression Depth 
Breaths
Cycles; One Rescuer
Cycles; Two Rescuers 
Rate
A

Hand Position: Two or three fingers on the center of the chest (Just below the nipple line)

Compression Depth: About 1.5 inches

Breaths: 1 second per Second

Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2

Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2

Rate: 100 compressions per minute

528
Q

When are three times you stop CPR?

A

Another responder takes over
You are too exhausted to continue
The scene becomes unsafe

529
Q

What are two risk factors of performing CPR?

A

Fractured Ribs

Punctured Lung

530
Q

If someone Ingested a poison what may you have them take and why?

A

Take: Emetic
Why: Prevent moving to Small intestine; where most absorption takes place

531
Q

In what four conditions should you not induce vomiting in a patient?

A

Unconscious
Having a Seizure
Last Trimester of Pregnancy
Ingested corrosive substance or Gasoline

532
Q

What do all patients that inhaled a poison need?

A

Oxygen As soon as possible

533
Q

What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Plant?

A

Rinse with water for at least 20 minuets

534
Q

What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Dry Chemical?

A

Brush it off with a gloved hand

Flush for 20 minuets with tap water

535
Q

What is the care if a poison has come in contact with a patient’s eyes?

A

Irrigate from the noes (Medial to Lateral) side

536
Q

What type of shock is “result of the heart being unable to supply adequate blood circulation to the vital organs”?

A

Cardiogenic Shock

537
Q

What are two causes of Cardiogenic Shock?

A

Trauma

Disease

538
Q

What is the care for a Patient with Cardiogenic Shock?

A

Patient Supine with their feet higher than their head

539
Q

What type of shock is caused by an abnormal decrease in blood volume?

A

Hypovolemic Shock

540
Q

What are three causes of Hypovolemic Shock?

A

Limb chopped off
Spleen Rupture
Abdominal Aortic Aneurism (AAA)

541
Q

What kind of shock is caused by trauma to the spinal cord or brain?

A

Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock

542
Q

What type of Shock is “where the blood vessel walls abnormally constrict and dilate, preventing relay messages and cause blood to pool in the lowest part of the body”?

A

Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock

543
Q

What causes Obstructive Shock?

A

Obstruction of blood flow

544
Q

What is an example of Obstructive Shock?

A

Pulmonary Embolism

545
Q

What kind of shock is caused by failure of the lungs to transfer sufficient oxygen into the blood stream?

A

Respiratory Shock

546
Q

When does Respiratory Shock occur?

A

Respiratory Distress (i.e. Asthma)

547
Q

What is the definition of Septic Shock?

A

When an infection has spread to the point that bacteria are releasing toxins into the bloodstream

548
Q

What position should you lay a person in that has been struck by Lightening?

A

Head slightly lower than the trunk, with legs elevated and supported

549
Q

What two locations should you find on a person that has been struck by lightening?

A

Enter and exit sights

550
Q

How should you remove a visible foreign object (body) from the eye?

A

Never touch the eye

Pull the eyelid down and try and remove with sterile gauze pad

Flush the eye with irrigation

551
Q

How should you care for a chemical exposure to the eye?

A

Irrigate the eye with clean water for 20 minuets

552
Q

What should you do if there is an impaled object in the eye?

A

Cover Both eyes

Support the object

553
Q

What is a “Battle Sign”?

A

Ecchymosis (Bleeding) around the Mastoid

554
Q

What does a “Battle Sign” indicate?

A

Possible Basilar Skull Fracture

555
Q

How are burns graded?

A

By the depth of the burn

556
Q

What is the characteristic, layer and example of an 1st Degree Burn?

A

Characteristic: Redness
Layer: Epidermis
Example: Sunburn

557
Q

What is the characteristic and layers of an 2nd Degree Burn?

A

Characteristic: Blister
Layer: Epidermis and Dermis, Not the base of the Dermis

558
Q

How is a 3rd Degree Burn described?

A

Charring of the skin

559
Q

What are six signs/symptoms of a Grade 1 Concussion?

A 
No loss of Consciousness
Confusion
Memory Loss
Headache
Dizziness
Nausea (May occur)
560
Q

How long does a Grade 1 Concussion last?

A

15-30 Minuets (Approximately)

561
Q

How long does a Grade 2 Concussion last?

A

30 minutes to the entire day

Same signs/symptoms of Grade 1, just stronger

562
Q

What are three Signs/Symptoms of a Grade3 Concussion?

A

Loss of Consciousness
Intense Confusion
Memory Loss

563
Q

How long does a Grade 3 Concussion last?

A

Seconds to Minutes

564
Q

What is the most common condition in the general population that results from trauma and has a fast bleeding rate?

A

Epidural Hematoma

565
Q

What does an Epidural Hematoma increase?

A

Intracranial Pressure

566
Q

What is one cause of Epidural Hematoma?

A

Hypertension

567
Q

What kind of headache will be seen in a patient that has an Epidural Hematoma?

A

Quick/Fast onset

568
Q

When is the Glasgow Scale used?

A

Assess the level of consciousness for any medial or trauma patient

569
Q

What are the three parameters used on the Glasgow Scale?

A

Eye Opening
Verbal Response
Motor Response

570
Q

What condition is a “brief muscle cramp due to excess heat or exercise”?

A

Heat Cramps

571
Q

What condition has an electrolyte deficiency?

A

Heat Cramps

572
Q

What condition has the following care:
Move the patient out of the hot environment to a cooler area

Remove excess clothing

Cool the patient’s body by spraying with cool water, applying cool wet clothes to the body

Hydrate with electrolytes

A

Heat Exhaustion

573
Q

What are two signs of Heat Shock?

A

Low Blood Pressure

Rapid, weak pulse

574
Q

What are the nine signs of Heat Stroke?

A 
Cessation of sweating 
High Body Temperature 
Rapid weak pulse 
Shallow breathing 
Low Blood Pressure 
Throbbing Headache 
Dizziness
Nausea 
Vomiting
575
Q

What is the care for a patient having Heat Stroke?

A

Immerse the patient in cold water up to their neck (Preferred Method)

Douse the patient with towels soaked in ice water over entire body

576
Q

What condition would you perform the following care:
Remove any wet clothing and dry off patient

Passively warm the patient by wrapping all exposed body surfaces

A

Hypothermia

577
Q

What are two things you NEVER do to a patient with Hypothermia?

A

Immerse the patient in warm water

Rub or massage the extremities

578
Q

If a patient has frostbite how must you handle the area?

A

Very carefully

579
Q

Should you attempt to rewarm the frostbitten area?

A

NO

580
Q

How do your treat a more serious frostbite case?

A

Rewarm the body, not the effected area, by gently soaking it in water no warmer than 105 degrees F

581
Q

What is it called when an Injury produces black and blue spots around the eyes?

A

Raccoon Sign

582
Q

What condition is usually a result of a cerebral aneurysm?

A

Subarachnoid Hematoma

583
Q

What condition is considered a form of a stroke?

A

Subarachnoid Hematoma

584
Q

What condition is usually the result of a serious head injury and most commonly seen in athletes?

A

Subdural Hematoma

585
Q

What kind of hematoma is among the most deadly?

A

Acute Subdural Hematoma

586
Q

What is the major symptom of a Subdural Hemorrhage?

A

Slower Bleed (Than Epidural Hemorrhage, veins bleed slower) =Slower onset

587
Q

What does the term Res Ipsa Loquitur mean?

A

“The thing speaks for itself”

588
Q

What four things must a Malpractice Suit contain?

A

Duty
Dereliction (Poor result to do negligence)
Damage
Direct Causation

Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) (12 decks)

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