Assocaited Clinical Science (ACS) Part II (Irene Gold) Flashcards
What is the name of the condition seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the ventral surface of the penis?
Hypospadias (Boots)
What is the name of the condition that is seen in a male that has a congenital defect on the dorsal side of the penis?
Epispadias (Goggles)
What is the condition of Phimosis?
Foreskin cannot be fully retracted over the glans penis
What condition is described as “Foreskin becomes trapped behind/under the glans penis”?
Paraphimosis (“Turtle Neck”)
What is the description of a Hydrocele?
Fluid accumulation around testes
Non Tender
Transillumnate
Can palpate above the mass
What two male conditions of the male genital area are Not Transillumnate?
Scrotal Hernia
Tumor (Seminoma)
In what condition can you not palpate above the mass in a male genital disorder?
Scrotal Hernia
What male genital disorder will there be high levels of Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) and a Painless nodule?
Tumor (Seminoma)
What is the name of the male genital disorder described as a “Bag of Worms”?
Varicocele
What is often a cause of Varicocele?
Portal Hypertension
What is the name of the male genital condition that is described as “Common, Cutaneous firm, yellow crust”?
Epidermoid Cyst
What male genital disorder has “Reddened testes that are tender and has posterior superior scrotal swelling”?
Epididymitis
What two male genital disorders are Tranillunimate?
Hydrocele
Epididymitis
What is the name of the male genital disorder that occurs from a blunt trauma and is a surgical emergency?
Testicular Torsion
What male genital disorder is seen in adolescents and is classified as painful and swollen?
Testicular Torsion
What are the two characteristics of Cryptorchism?
Undescended testicle
Increased risk of Testicular cancer
What is the term used to describe and erection lasting longer than four hours?
Priapism
What are three things that can cause Priapism?
Erectile Dysfunction Drugs
Central Nervous System (CNS) trauma
Increased intracranial pressure
What is the term for an “Inflamed Penis gland”?
Balanitis
What is the male genital disorder of Peyronie’s?
Crooked erection (“up, up and away”)
What is a term that is associated with Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
Salpingitisis
What part of the reproduction system is most effected by Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
Fallopian Tubes
What is the main cause of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)?
Gonorrhea
What are four other causes of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease besides Gonorrhea?
Chlamydia
Candidiasis Yeast
Trichomoniasis
Infections=Prior STD
What kind of stain is Gonorrhea?
Gram-Negative Diplococcus
How is the Gonorrhea organism grown in a lab?
Chocolate Agar Plate
What is the most common symptom of Gonorrhea?
Dysuria (Painful Urination)
What is the most common sign of Gonorrhea?
Green Mucopurulent discharge
What is the most common joint effected in Gonorrhea?
Knee
In Gonorrhea the MC site of Sequelae in each of the following populations:
Men
Women
Newborns
Men: Testicles➡️Sterility
Women: Salpingitisis
Newborns: Blindness
Chlamydia is the causative agent for what two disorders/conditions?
Reiter’s
Ophthalmia Neonatorum
What condition does Chlamydia cause in females?
Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
What condition is seen in males with Chlamydia?
Nothing, Asymptomatic
What is the most common cause of infertility in the United States?
Chlamydia
Which Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD), is more common Chlamydia or Gonorrhea?
Gonorrhea
What is the organism associated with Syphilis?
Spirochete (Treponema Pallidum)
STD transmitted through the placenta?
Syphilis
What is a treatment for Syphilis?
Penicillin
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is associated with Hutchinson’s Triad?
Syphilis
What is Hutchinson’s Triad?
Interstitial Keratitis
Notched Permanent Incisors (peg)
CN VIII Deafness
STD-Syphilis
What Diagnostic Test are done for a patient with Syphilis?
Darkfield Microscopy
What Labs are ordered in the condition of Syphilis?
Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL)
FTA/ABS
TPI
What are characteristics of the First Stage of Syphilis?
Hard painless Singular Chancre
How long does the First Stage of Syphilis last?
Up to 8 weeks
What are the three characteristics of Stage Two of Syphilis?
Maculopapular Rash
Condylomata Lata (Flat Warts)
Alopecia
How long does the Second Stage of Syphilis last?
8 weeks to 2 years
What Stage of Syphilis is the most “Transmission”?
Stage Two
What are the three symptoms associated with Stage Three Syphilis?
Tabes Dorsalis (Posterior) Gummas Vascular Damage (Aortic Aneurysm or Aortic Valve Insufficiency)
In what Stage of Syphilis is there no transmission of the disease?
Stage Three
What is the time frame for Stage Three of Syphilis?
Over 25 years; without treatment
What kind of organism causes Trichimoniasis?
Parasite
What kind of Discharge is seen in Trichimoniasis?
Greenish Yellow
Frothy
Foul Smelling
What is another name for Candidiasis?
Moniliasis
What organism causes Candidiasis?
Yeast/Fungus
STD with White Cottage Cheese Discharge seen in the mouth of the vagina?
Candidiasis
What is Candidiasis of the mouth called?
Thrush
What two conditions are associated with Candidiasis?
Diabetes Antibiotic Usage (Probiotics)
What two populations will often bee seen with Thrush?
Immunocomprimised Infants
AIDS Patients
What organism causes Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
Chlamydia
What are two signs/symptoms of Lymphogranuloma Venereum?
Affects the lymph nodes of the groin
Produces Rectal Strictures
What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?
Bacterium
What is the incubation time for the bacterium organism of the condition of Granuloma Inguinale?
8-80 days
How does the condition of Granuloma Inguinale present?
Red Beefy Lesions
Nodular, lead to Ulcerations
Where is the condition of Granuloma Inguinale seen at?
Anogenital to Perineal Area
What kind of organism is responsible for the condition of Genital Herpes?
Virus (HSV-2)
What is the appearance of Genital Herpes?
Vesicular clusters
What two things makes Genital Herpes reoccur?
Decreased immunity
Stress
What is another name for Genital Warts?
Condylomata Accuminata
What is the organism that causes Genital Warts?
Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) is linked to Cervical Caner?
Genital Warts
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has a Papilloma?
Genital Warts
What are four characteristics of a Papilloma?
Painful
Soft
Flesh Colored
Cauliflower Erosions
What organism is linked to the Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) of Chancroid?
Hemophilus Ducreyi
What Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) has “Papules that become soft and painful”?
Chancroid
What test is performed on a patient with Chancroid?
Frei Test
What kind of organism is the HIV Virus?
Retrovirus
What is the condition of AIDS often associated with?
Opportunistic Infections
What is one contraindication of a person with AIDS?
Breast Feeding
What are two high risk populations of contacting AIDS?
Homosexual Males
IV Drug users
What two Labs are ordered for AIDS patients?
1-ELISA; Screening test (RNA)
2-Western Blot; Most accurate (Proteins)
What are three associated conditions in AIDS patients?
Pneumocystis Carinii (Fungal Lung) (Most Common) Giardia Lamblia (Diarrhea) Kaposi's Sarcoma
What is the organism in the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Virus
What two populations will you see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Children
Adults-transmitted via sex
What is the only Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD) that can be transmitted by a fomite?
Molluscum Contagiosum
Fomite-Bath Towel etc.
What are two common locations to see the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Mucosa of the Mouth
Eyelids
What are the characteristics of the condition of Molluscum Contagiosum?
Dome shaped
Flesh Colored or Gray umbilicated papule that becomes pearly white with a cancerous core
What is the size, description and an example of a Macule?
Size: Less the 0.5 cm
Description: Flat
Example: Freckle
What is the size and description of a Papule?
Size: Less that 0.5 cm
Description: Raised
What two conditions are associated with a Papule?
Measles
Syphilis (Solid)
What is the size and description of a Vesicle?
Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Serous Fluid filled
What two conditions are associated with a Vesicle?
Herpes
Chicken Pox
What is the size and description of a Pustule?
Size: Less than 0.5 cm
Description: Pus Filled
What condition is associated a Pustule?
Staph (Bacterial)
What causes the Staph infection in conjuncture with the Pustule?
Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)
What population has several Furuncles, usually seen at the base of the hair line?
African Americans
What is the size and description of a Nodule?
Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Hard, Raised
Grown up Papule
What is the size and description of a Bulla?
Size: Greater than 0.5 cm
Description: Fluid filled
Grown up Vesicle
What condition is associated with a Bulla?
Phemphigus
What is the name of a “Precancerous lesion seen on the mucus membrane that is associated with the use of tobacco products”?
Leukoplakia
What two conditions are “white” in the mouth which one can be scrapped off?
Thrush (Can be scrapped off)
Leukoplakia
What is the location of Acne Rosacea? (3 areas)
Face
Noes
Cheeks
What three things exacerbate Acne Rosacea?
Sunlight
Caffeine
Alcohol
What population is the condition of Acne Vulgaris seen in?
Adolescents
What gland is infected in the condition of Acne Vulgaris?
Sebaceous Glands
How are the Sebaceous Glands of Acne Vulgaris characterized?
Comedones (Blackheads= open, Whiteheads=closed)
Pus filled cyst
What is the name of the most common benign sun induced lesion?
Actinic Lentigo
What are two types of spots seen in the condition of Actinic Lentigo?
Sun Spots
Liver Spots
What are the two most common places to see Actinic Lentigo?
Face
Back of Hands
Areas that get high amounts of sun exposure
What condition is described as “Pitted Erythematous lesion/ulcer of the mouth”?
Aphthous Stomatitis
What are two other terms associated with Aphthous Stomatitis?
Cancer Sore
Yellowish Ulcer
What is a “Carload of Furuncles”? Has the same findings as a Furuncle (Infected Hair Follicle)
Carbuncle
What condition is an “Accumulation of sebum within in a pore”?
Comedone (Acne Vulgaris)
How is the condition of a Epidermal Cyst (Wen) described?
Non-tender cyst that is filled with sebum
What is the organism that is linked tot eh condition of Erysipelas?
Beta Hemolytic STREP
What condition has a “Red Fiery, advancing lesion on the skin”?
Erysipelas
What are two signs/symptoms a patient with Erysipelas will have?
Fever
Elevated ASO Titer
What condition is; A skin reaction usually associated with strep and characterized by bilateral, red, tender nodules?
Erythema Nodosum
What is the term for “Any surface injury to the skin”?
Excoriation
How do you diagnosis Fungal/Mycotic Infections?
Wood’s Lamp
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Corpus?
Body
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Pedis?
Athlete’s Foot
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Ungunum?
Nails
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Capitus?
Scalp
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Cruris?
Jock Itch
What part of the body is effected if the patient has Tinea Barbae?
Beard
What kind of infection causes Tinea Versicolor?
Fungal Infection
What is Tinea Versicolor?
Multiple Hypo pigmented
Asymptomatic Lesions
Varying in color from white to brown
Where is one place you can acquire the condition of Tinea Versicolor?
Tanning Beds
What is the name of the condition that is described as “Staph infected hair follicle that presents as a Painful nodule”?
Furuncle
What condition is characterized by small vesicles located on the mouth or the genital region?
Herpes Simplex
HSV 1- Cold Sores (Mouth Region)
HSV 2- Genital Herpes (Genital Area)
When can the Herpes Simplex be reactivated?
During delivery
What test is done in a patient that has the Herpes Simplex?
Tzank Test
What is another term for Herpes Zoster?
Shingles
Where is Herpes Zoster most often found? (2 Locations)
Thoracic Dermatome
Cranial Nerve V; area
In what population is Herpes Zoster exacerbated in?
Immuno-compromised patients
What are two characteristics of Herpes Zoster?
Will not cross midline (Thoracic Outbreak)
Will have pain before outbreak on the skin
Where is Herpes Zoster found?
Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)
What is another name for Icthyosis?
Fish Skin
What condition is an “Increase keratinization producing a Non-inflammatory skin lesion”?
Icthyosis
What is the most common organism to cause Impetigo?
Strep
What is the sign of Impetigo?
Crusty (Yellow Honey) lesions
What two locations are common places to see Impetigo?
Corners of the mouth
Hands
What skin condition is very contagious and often seen in children?
Impetigo
What condition is seen in the folds of the skin, that has reddened areas caused by trapped moisture, friction and warmth retained?
Intertrigo
What is the name of the condition that is “Dense, sharply elevated, progressive enlarging/excessive scar with collagenous hyperplasia”
Keloid
What three populations have a high level of Keloids?
African-Americans
Latinos
Asians
What condition has a “Rough thick skin due to constant scratching”(Chronic Dermatitis)?
Lichenificaiton
What is the name of the condition that is an inflammatory pruritic (itching) disease?
Lichen Planus
What are the three characteristics of Lichen Planus?
Papules with:
Shiny
Fine inconspicuous SCALES
Whitish lines or puncta
What condition has a “Discrete coin shaped, ring/annular lesion that coalesces to form patches with ooze and then crust overs”
Nummular Eczema
What condition is “Tender Bacterial (Maybe Fungal) hand/foot infection where the nail bed meets the skin at the side”?
Paronychia
What causes the condition of Pediculosis?
Lice
What are the three locations of the condition of Pediculosis?
Pubic Area- Pubis
Body- Corporis
Head-Capitus
What is the most common population to have the condition of Pemphigus Vulgaris?
Males of Jewish Decent
What is condition that is potentially life threatening condition of bulla (blisters) on the skin”?
Pemphigus Vulgaris
Causes dehydration
What condition has an oval/round lesion called a “Herald Patch”?
Pityriasis Rosea
What is the cause of the condition of Pityriasis Rosea?
Virus
What condition has silver scales on the extensor surface of the knees and elbows?
Psoriasis
What is a transmittable infection caused by mites?
Scabies
What are two characteristics signs of Scabies?
Grouped vesicles
Superficial linea furrows in the groin (Burrow under the skin)
What condition is like dandruff and similar to “Cradle Cap” in newborns?
Seborheic Dermatitis
What causes the condition of Urticaria?
Hive called a Wheal due to an Allergy (Penicillin or Food)
What is the name of the auto immune condition that has an absence of melanocytes (Depigmentation) after development?
Vitiligo
Where is the condition of Vitiligo most commonly seen?
Hands
Feet
Face
What condition has a complete depigmentation (Lack of Melanin) of the entire body observed from birth?
Albinism
Where are two symptoms of Albinism?
Pink Iris
Poor Visual Acuity
What is the organism that causes Yeast Infections?
Candia Albicans
What is the most common skin cancer?
Basal Cell
What Is the Least Invasive Skin Cancer?
Basal Cell
What are four characteristics of Basal Cell
Waxy
Indurated
Rat Bite Appearance (Small area)
Doesn’t Heal
What is the name of the cancer that is a malignant tumor of epithelial cells?
Squamous Cell
What areas usually get Squamous Cell Cancer?
Sun exposed area
What are three terms to describe Squamous Cell?
Irregular
Flaky
Rough area
What is the least common type of skin cancer?
Melanoma
What is the most invasive type of skin cancer?
Melanoma
What skin cancer will be multicolored and be mole like that follows the “ABC’s” of cancer?
Melanoma
What is the term for “Premalignant condition of the skin caused by exposure to the sun”?
Actinic Keratosis
Who is a person who “acts out conflict with out remorse or guilt and struggles to follow rules”?
Psycho/Sociopath
What category is a Psycho/Sociopath fall under?
Antisocial
What personality disorder is described as “thoughts or behaviors that are automatic responses to anxiety or stress”?
Compulsive
What personality disorder is “Attention seeking, aggressive, seductive person who is unable to be deeply involved emotionally”?
Hysterical
What is another term for Hysterical in the Personality Disorders?
Histrionic
What is the definition of Narcissism?
Attention seeking
No one else is important (Self Centered)
Strong Admiration for self
Exhibitionist
What Personality Disorder has the following:
Preoccupied with delusions
Sensitive
Defensive
Suspicion leading to aggression
Unfounded belief that others want to cause them harm
Paranoid
What Personality disorder is describes as “Taking aggressive actions in and indirect manner, argumentative”?
Passive Aggressive
What Personality Disorder has the following: Ungluing of "reason" or emotion Introverted Withdrawn Emotional cold Distant Avoids social interaction Delusions Hallucinations
Schizoid
What Defense Mechanism is described as “Refusal to perceive unpleasant realities”?
Denial
What population most often uses the defense mechanism of denial?
Alcoholics
What Defense Mechanism is “Act of assigning a feeling or belief to another person, group or outside world”?
Projection
What is an example of Projection (Defense Mechanism)?
Cheating Spouse
What Defense Mechanism is described as “Attributing one’s own unacceptable desires and impulses to someone else”?
Rationalization
What Defense Mechanism is described as “Depressed, unacceptable behavior expressed in an exaggerated form or an opposite behavior”?
Reaction Formation
In what population is the Defense Mechanism of Reaction Formation often seen?
Former cigarette smoker
What Defense Mechanism is “a response to stress in which an individual reverts to a less developmentally mature stage”?
Regression
What Defense Mechanism is “unconscious exclusion of painful impulses, desires, or fears from the conscious mind”?
Repression
What is the definition of Transference (Defense Mechanism)?
Redirecting ones feelings (aggression or affection) from one person to another
What Defense Mechanism is “Channeling unacceptable impulses or energy into socially acceptable activates”?
Sublimation
What population uses the defense mechanism of Sublimation?
Alcoholics Anonymous
What are the seven symptoms of an Anxiety Disorder?
Heart Palpitations Increased Heart Rate Shortness of Breathe Sweating Tingling Dizziness Feeling of Impending Doom
What kind of disorder last 15-30 minutes and nothing brings it on?
Panic Disorder
What is a reoccurring intrusive thought or image that seems senseless or unpleasant?
Obsession
What is a Compulsion?
Activity, designed to reduce anxiety that a person feels compelled to repeat with no conscious desire to do so
What is the term for someone who “inflexible, uncontrollably entangled with details and highly repetitive actions”?
Perfectionist
What is Obsession and what is a Compulsion?
Obsession: Thought
Compulsion: Action
When does Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder usually start?
Early adolescence (maybe in childhood)
What is the term for an irrational or unrealistic fear?
Phobia
What is the word for fear of public spaces?
Agoraphobia
What is the definition for Acrophobia?
Fear of Heights
If someone has Astrophobia what do they fear?
Thunder and Lightning
What is the term if someone has a fear of Stars and Celestial space?
Astraphobia
What is the following definition “Psychological conflict that takes on a physical form and no organic evidence exists to explain the symptoms”?
Somatoform Disorder
What condition has multiple chronic complaints but no physically illness is present?
Somatization Disorder
What are three other things to know about a patient with Somatization Disorder?
More concerned with discomfort than disease
Seeks treatment & changes life as a result of symptoms
Symptoms are vague and exaggerated
What is the name of the condition that is an exaggerated pre-occupation with bodily function and fear that one is suffering from a serious disease?
Hypochondriasis
All over Google
What is another word for the Somatoform Disorder of Conversion Hysteria?
Conversion Reaction
What is Conversion Hysteria?
Loss or change of a physical function caused by a psychological conflict
When is Conversation Hysteria often seen?
After trauma
What are the five most common disabilities seen with Conversion Hysteria?
Paralysis Blindness Mutism Deafness Seizures
What are two conditions that fall into the category of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Anorexia
Bulimia
What is the definition of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
Pervasive belief that a body part is misshapen or malformed
What two things may a patient with Body Dysmorphic Disorder avoid?
Mirrors
Social Contact
What condition has the following definition “Severe fluctuation of mood or personality”?
Affective Disorder
What condition is associated with delirium tremens and folate deficiency?
Alcoholism
What are five things a patient with Anorexia Nervosa may have/do?
Severe restriction of calories Fear of being fat/ body image distortion Amenorrhea Excessive exercise Unreasonable fear of gaining weight
What is another term for Bipolar Affective Disorder?
Manic Depressive
What will the behavior a patient with Bipolar Affective Disorder alternate between?
Manic (Highs)
Melancholia (Lows)
When does the condition of Manic Depressive first occur?
Between childhood and the age of 50
What is the average length of both a manic and depressive phase is the condition of Bipolar Affective Disorder?
Manic: Three months
Depressive: Six-Nine Months
What condition will have a preoccupation with food, binge eat and then purge and a body image distortion?
Bulimia Nervosa
What is the name of the condition that is associated with muscle inhibition?
Catatonia
What is a Transvestite?
Cross Dresser
What kind of therapy is associating an action with unpleasant consequences?
Aversion Therapy
What is the name of the test to measure the severity of Depression?
Beck Test/ Beck Depression Questionnaire
21 multiple choice test, of self-report inventory
What is Classical Conditioning?
Two events that occur close together in time and become fused in a person’s mind (i.e. Pavlov’s Dog)
What condition has a definition of “Satisfying reinforcement strengthens a behavior”?
Operant Conditioning
What is an example of Operant Conditioning?
Time Out
What is the definition of Negative Reinforcement?
Taking away the adverse stimulus in response to a person’s action increases that action
What is an example of Negative Reinforcement?
Purchasing a candy bar for a screaming child at the check out
What is the name of the Therapy that is defined as “Form of desensitization for the treatment of phobias and related disorders in which a patient is repeatedly exposed to emotionally distressing stimuli of high intensity”?
Flooding Therapy
What is the name of the test that is used to screen for Dementia, 30 point questionnaire to screen for cognitive impairment?
Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE)
AKA
Folstein Test
What is the name of the Therapy defined as “Behavior modification technique in which one is taught to imitate the desired behavior of another”?
Modeling
Saying please and Thank you
What is the name of the test that is a psychological test using inkblot images?
Rorschach Test
What is one method of testing the IQ of a person?
Wechsler Scale
What test initiated the modern field of intelligence testing?
Stanford Binet Test
What person used “collective unconscious of man” and “Psychoanalysis”?
Jung
What person goes with Operant Conditioning?
Skinner
Who is linked to Classical Conditioning?
Pavlov
Who came up with the Hierarchy of human needs?
Maslow
What are the Hierarchy of Human Needs (5 things)?
Physiology Safety Love Self Esteem/Respect Self Actualization
Who is linked to Development of free association and dream analysis as a route to the unconscious mind?
Freud
Who developed the Psychosexual stage of development; oral to anal to phallic or genital?
Freud
What are the three levels of one’s self and what are they paired with?
Id: Basic Instinct
Ego: Reality and Control
Superego: Guilt and Consciousness
What is the category that Tylenol is in?
Acetaminophen
What can long use of Acetaminophens lead to?
Liver Damage (Hepatotoxic)
What is an absorbent that treats poisoning and overdoses?
Activated Charcoal
What is the name of the Antiviral for Herpes?
Acyclovir
What is used to treat chronic gout?
Allopurinol
What drug has the odor of garlic?
Arsenic
What is the term for sleeping pills?
Barbiturates
What can Barbiturates produce?
Respiratory Depression
What is the name of Muscle Relaxant?
Benzodiazepines
What two conditions are Beta Blockers used for?
Hypertension
Arrhythmias
What are two signs/symptoms of a person with Carbon Monoxide poisoning?
Blue Mucous Membrane
Cherry Red Lips
What use to be found often in Fire Extinguishers?
Carbon Tetrachloride
What two organs is Chloroform toxic to?
Kidney
Liver
What is the name of the drug to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders?
Chlorpromazine
What type/class does the drug Cholinesterase Inhibitor fall into?
Organophosphate
What is the classification of Cocaine?
Narcotic
What drug can be used as a local anesthetic?
Lidocaine
What drug is used to treat acute symptomatic gout?
Colchicine
Where can Cyanide be found?
Peach Pits
Bitter Almonds
What is the best substance to remove lead from blood chelation therapy?
Ethylene Diaminete Traacetic Acid (EDTA)
What is the name of a substance that will make a person vomit?
Emetic
What is used to treat Anaphylactic Shock?
Epinephrine (Epi Pen)
How is the contents of the stomach removed?
Gastric Lavage
What drug can be used to treat psychotic disorders?
Haldol
What classification of drug includes mushroom and nutmeg?
Hallucinogenic Drugs
What are two things that happen with Lead Poisoning?
Produces Basophilic Stippling of Red Blood Cells (RBC)
Affects the Central Nervous System (CNS); Radial Nerve Palsy
What is the name of the drug that is used to treat Bi-Polar disorder and causes tremors?
Lithium
What drug is used in people who have Coronary Artery Disease?
Nitroglycerine
What drug is used to treat Depression?
Prozac
What drug is classified as an Antipsychotic?
Reserpine
What is the clinical name given to Aspirin?
Salicylates
Who do you not give Aspirin to?
Children with a viral infection
What is the active ingredient in the drug Seconal?
Secobarbital
What is the name of the drug that will induce vomiting?
Syrup of Ipecac
What will predispose elderly people to fall?
Tranquilizers
What classification of drug is Tricyclic?
Anti-Depressant
What drug can cause hypertension?
Tyramine
What are two things the drug Tyramine can be found in?
Wine
Cheese
What is the name of the drug that is an anticoagulant?
Warfarin/Coumadin
What is the name of the condition that is “Chronic respiratory disease caused by inhalation of various minerals or metallic particles”?
Pneumoconiosis
What condition can Asbestosis exposure lead to?
Mesothelioma
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Iron Dust?
Siderosis
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Coal Dust? (Black Lung)
Anthracosis
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Cotton Dust?
Byssinosis
Who is often effected with the condition of Byssinosis?
Textile Workers
What is the name of the condition that is caused by Sand/Stone Dust or glass?
Silicosis
What two population will have the condition of Silicosis?
Pottery Workers
Rock Corey Workers
What hormone is measured in pregnant women?
Alpha Fetoprotein
What does Alpha Fetoprotein test help determine?
Developmental Abnormalities
In what two conditions will there be a change is Alpha Fetoprotein?
Open neural tube defects- Increased levels
Down’s Syndrome- Deceased levels
What is the term for absence of Menses?
Amenorrhea
When are two times Amenorrhea is commonly seen?
Post Menopause
Anorexia
What are three things that are evaluated when doing Amniocentesis?
Heath of the fetus
Chromosomes
Lung maturity
What two minerals is breast milk deficient in?
Vitamin D
Iron
What is the term for the first breast milk?
Colostrum
1-3 days after delivery
High in Antibodies
When is Dilation of the Cervix seen?
1st stage of labor
What is the term for painful menses?
Dysmenorrhea
What are two possible causes of Dysmenorrhea?
Increased prostaglandin (Hormonal) Pathological (Endometriosis, Fibroids)
What is the definition of Dystocia?
Abnormal, Painful, Prolonged Labor
What is the term for Thinning of the Cervix?
Effacement
How is the term Engagement defined (during pregnancy)?
Decent of the fetal skull to the levels of the ischial spines
What is the term if a women has “Excessive nausea and vomiting during pregnancy”?
Hyperemesis Gravidarum
What is the most common surgical procedure for the diagnosis and treatment of Endometriosis?
Laparoscopy
What term is defined as “Baby drops into the pelvis two weeks before delivery and produces lower abdominal pain”?
Lightening
What is Linea Nigra?
A dark streak down the midline of the abdomen seen during pregnancy
What is the term for “Vaginal discharge after delivery and throughout the puerperium”?
Lochia
What are the colors of Lochia?
1st- Red
2nd- Yellow
3rd- White
What is the term for the first menstrual cycle?
Menarche
What is it called if there is pain in the abdomen at ovulation?
Mittelschmerz
What is the definition of Multiparous?
More than one delivery to a Viable infant
What is the term given to a women if she has never given birth to a viable infant?
Nulliparous
What is the term for “First pregnancy with a viable infant”?
Primpara
What is the most common complication of child birth?
Post Partum Infection
What is Post Partum Infection most commonly seen?
C-Section deliveries
What is the term defined as “Period of time after the delivery of the placenta to the complete involution of the organs”?
Puerperium
What is the name of an infection that happens during Puerperium?
Puerperal Sepsis
What is the term for “First movement of fetal life felt by the mother”?
Quickening
How is the term “Stations” defined (Pregnancy)?
Fetal position (cm) in relation to the spines of the Ischium
What are two signs of Pregnancy?
Presence of fetal heartbeat (Best)
Menses is three weeks late
What is Chadwick’s Sign?
Bluish discoloration of the vagina
What is it called when “the tip of the cervix softens”?
Goodell’s Sign
What is Hegar’s Sign?
Softening of the isthmus of the uterus
How is Piskacek’s Sign defined?
Enlargement of the uterus near the uterine tube over the site of implantation
What is the most common reason for a post partum hemorrhage?
Atonic Uterus
What is the name associated with “Early uterine contractions (Oxytocin) without cervical changes”?
Braxton Hick’s Contractions
What movement will cause a decrease in Braxton Hick’s Contractions?
Sitting Down
What is the most common malignancy of the female genital tract?
Cervix
What is the term that has “brown hyperpigmentation of the face/mask of pregnancy”?
Chloasma
AKA
Melasma
What is the term for a “Malignancy of the placenta due to abnormal epithelium” (No Pregnancy)?
Choriocarcinoma
What is the condition of “Herniation of the urinary bladder into the vagina’ (Anterior Wall)?
Cystocele
What is the definition of Eclampsia?
Toxemia of Pregnancy caused by Hypertension, leading to convulsions
Where is the most common place for an Ectopic Pregnancy at?
Fallopian Tube
What are the three symptoms of an Ectopic Pregnancy?
Light Vaginal Bleeding
Lower abdominal pain
Cramping on one side of the pelvis
What is Endometriosis?
Abnormal endometrial tissue outside of the uterus
What kind of pain is seen in Endometriosis?
Abdominal/Back Pain
Painful Sex
What can Endometriosis cause?
Infertility
What is the most common type of post partum infection?
Staph or Strep
What is it called if there is inflammation of the endometrium?
Endometritis
What condition is described as “Palpable nodules in the breast after ovulation but regress after menses”?
Fibrocystic Breast Disease
What population have a higher likelihood to have Fibrocystic Breast Disease?
Overweight Diabetic Women
What is it called if there is a “Begin mass of trophoblastic tissue which develops at the placenta”?
Hydatidifrom Mole
If a Hydatidifrom Mole become malignant what is it called?
Choriocarcinoma
What hormone will be extremely elevated if a Hydatidifrom Mole is present?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
What condition has “Numerous cyst along the outer edge of the ovary caused by a hormonal imbalance”?
Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)
What are three possible indications that a women has Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCSO)?
High testosterone levels
Obese
Not able to get pregnant
What condition has the following signs; Toxemia of pregnancy with Hypertension, Edema, Proteinuria (HEP)?
Pre-Eclampsia
What is the name of the condition that has “Herniation of the rectum into the vagina”, “Collapsed Pouch”, along the Posterior wall of the vagina?
Rectocele
What happen in the First (1st) stage of Pregnancy?
Dilation
From first meaningful contraction to full dilation (10 cm) of the cervix
What is the longest stage of Pregnancy?
First Stage
What is a term for the “Release of the mucous plug during the first stage of labor”?
Bloody Show
What happens in the Second (2nd) stage of Pregnancy?
Expulsion
From full dilation of the cervix to the delivery of the baby
In what stage of pregnancy does the women have hot/cold flashes and the urge to push?
Second Stage
In what stage of pregnancy is the placenta delivered?
Third Stage
What stage of pregnancy is most dangerous to the mother?
Third Stage
Mother could bleed out, time between when the baby is delivered and the placenta comes out
What happens in the Fourth stage of Pregnancy?
Stabilization
Time from delivery to placenta to several hours when the tone of the uterus is established and the contractions of the uterus expel any remaining contents
What is the term for a “Low lying placenta with partial obstruction of the internal os”?
Placenta Previa
What is the definition of Placenta Abruptio?
Normally Placed
Detaches from the site
Spontaneous abortion/Premature Separation
What is the name of the condition if the “Placenta does not separate after delivery”?
Placenta Accreta
What is another term for Placenta Accreta?
Atonic Placenta
What is required if a women has a Placenta Accreta?
Hysterectomy
What is it called when the “Umbilical cord is attached to the margin of the placenta”?
Battledore Placenta
Rarely occurs, no affect to the function of the placenta
Where is a Pap Smear taken from?
Tip of the cervix and surround structures
What is considered a “Normal” Pap Smear?
Classification I
What does a Classification II Pap Smear indicate?
Atypical or benign (Possible infection/inflammation/STD)
What Classification of Pap Smear is “Pre cancerous/Dysplasia”?
Classification III
What is a Classification IV Pap Smear indicate?
In Situ/ Non-invasive carcinoma
What Classification of Pap Smear indicated “Malignancy/Invasive”?
Classification V
When should an infant get it first teeth?
6-8 months
At what age can you introduce the “first food” to a child?
6 months
When should a baby start to crawl?
9 months
At what age should a baby be able to “Walk with Assistance”?
10-14 months
A child should be able to “Walk unassisted” by what age?
12-18 months
What should a child be able to do by 18 months?
Talk 10-15 words
When does the Umbilical Cord usually fall off?
7-10 days
When does the Posterior Fontanelle close?
3 months
When does the Anterior Fontanelle close?
2 years (This is the larger of the two fontanelles)
What does a Depressed Fontanelle indicated?
Dehydration
What does and Bulging Fontanelle indicate?
Intracranial Pressure, possible excessive crying
What two time is the APGAR score taken?
Immediately after birth and 5 minuets after birth
What are the five components of the APGAR Score?
Heart Rate (Pulse) Respiration Rate Color (Appearance) Muscle Tone (Grimace) Reflex Activity
What is NOT included in the APGAR Score?
Birth Weight
What is the term for “fuzzy hair on the baby’s skin”?
Lanugo
What is Meconium?
First discharge for the intestines of a newborn
Green Paste, dead Red Blood Cells (RBC)
What is the following description “Bluish, ill defined areas of the skin in the buttock/scrotal region”?
Mongolian Spots
What are the two indications that a child is born premature?
Born between 26-37 weeks gestation
Weighs less than 2500 grams
What is the term for “White cheesy substance on the baby’s skin at birth”?
Vernix Caseosa
What syndrome is a mild form of Autism?
Asperger’s Syndrome
What three foods can cause Botulism in newborns?
Honey
Corn Syrup
Molasses
What is the condition of Caput Succedeum?
Baby’s head has an unusual shape due to swelling of the scalp, considered benign
What condition in a child is similar to that of Seborrheic Dermatitis in an adult?
Cradle Cap
What is the term for Bedwetting?
Enuresis
How is Erythroblastosis Fetalis caused?
Hemolytic Anemia in the fetus/neonate
Trans-placental transmission of maternal antibodies to fetal Red Blood Cells (RBC)
What is usually a result from an incompatibility between maternal and fetal blood groups, often Rh0 (D) antigens?
Erythroblastosis Fetalis
What color will the child be that has Erythroblastosis Fetalis be?
Jaundice, place under a blue light
What condition in a child will cause the following findings:
Delayed Growth
Microcephaly
Mental Retardation
Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
What is the name of the condition if a child has a protein malnutrition?
Kwashiorkor
What is the classic sign of Kwashiorkor?
Ascites, distended abdomen
What is the most common cancer of children and Down’s Syndrome individuals?
Leukemia
What is the term for General Malnutrition?
Marasmus
What is the term described as “Prickly Heat”?
Miliaria from sweat glands
What can lead to fetal suffocation?
Prolapsed Umbilical Cord
What vitamin prevents hemorrhaging in newborns?
Vitamin K
What condition can lead to mental retardation and seizures in children?
Phenylketonuria (PKU)
What enzyme is nonfunctional in the genetic disorder of Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Phenylalanine
What are four communicable diseases associated with a virus?
Measles (Rubella and Rubeola)
Chicken Pox
Mumps
Croup
What is another name for Rubella? (Measles)
German Measles
How long does German Measles last?
3 days
Last a short time
What two symptoms are seen with Rubella?
Maculopapular Rash
Mild Fever
When is German Measles the most dangerous?
1st trimester of fetal life, may lead to birth defects
What type of Measles has a “Prodromal stage”?
Rubeola
What are two symptoms of Rubeola? (Measles)
Runny Nose
Koplic Spots, on buccal mucosa
How long does Rubeola last?
2 weeks
What two things will Rubeola be present with?
Maculopapular Rash
High Fever
What is the most common serious complication of Rubeola?
Bronchopneumonia
What is the lesion type of Chicken Pox?
Vesicular Rash
What is the name of the disease that is “Mild in children and adult and located in the parotid gland”?
Mumps
What condition can be produced after an person has Mumps?
Orchitis (Inflammation of the testicles)
What condition is seen in children and is characterized by a “resonant barking cough (Seal Like)?
Croup
In the condition of Croup what may have a membrane?
Laryngeal spasm
What are four communicable diseases associated with Bacteria?
Pertussis (Whooping Cough)
Diphtheria
Scarlet Fever
Roseola Infantum
What is another name for Pertussis?
Whooping Cough
What is the causative organism of Pertussis?
Bordetella Pertussis
What age group is Pertussis most dangerous to?
Infants under the age of one
What causes death in patients with Whooping Cough?
Bronchopneumonia (Death by Anoxia)
What is the organism that causes Diphtheria?
Corybacterium Diphtheria
How does Diphtheria present?
Grey pseudo membrane o the throat
What test is done on a patient with Diphtheria?
Schick Test
What causes Scarlet Fever?
Group A Strep Pyogenes
What are two findings in the condition of Scarlet Fever?
Strawberry Tongue
Peeling (Desquamation) of the superficial layer
What test will be positive in a Patient with Scarlet Fever?
ASO Titer
At what age will you see the condition of Roseola Infantum?
Less than 2 years of age
In the condition of Roseola Infantum what is the pattern of the rash?
Starts on the trunk and works out to the extremities
When will the rash appear in the condition of Roseola Infantum?
After the fever breaks
How is the Rooting Reflex stimulated?
Stroke the corner of the mouth; the infant’s mouth will open and turn to the side that was touched
What is the most primitive reflex originating from the brain stem?
Rooting Reflex
What reflex is elicited by placing a finger or nipple in the mouth of a newborn?
Sucking Reflex
What does the Sucking Reflex stimulate?
Release of Oxytocin
What is the Tonic Neck Reflex?
Doctor rotates the head of a supine child and the ipsilateral arm and leg extend while the contralateral arm and leg flex
What is a positive Moro(Startle) Reflex?
Arms and legs flare out to the sides in response to a loud sound and then are brought back into the body
What reflex has Sensory Integrations?
Moro (Startle) Reflex
What is the name of the reflex that an “Infant should attempt to raise head and arch the back when placed in a prone position”?
Landau Reflex
What is a positive Perez Reflex?
While running a finger down the spine of a prone infant the whole body will extend
What is the name of the reflex described:
“While running a finger down the ipsilateral paraspinal muscles the baby will contract to that side”?
Gallant Reflex
What is the most common geriatric neuromuscular complaint?
Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)
What is the name of the condition that is normal in the older population and is described as “a greyish opaque ring around the cornea”?
Arcus Senilis
What is the name of the condition seen in the geriatric population that has loss of elasticity of the lens OR hardening of the lens (cannot focus on up close objects)?
Presbyopia
What is the definition of the condition Presbycussis?
Inability to hear high frequencies
What is the most common Endocrine Malfunction in the elderly?
Diabetes Mellitus
What is the most common anemia is everyone?
Iron Deficient Anemia
What is the name of bed sore that requires protein for healing?
Decubitus Ulcer
What is the area most often seen with a Decubitus Ulcer?
Over the Sacrum
What is the most common fractured bone in the elderly?
Hip Fracture
What is the most common visual problem in the elderly leading to blindness?
Macular Degeneration
What is the term used if there is discriminatory treatment towards the elderly?
Ageism
What is the most common type of dementia among older people?
Alzheimer’s Disease
What are three things that are impaired in a patient that has Alzheimer’s Disease?
Thought
Memory
Language
What is the only diagnosis for Alzheimer’s Disease?
Autopsy
How is the condition of Glaucoma tested?
Tonometer
What condition has an increase in intraocular pressure?
Glaucoma
What test is best used to measure the following:
Blood Volume
Oxygen uptake transport
Metabolism
Positron Emission Test (PET)
What syndrome is seen in alcoholics with a B1 (Thiamin) deficiency?
Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
What is the term for an “abnormal passage between two organs”
OR
“an organ and the exterior of the body”?
Fistula
What is the term for “small tear in the mucosa that lines the anus”?
Fissure
What is the definition of an Abscess?
Collection of pus that accumulated in a tissue
What is the term linked to the following definition:
“Transfer of a patient to another doctor without the patient’s consent”?
Abandonment
What is the definition of Assault?
Threat of violence to another person
What is it called if you adjust without consent?
Battery
What is the following definition “A dispute that is resolved by an unbiased third party and has no appeal process”?
Binding Arbitration
In what court system are malpractices cases against a chiropractor tried?
Civil Court
What are the five components that make up a contract?
Acceptance Consideration Two or more competent parties Legal Object Consent
What term is associated with the following definition: “Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harm’s a persons reputation”?
Defamation of Character
What three things must and employer pay for their employees?
Worker’s Compensation
FICA (Federal Insurance)
Social Security
What is Expressed Consent?
Patient has the procedure explained to them, understands and agrees to it
What is the Good Samaritan Law?
Good faith rendering of care at an emergency, isn’t liable for civil damages
What is the following definition: “Patient is unable to communicate their consent, but life saving interventions are needed”?
Implied Consent
What is Informed Consent?
Providing the patient with feasible alternatives and informing them of the dangers of treatment
May be verbal
What term is associated with the following definition: “False statement submitted in Writing that harms another”?
Libel
What is the following definition: “A professional negligence by acts or omission by a health care provide in which care provided Deviate from the accepted standards of practice in the medical community and cause injury or death the patient”
Malpractice
What is Negligence?
Failure to conform to the standard of care expected and imposed by law
What is the following definition: “Where the burden of proof lies in a court of law”?
Plaintiff
What is the term for “Employer is responsible for the actions of employees”?
Respondent Superior
What is “A false Verbal statement of another person”?
Slander
What is the following definition: “Formal diagnostic and treatment process a doctor will follow for a patient with a certain set of symptoms or a specific illness.
The standard will follow guidelines and protocols that Experts would agree with as most appropriate, so called “Best Practice”?
Standards of Care
What is “The Length of time you have to sue for an injury”?
Statutes of Limitation (2 years)
What is the following definition: “Standard of care is the basis on which negligence and fault and determined in medical malpractice lawsuits.
It refers to the level of care, skill and knowledge that is expected of all physicians in a particular field, in and particular region, acting in similar circumstances”?
Substandard Care
What is Third Party Consent?
Patient is mentally incapable of understanding the procedure and/or the ramification of consent or refused, so consent is given or withheld on their behalf by a legal designate
What is the following definition: “Body of law which allows an injured person to obtain compensation from the person who caused the injury”?
Tort
What is Vicarious Liability?
Responsibility is imposed upon one person for failure of another in the case of special relationships (parent/child or employer/employee)
What is the Pulse Rate for an Adult (12 years and older)?
60-100 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for an Adult (12 years and older)?
Systolic: 90-140 mm Hg
Diastolic: 60-90 mm Hg
What is the Respiration for an Adult (12 years and older)?
12-20 breaths per minute
What is the Pulse Rate for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
80-100 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
Systolic: 80-100 mm Hg
What is the Respirations for a Child (Age 1 to 12 years old)?
15-30 breaths per minute
What is the Pulse Rate for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
100-140 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
Systolic: 70-95 mm Hg
What is the Respirations for an Infant (Age 1 to 12 months old)?
25-50 breaths per minute
What is the Pulse Rate for a Newborn?
120-160 Beats per minute
What is the Blood Pressure for a Newborn?
Systolic: Greater than 60 mm Hg
What is the Respirations for a Newborn?
40-60 breaths per minute
What are the three steps for Conscious Choking in an Adult or Child?
- Encourage Coughing
- If they cannot cough, 5 blows between the shoulder blades
- Give 5 Abdominal Thrust
What are the four steps for Conscious Choking in an Infant?
- Place infant face down along the forearm
- Give 5 back blows
- Turn infant face up
- Give 4 chest thrust (Below the nipple line, compress 5 times about 1.5 inches)
What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Adult or Child?
- Rise and tilt the head to prepare for ventilations
2. 30 compressions (About two inches in depth) Compress at a rate of 100 compressions per minute
What are the two steps for Unconscious Choking in an Infant?
- Fix Head
2. 30 Compressions (about 1.5 inches in depth)
What are the three things to know about the Finger Sweep Technique?
Used to Clear and Airway Obstruction
ONLY perform on an unconscious patient
ONLY perform when you can see foreign object in patient’s mouth
What must you do before you start any rescue efforts on a patient (i.e. CPR)?
Check for responsiveness
How do you check the circulation of a patient?
Place to fingers on the carotid artery and apply slight pressure for a few seconds
If no pulse is present what is your next step?
Perform chest compressions
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Adult?
12 (1 Ventilation about every 5 seconds)
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Child?
About 20
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of an Infant?
About 20
What is the Artificial Ventilation Rates of a Newborn?
30-60 (1 Ventilation about every 1-2 seconds)
How is CPR performed on an Adult:
Hand Position Compression Depth Breaths Cycles; One Rescuer Cycles; Two Rescuers Rate
Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)
Compression Depth: At least 2 inches
Breaths: Until chest clearly rises (1 second/ventilation)
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
Cycles; Two Rescuers:30:2
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
How is CPR performed on a Child:
Hand Position Compression Depth Breaths Cycles; One Rescuer Cycles; Two Rescuers Rate
Hand Position: Two hand on the center of the chest (Above the Sternum)
Compression Depth: At least 2 inches
Breaths: 1 second per ventilation
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
How is CPR performed on an Infant:
Hand Position Compression Depth Breaths Cycles; One Rescuer Cycles; Two Rescuers Rate
Hand Position: Two or three fingers on the center of the chest (Just below the nipple line)
Compression Depth: About 1.5 inches
Breaths: 1 second per Second
Cycles; One Rescuer: 30:2
Cycles; Two Rescuers:15:2
Rate: 100 compressions per minute
When are three times you stop CPR?
Another responder takes over
You are too exhausted to continue
The scene becomes unsafe
What are two risk factors of performing CPR?
Fractured Ribs
Punctured Lung
If someone Ingested a poison what may you have them take and why?
Take: Emetic
Why: Prevent moving to Small intestine; where most absorption takes place
In what four conditions should you not induce vomiting in a patient?
Unconscious
Having a Seizure
Last Trimester of Pregnancy
Ingested corrosive substance or Gasoline
What do all patients that inhaled a poison need?
Oxygen As soon as possible
What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Plant?
Rinse with water for at least 20 minuets
What is the care for Absorbing Poison from a Dry Chemical?
Brush it off with a gloved hand
Flush for 20 minuets with tap water
What is the care if a poison has come in contact with a patient’s eyes?
Irrigate from the noes (Medial to Lateral) side
What type of shock is “result of the heart being unable to supply adequate blood circulation to the vital organs”?
Cardiogenic Shock
What are two causes of Cardiogenic Shock?
Trauma
Disease
What is the care for a Patient with Cardiogenic Shock?
Patient Supine with their feet higher than their head
What type of shock is caused by an abnormal decrease in blood volume?
Hypovolemic Shock
What are three causes of Hypovolemic Shock?
Limb chopped off
Spleen Rupture
Abdominal Aortic Aneurism (AAA)
What kind of shock is caused by trauma to the spinal cord or brain?
Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock
What type of Shock is “where the blood vessel walls abnormally constrict and dilate, preventing relay messages and cause blood to pool in the lowest part of the body”?
Neurogenic/Vasogenic Shock
What causes Obstructive Shock?
Obstruction of blood flow
What is an example of Obstructive Shock?
Pulmonary Embolism
What kind of shock is caused by failure of the lungs to transfer sufficient oxygen into the blood stream?
Respiratory Shock
When does Respiratory Shock occur?
Respiratory Distress (i.e. Asthma)
What is the definition of Septic Shock?
When an infection has spread to the point that bacteria are releasing toxins into the bloodstream
What position should you lay a person in that has been struck by Lightening?
Head slightly lower than the trunk, with legs elevated and supported
What two locations should you find on a person that has been struck by lightening?
Enter and exit sights
How should you remove a visible foreign object (body) from the eye?
Never touch the eye
Pull the eyelid down and try and remove with sterile gauze pad
Flush the eye with irrigation
How should you care for a chemical exposure to the eye?
Irrigate the eye with clean water for 20 minuets
What should you do if there is an impaled object in the eye?
Cover Both eyes
Support the object
What is a “Battle Sign”?
Ecchymosis (Bleeding) around the Mastoid
What does a “Battle Sign” indicate?
Possible Basilar Skull Fracture
How are burns graded?
By the depth of the burn
What is the characteristic, layer and example of an 1st Degree Burn?
Characteristic: Redness
Layer: Epidermis
Example: Sunburn
What is the characteristic and layers of an 2nd Degree Burn?
Characteristic: Blister
Layer: Epidermis and Dermis, Not the base of the Dermis
How is a 3rd Degree Burn described?
Charring of the skin
What are six signs/symptoms of a Grade 1 Concussion?
No loss of Consciousness Confusion Memory Loss Headache Dizziness Nausea (May occur)
How long does a Grade 1 Concussion last?
15-30 Minuets (Approximately)
How long does a Grade 2 Concussion last?
30 minutes to the entire day
Same signs/symptoms of Grade 1, just stronger
What are three Signs/Symptoms of a Grade3 Concussion?
Loss of Consciousness
Intense Confusion
Memory Loss
How long does a Grade 3 Concussion last?
Seconds to Minutes
What is the most common condition in the general population that results from trauma and has a fast bleeding rate?
Epidural Hematoma
What does an Epidural Hematoma increase?
Intracranial Pressure
What is one cause of Epidural Hematoma?
Hypertension
What kind of headache will be seen in a patient that has an Epidural Hematoma?
Quick/Fast onset
When is the Glasgow Scale used?
Assess the level of consciousness for any medial or trauma patient
What are the three parameters used on the Glasgow Scale?
Eye Opening
Verbal Response
Motor Response
What condition is a “brief muscle cramp due to excess heat or exercise”?
Heat Cramps
What condition has an electrolyte deficiency?
Heat Cramps
What condition has the following care:
Move the patient out of the hot environment to a cooler area
Remove excess clothing
Cool the patient’s body by spraying with cool water, applying cool wet clothes to the body
Hydrate with electrolytes
Heat Exhaustion
What are two signs of Heat Shock?
Low Blood Pressure
Rapid, weak pulse
What are the nine signs of Heat Stroke?
Cessation of sweating High Body Temperature Rapid weak pulse Shallow breathing Low Blood Pressure Throbbing Headache Dizziness Nausea Vomiting
What is the care for a patient having Heat Stroke?
Immerse the patient in cold water up to their neck (Preferred Method)
Douse the patient with towels soaked in ice water over entire body
What condition would you perform the following care:
Remove any wet clothing and dry off patient
Passively warm the patient by wrapping all exposed body surfaces
Hypothermia
What are two things you NEVER do to a patient with Hypothermia?
Immerse the patient in warm water
Rub or massage the extremities
If a patient has frostbite how must you handle the area?
Very carefully
Should you attempt to rewarm the frostbitten area?
NO
How do your treat a more serious frostbite case?
Rewarm the body, not the effected area, by gently soaking it in water no warmer than 105 degrees F
What is it called when an Injury produces black and blue spots around the eyes?
Raccoon Sign
What condition is usually a result of a cerebral aneurysm?
Subarachnoid Hematoma
What condition is considered a form of a stroke?
Subarachnoid Hematoma
What condition is usually the result of a serious head injury and most commonly seen in athletes?
Subdural Hematoma
What kind of hematoma is among the most deadly?
Acute Subdural Hematoma
What is the major symptom of a Subdural Hemorrhage?
Slower Bleed (Than Epidural Hemorrhage, veins bleed slower) =Slower onset
What does the term Res Ipsa Loquitur mean?
“The thing speaks for itself”
What four things must a Malpractice Suit contain?
Duty
Dereliction (Poor result to do negligence)
Damage
Direct Causation
