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Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) > Neuromusculoskeletal (NMS) Diagnosis (Irene Gold) Part II and III > Flashcards

Neuromusculoskeletal (NMS) Diagnosis (Irene Gold) Part II and III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the clinically word for loss of smell?

A

Anosmia

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2
Q

What is the term for a distorted sense of smell?

A

Parosmia

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3
Q

How is the optic nerve tested for Visual acuity?

A

Snellen Eye Chart

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4
Q

What two cranial nerves are tested with the Direct Light Reflex?

A

CN II (2) and III (3)

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5
Q

What three things happen to the eyes during the Accommodation test?

A

Eyes Converge
Pupils Constrict
Lens Convex

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6
Q

What are the two muscles of the eye that have Parasympathetic control?

A 
Ciliary muscles (lens shape)
Constrictor Papillae
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7
Q

What is the clinically term for deviation of one or both eyes?

A

Strabismus

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8
Q

What is the cause for a patient to have ptosis; drooping of an eyelid?

A

Weakness or paralysis of the Levator Palpebrae

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9
Q

Jaw Jerk reflex test what Cranial nerve?

A

CNV (5), both sensory and motor

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10
Q

What two directions does the Superior oblique muscle move the eye?

A

Down and In

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11
Q

How is the sensory component of Cranial nerve V tested?

A

Touch with cotton wisp:
Forehead
Cheekbone
Chin

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12
Q

What two cranial nerves are tested with the Corneal Reflex?

A 
CN V (5) Afferent
CN VII (7) Efferent
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13
Q

What is a normal finding of the Corneal Reflex?

A

Both eyes blinking

Tearing of the eyes

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14
Q

What is the name of the test, when the mandible is lightly tapped with a reflex hammer?

A

Jaw jerk reflex

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15
Q

What is a positive finding of the Jaw Jerk reflex?

A

Jaw draws upwards

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16
Q

What two Cranial nerves are tested during the Oculocardiac reflex?

A 
CN V (5) Afferent
CN X (10) Efferent
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17
Q

What is the normal finding of the Oculocardiac reflex?

A

A decrease in heart rate when pressure is applied to the eye

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18
Q

What part of the tongue is motor and given general sensation by Cranial nerve V?

A

Anterior 2/3

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19
Q

What three things does the Anterior 2/3 of the tongue determine?

A

Hot
Cold
Pain

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20
Q

What three muscle of mastication help to close the jaw, and are innervated by cranial nerve V?

A

Temporalis
Internal Pterygoid
Masseter

(TIM)

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21
Q

What muscle innervated by cranial nerve V, opens the jaw?

A

External Pterygoid

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22
Q

What is another name for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Tic Douloureaux

Can lead to Cranial Nerve V Palsy

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23
Q

What condition is describe as:
“Extreme, sporadic, sudden burning or shock like pain that last anywhere from a few seconds to as long as two minutes per episode.”

Pain is lightening like, repetitive excruciating pain. Happening several times per day, one onside of the face/cheek.

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia

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24
Q

What cranial nerve is anterior 2/3 of the tongue for tastes such as Sweet, Sour, Salty?

A

CNVII (7) Facial

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25
Q

What cranial nerve indicates the bitter taste?

A

CN IX (9)

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26
Q

What condition is described as:
“Unilateral Facial Paralysis caused by trauma, virus or immune mediated response and is not permanent.

Pain is initially seen behind the ipsilateral ear, twitching, weakness/paralysis, drooping of the eyelid, corner of the mouth, dry eye and decreased taste sensation.”

A

Bell’s Palsy

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27
Q

What are two treatments for Bell’s Palsy?

A

Eye Patch

Artificial tears

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28
Q

Is Bell’s Palsy an Upper or Lower Motor Neuron Lesion?

What Cranial nerve is effected?

A 
LMNL 
CN VII (7) Facial
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29
Q

What are two findings that distinguish Bell’s Palsy from a Stroke?

A

Ipsilateral Motor loss of entire face

Forehead does not wrinkle

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30
Q

How are you able to tell a Stroke from Bell’s Palsy?

A

Contralateral motor loss below the eye

Able to wrinkle the forehead

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31
Q

What Cranial Nerve and type of Lesion is a Stroke?

A 
CN VII (7) Facial
UMNL
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32
Q

What reflex will be decreased in a person with a stroke?

A

Corneal Reflex

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33
Q

Of the two conditions; Bell’s Palsy and Stroke, which one will not have control of their saliva?

A

Stroke

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34
Q

What is the care plan for a patient with a stroke?

A

Co-Care with a Neurologist and adjust

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35
Q

What three exams can you perform to see if a patient has a Vestibular/Balance issue?

A

Mittelemeyer
Romberg’s
Barany Caloric Test

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36
Q

What three test can be done to see if a patient has a Cochlear/Hearing problem?

A

Weber/Rinne
Whisper
Auditory Acuity/Watch Test

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37
Q

What are two other names for Meniere’s Disease?

A

Central Vertigo

Endolymphatic Hydrops

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38
Q

What are three symptoms of Endolymphatic Hydrops?

A

Episodic rotational vertigo
Hearing Loss
Tinnitus (Ringing in the ears)

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39
Q

What two cranial nerves are tested in the Gag/Pharyngeal, Uvula, Carotid Reflexes?

A 
CN IX (9) Afferent ) 
CNX (10) Efferent
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40
Q

By massaging what artery in the neck can you make the heart rate drop?

A

Carotids

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41
Q

What muscle elevates the pharynx and larynx; also dilates the pharynx to allow for swallowing?

A

Stylopharyngeus

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42
Q

What cranial nerve is responsible for allowing us to speak (Phonation)?

A

CN X (10) Vagus

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43
Q

What muscles are sensory or Cranial Nerve X?

A

Epiglottis

Laryngeal muscles; swallowing (Palate, Pharynx)

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44
Q

What three reflex are motor of the Vagus (C.N. X)?

A

Gag
Carotid
Uvular

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45
Q

What side will the Palate and Uvula deviate if there is a lesion?

A

Opposite side

Towards the strong side

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46
Q

What two muscles are innervated by Cranial Nerve XI (Spinal Accessory Nerve)?

A

Trapezius

SCM

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47
Q

What is the name of the condition that is caused by a spasm (Lateral Flex to the same side and Rotate to the Opposite side) of the Sternocleidomastoid (SCM)?

A

Torticollis

Wry Neck

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48
Q

If there is a lesion of Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal) and the patient sticks out their tongue which side will it deviate to?

A

Deviates to the side of the lesion

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49
Q

When testing reflexes, what are two guidelines to follow?

A

Perform Bilaterally

Test the normal (unaffected) side first

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50
Q

What is Westphal’s Sign?

A

An absence of any of the Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR)

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51
Q

In what reflex is a Westphal’s sign most often seen?

A

Patellar Reflex (LMNL)

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52
Q

What is the name that produces more of a reflex by cortical distraction?

A

Jendrassik’s Maneuver AKA Reinforcement Test

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53
Q

What is the score on the Wexler Scale (DTR) for “Absent with Reinforcement”?

A

0+

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54
Q

When would a 1+ be seen on the Wexler Scale (DTR)?

A

Hypoactive with no reinforcement or Normal with reinforcement

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55
Q

What is a normal score on the Wexler Scale (DTR)?

A

2+

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56
Q

What type of lesion will you see a 3+,4+ and 5+ on the Wexler Scale (DTR)?

A

UMNL

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57
Q

What would indicate a 5+ on the Wexler Scale (DTR)?

A

Hyperactivity with sustained clonus

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58
Q

What is the score given on the Wexler Scale (DTR) for Hyperactivity with transient clonus?

A

4+

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59
Q

When is a 3+ score given on the Wexler Scale (DTR)?

A

Hyperactivity

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60
Q

What Nerve and Nerve Root are tested in the Jaw Jerk Reflex?

A

N-Trigeminal

NR- CN V (5) Both sensory and motor

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61
Q

In the Biceps Reflex what Nerve and Nerve Root are tested?

A

N-Musculoculocutaneous

NR- C5

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62
Q

When testing the Brachioradialis Reflex what Nerve and Nerve Root are tested?

A

Nerve- Radial

Nerve Root-C6

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63
Q

When testing the Triceps Reflex what Nerve and Nerve Root are tested?

A

Nerve- Radial

Nerve Root-C7

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64
Q

When testing the Patellar AKA Knee Jerk Reflex what Nerve and Nerve Root are tested?

A

Nerve-Femoral

Nerve Root-L4

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65
Q

When testing the Medial Hamstring Reflex what Nerve and Nerve Root are tested?

A

Nerve-Sciatic

Nerve Root-L5

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66
Q

When testing the Achilles AKA Ankle Jerk Reflex what Nerve and Nerve Root are tested?

A

Nerve-Tibial

Nerve Root-S1

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67
Q

What is the name of the superficial reflex that has the doctor stroke the inner thigh and the testicle raises ipsilateally?

A

Cremasteric Reflex (L1)

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68
Q

What are the Afferent and Efferent nerves when the Cremasteric and Geigel Reflexes is done?

A

Afferent- Femoral Nerve

Efferent- Genitofemoral Nerve

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69
Q

How is the Plantar Reflex performed?

A

Stoke up on the sole of the foot, from heal to toe

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70
Q

What is a positive finding of a Plantar Reflex?

A

Curing of the toes

Pulling away of the foot

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71
Q

What in the name of Afferent and Efferent nerve stimulated when the Plantar reflex is done?

A

Tibial for both

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72
Q

What is a normal finding for the Abdominal Reflex?

A

Umbilicus moves towards the side being stroked

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73
Q

What are the Afferent and Efferent nerves being stimulated in the Abdominal and Beevor’s Reflexes?

A

Afferent AND Efferent:

Upper T7-T9 and Lower T10-T12

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74
Q

How is the Beevor’s Reflex test performed:

A

Patient does a partial sit-up and the doctor observes the umbilicus

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75
Q

What is a normal finding for the Beevor’s Reflex?

A

Umbilicus will stay midline

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76
Q

What is another name for an Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL)?

A

Myelopathy

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77
Q

Which type of Lesion includes the Brain and Spinal cord, but not the Anterior Horn Cells?

A

UMNL

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78
Q

What area must be effected for a Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL) to be present?

A

Anterior Horn Cells out to the Myoneural junction

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79
Q

What type of paralysis is seen in an Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL)?

A

Spastic

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80
Q

What type of Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR) are seen in a patient with an Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL)?

A

Hyperactive

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81
Q

Are Pathological Reflexes Absent or Present in an Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL)?

A

Present; Babinski

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82
Q

In what type of lesion will you see Clonus present?

A

UMNL

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83
Q

What are four characteristics of an Upper Motor Neuron Lesion that will be Absent?

A

Superficial Reflexes
Reaction of degeneration
Atrophy
Fasciculations

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84
Q

When is Flaccid paralysis seen?

A

LMNL

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85
Q

What kind of Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR) will be seen in a Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL)?

A

Hypoactive/Absent

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86
Q

In a Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL) what finding will you see in the following characteristics:
Pathological Reflexes
Clonus
Superficial Reflexes

A

Absent

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87
Q

What three characteristics of a Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL) will be Present?

A

Reaction of Degeneration
Atrophy
Fasciculations

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88
Q

What three Visceral Organ Reflexes will be absent in both Upper Motor (UMNL) and Lower Motor Neuron Lesions (LMNL)?

A

Ciliospinal
Oculocardiac
Carotid Sinus

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89
Q

How is the Ciliospinal Reflex performed?

A

Pinch the neck, noting the dilation of the eyes

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90
Q

What reflex is done by pressing on the eye and decreasing the heart rate by 10 beats per minute?

A

Oculocardiac

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91
Q

By pressing on the Carotid artery what two things will decrease/slow?

A

Slow the heart rate

Decease the pressure

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92
Q

What pathological reflex is performed by stroking the lateral aspect of the foot up to the great toe?

A

Babinski

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93
Q

What is a positive finding of the Babinski reflex?

A

Dorsiflexion of the great toe with splaying of the other toes

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94
Q

What four other pathological reflexes all have the small positive findings as the Babinski reflex?

A

Chaddock
Oppenheim
Gordon’s Calf
Schaefer

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95
Q

What pathological reflex is performed by stroking the lateral malleolus to the fifth toe?

A

Chaddock

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96
Q

How is Oppenheim’s pathological reflex performed?

A

Stroke down the Tibial crest to the ankle

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97
Q

What is the name of the pathological reflex that is being performed when the calf is squeezed below the knee?

A

Gordon’s Calf

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98
Q

How is Schaefer’s pathological reflex test done?

A

Squeeze the Achilles tendon

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99
Q

What pathological reflex is tested by tapping on the ball of the foot/tip of the toes?

A

Rossolimo

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100
Q

What is a positive response to Rossolimo’s reflex?

A

Plantar flexion of the great toe with curing of the other toes

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101
Q

How is Hoffman’s pathological reflex performed?

A

Doctor extends middle phalanx and flicks distal phalanx inferior (Two F’s in Hoffman’s= Forceful FIick)

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102
Q

What is a positive response to Hoffman’s reflex?

A

Flexion and adduction of the thumb and flexion of the fingers

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103
Q

What other pathological reflex has the same positive response as Hoffman’s?

A

Tromner’s

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104
Q

How is Tromner’s pathological reflex performed?

A

Doctor sharply taps the tips of the middle three fingers (T in Tromner’s= Tap)

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105
Q

What pathological reflex is being described:

“Doctor strokes the pisiform of the patient”?

A

Gordon’s Finger

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106
Q

What is a positive finding to the Gordon’s Finger reflex?

A

Flexion of the wrist and fingers or thumb and index finger

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107
Q

How is Chaddock’s Wrist pathological reflex performed?

A

Doctor strokes the distal ulnar side of the forearm near the wrist

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108
Q

What is a positive finding to the Chaddock’s Wrist reflex?

A

Flexion of the wrist with extension and fanning of the fingers

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109
Q

What is a Normal (5) muscle grade?

A

Complete range of motion against gravity with full resistance

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110
Q

What muscle grade is given if there is “Complete range of motion against gravity with some resistance”?

A

Good (4)

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111
Q

What is the definition of a Fair (3) muscle grade?

A

Complete range of motion against gravity

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112
Q

When is a muscle grade of Poor (2) given?

A

Complete range of motion with gravity eliminated

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113
Q

What muscle grade is given when there is “evidence of slight contractility with no joint movement”?

A

Trace (1)

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114
Q

What is the muscle grade given when there is “No evidence of contractility”?

A

Zero (0)

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115
Q

What are the two motor/body activity carried out by the C5 nerve root?

A

Arm Abduction

Forearm Flexion

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116
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the C5 nerve root?

A

Biceps Brachii (Deep Tendon Reflex for C5)

Middle Deltoid

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117
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of C5 nerve root?

A

Lateral arm

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118
Q

What disorder is seen in both the C5 and C6 nerve roots?

A

Erb’s Palsy (Waiter Tip)

C6= Wrist Drop

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119
Q

What are the motor/body activity carried out by the C6 nerve root?

A 
Wrist extension 
(C6= Motor Cycle Chicks)
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120
Q

What are the two motor/body activity carried out by the C7 nerve root?

A

Wrist Flexion

Finger Extension

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121
Q

What are the motor/body activity carried out by the C8 nerve root?

A

Finger flexion

C8 “Grap All 8

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122
Q

What are the two motor/body activity carried out by the T1 nerve root?

A

Finger Abduction

Finger Adduction

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123
Q

What are the motor/body activity carried out by the T5-T12 nerve roots?

A

Trunk Flexion

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124
Q

What are the motor/body activity carried out by the L1-L3 nerve roots?

A

Hip flexion

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125
Q

What are the three motor/body activity carried out by the L2-L4 nerve roots?

A

Hip flexion
Hip adduction
Knee extension

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126
Q

What are the two motor/body activity carried out by the L4 nerve root?

A

Inversion

Dorsiflexion

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127
Q

What are the three motor/body activity carried out by the L5 nerve root?

A

Toe extension
Heel walk
Hip abduction

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128
Q

What are the three motor/body activity carried out by the S1 nerve root?

A

Eversion
Plantar Flexion
Hip Extension

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129
Q

What are the motor/body activity carried out by the S2-S4 nerve roots?

A

Anal Wink

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130
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the C6 nerve root?

A

Extensor Carpi Ulnaris
Extensor Carpi Radialis
Brachialis (DTR C6)

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131
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the C7 nerve root?

A

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
Flexor Carpi Radialis
Triceps (DTR C7)

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132
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the C8 nerve root?

A

Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
Flexor Digitorum Profundus
Lumbricals

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133
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the T1 nerve root?

A

Dorsal Interossei

Palmer Interossei

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134
Q

What muscle is innervated by the T5-T12 nerve roots?

A

Rectus Abdominus

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135
Q

What muscle is innervated by the L1-L3 nerve roots?

A

Illiopsoas

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136
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the L2-L4 nerve roots?

A

Quadriceps

Adductors

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137
Q

What muscle is innervated by the L4 nerve root?

A

Tibialis Anterior

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138
Q

What four muscles are innervated by the L5 nerve root?

A

Extensor Digitorum
Extensor Hallucis Longus
Gluteus Medius
Gluteus Minimums

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139
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the S1 nerve root?

A

Peroneus Longus
Peroneus Brevis
Gluteus Maximus

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140
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the S2-S4 nerve roots?

A

Levator Ani

Coccygeus

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141
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of C6 nerve root?

A

Lateral forearm

Digits 1 and 2

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142
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of C7 nerve root?

A

3rd digit, middle finger

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143
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of C8 nerve root?

A

Medial Forearm

Digits 4 and 5

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144
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of T1 nerve root?

A

Medial Elbow

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145
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of T5-T12 nerve root?

A

Respective vertebral level

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146
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of L1-L3 nerve roots?

A

L1- Inguinal Ligament
L2- Oblique below L1
L3- Oblique across the knee

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147
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of L4 nerve root?

A

Medial aspect of leg and foot

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148
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of L5 nerve root?

A

Lateral aspect of the leg across the dorsum of the foot and big toe

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149
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of S1 nerve root?

A

Lateral aspect of foot and plantar surface of foot

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150
Q

Where is the dermatome/sensory level of S2-S4 nerve roots?

A

Perianal

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151
Q

What disorder is seen in both the L4 and L5 nerve roots?

A

Foot Drop

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152
Q

What disorder is seen in C7 nerve root?

A

Klumpke’s Paralysis (LMNL)

Radial Nerve

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153
Q

What disorder is seen in C8-T1 nerve roots?

A

Klumpke’s Paralysis (LMNL)

Radial Nerve

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154
Q

What disorder is seen in L1-L3 nerve roots?

A

Meralgia Paresthetica

Lateral Femoral Cutaneous; mainly L2 and L3

Lat, Fem, Cut; She is 23 and to Cut(e) Fem me

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155
Q

What disorder is seen in S2-S4 nerve roots?

A

Cauda Equina

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156
Q

What is the motor/body action carried out by the Axillary Nerve?

A

Arm Abduction

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157
Q

What is the motor/body action carried out by the Musculocutaneous Nerve?

A

Elbow Flexion

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158
Q

What is the motor/body action carried out by the Medial Plantar Nerve?

A

Toe Extension

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159
Q

What is the motor/body action carried out by the Sciatic Nerve?

A

Flexion of the knee

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160
Q

What is the motor/body action carried out by the Obturator Nerve?

A

Hip Adduction

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161
Q

What are three motor/body actions carried out by the Radial Nerve?

A

Wrist extension
Finger extension
Thumb Abduction

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162
Q

What are the two motor/body actions carried out by the Media Nerve?

A

Thumb pinch

Opposition of the thumb

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163
Q

What are the two motor/body actions carried out by the Ulnar Nerve?

A

Abduction of the 5th Digit

Adduction of the thumb

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164
Q

What are the two motor/body actions carried out by the Dorsal Scapular Nerve?

A

Elevation of the Scapula

Retraction of the Scapula

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165
Q

What is the motor/body action carried out by the Long Thoracic Nerve?

A

Protraction of the Scapula

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166
Q

What are the two motor/body actions carried out by the Femoral Nerve?

A

Hip Flexion

Knee Extension

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167
Q

What are three motor/body actions carried out by the Peroneal Nerve?

A

Foot Dorsiflexion
Inversion
Eversion

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168
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the Axillary Nerve?

A

Deltoid

Teres Minor

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169
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the Radial Nerve?

A

Wrist Extensors
Finger Extensors
Triceps

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170
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the Musculocutaneous Nerve?

A

Biceps
Brachialis
Coracobrachilis

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171
Q

What four muscles are innervated by the Median Nerve?

A

Wrist Flexors
Thumb Flexors
Thumb Abductors
Thenar

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172
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the Ulnar Nerve?

A

Finger Abductors
Finger Adductors
Thumb Adductors

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173
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the Dorsal Scapular Nerve?

A

Rhomboids

Levator Scapula

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174
Q

What muscle is innervated by the Long Thoracic Nerve?

A

Serratus Anterior

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175
Q

What muscles are innervated by the Obturator Nerve?

A

Hip Adductor muscles

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176
Q

What two muscles are innervated by the Femoral Nerve?

A

Illiopsoas

Quadriceps

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177
Q

What muscle is innervated by the Sciatic Nerve?

A

Hamstrings

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178
Q

What three muscles are innervated by the Peroneal Nerve?

A

Tibialis Anterior
Toe Extensors
Peroneals

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179
Q

What muscles are innervated by the Medical Plantar Nerve?

A

Toe Flexor Muscles

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180
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Axillary Nerve?

A

Lateral Arm

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181
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Radial Nerve?

A

Dorsal web between thumb and index finger

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182
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Musculocutaneous Nerve?

A

Lateral Forearm

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183
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Median Nerve?

A

Distal Radial hand

2nd digit

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184
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Ulnar Nerve?

A

Distal Ulnar Hand

5th Digit

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185
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve?

A

Lateral Thigh

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186
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Saphenous Nerve?

A

Medial Leg

Anteromedial Knee

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187
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Obturator Nerve?

A

Medial Thigh

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188
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Femoral Nerve?

A

Anteromedial Thigh

Anteromedial Leg

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189
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Sciatic Nerve?

A

Anterior Leg
Posterior Leg
Sole of the foot
Dorsum of the foot

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190
Q

What is the dermatome/sensory pattern of the Peroneal Nerve?

A

Anterior Leg

Dorsum of the foot

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191
Q

What disorder is seen with Axillary Nerve involvement?

A

Glenohumeral Dislocation

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192
Q

What three disorders is seen with Radial Nerve involvement?

A

Wrist Drop
Crutch Palsy
Erb’s Palsy

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193
Q

What three Nerves have an Impingement disorders when they are involved?

A

Musculocutaneous
Obturator
Femoral

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194
Q

What three disorders is seen with Median Nerve involvement?

A

Carpel Tunnel
Ape Hand
Pronator Teres

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195
Q

What disorder is seen with Ulnar Nerve involvement?

A

Claw Hand

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196
Q

What disorder is seen with Dorsal Scapular Nerve involvement?

A

Flaring of the Scapula

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197
Q

What disorder is seen with Long Thoracic Nerve involvement?

A

Winging of the Scapula

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198
Q

What disorder is seen with Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve involvement?

A

Meralgia Paresthetica (L2,L3)

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199
Q

What disorder is seen with Sciatic Nerve involvement?

A

Piriformis Syndrome (15%)

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200
Q

What disorder is seen with Peroneal Nerve involvement?

A

Fibular Head Fracture

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201
Q

What disorder is seen with Median Plantar Nerve involvement?

A

Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome

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202
Q

What type of pain is along a sensory distribution of a nerve root?

A

Dermatogenous

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203
Q

What is the definition of Myotogenous pain?

A

Pain that originates within a muscle

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204
Q

What type of pain is described as “Pain that arises from structures derived from embryological sclerotomes”?

A

Scleratogenous

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205
Q

What kind of pain occurs along the course of a dermatome due to nerve root irritation?

A

Radicular

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206
Q

What is the name of the pain that is “Pain along scleroderm of origination involving more then one kind of tissue”?

A

Referred (Shared Pathways)

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207
Q

What are the four characteristics of Muscle pain?

A

Cramping
Spasm
Aching
Dull

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208
Q

What are the four characteristics of Nerve pain?

A

Shooting
Radiating
Burning
Tingling

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209
Q

What are the two characteristics of Circulation pain?

A

Throbbing

Pulsating

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210
Q

What are the six characteristics of Bone Cancer pain?

A 
Constant
Deep
Boring 
Nocturnal 
Progressive
Unremitting
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211
Q

What are the three characteristics of Scleratogenous pain?

A

Poorly localized
Dull
Ache

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212
Q

What is the characteristic of Myofascial pain?

A

Trigger Point

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213
Q

What are the two pain referral sites for a Gallbladder issue?

A

Right Shoulder

Inferior Scapula

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214
Q

What is the pain referral site for a Pancreas issue?

A

Spine at T10 level (Epigastric)

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215
Q

What are the three pain referral sites for a Heart issue?

A

Left Shoulder
Medial Left arm
Left Jaw/Side of the face

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216
Q

What is the pain referral site for a Intestinal issue?

A

Periumbilical

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217
Q

What is the pain referral site for a Kidney issue?

A

Flank

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218
Q

What is the pain referral site for a Ureter issue?

A

Groin

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219
Q

What is the pain referral site for a Bladder issue?

A

Suprapubic Area

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220
Q

What are the two pain referral sites for a Appendix issue?

A

Epigastric- Early

Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ)- Late

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221
Q

Where is the site of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Under the Flexor Retinaculum

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222
Q

What are five causes of Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A 
Trauma 
Obesity
Hypothyroidism 
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Fluid Retention during pregnancy
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223
Q

In Carpal Tunnel Syndrome where is the numbness and tingling usually located?

A

First three digits

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224
Q

What three signs may indicate Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Thenar Atrophy
Nocturnal Pain
Weak Opponens Pollicis (Ape Hand Appearance)

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225
Q

What two orthopedic exams will be positive in a patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Tinel’s test at the wrist

Phalen’s Test

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226
Q

What are three treatments for a patient with Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Adjust (Lunate A-P)
Cock up splint
Vitamin B6

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227
Q

What condition of the Median Nerve/Anterior Interosseous Nerve is seen between the heads of the Pronator Teres at the elbow?

A

Pronator Teres Syndrome

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228
Q

In a patient with Pronator Teres Syndrome where are the three areas they will experience pain and paresthesia?

A

Palmar (Volar) aspect of the forearm
Lateral palm
Lateral digits

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229
Q

What causes Pronator Teres Syndrome?

A

Hypertonic Muscles i.e. Mechanics and Carpenters; work with a screwdriver, similar motion

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230
Q

What movements will cause pain in a patient with Pronator Teres Syndrome?

A

Pronation

Wrist flexion

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231
Q

What muscle of the hand will be atrophied in a patient with Pronator Teres Syndrome?

A

Thenar (Palm)

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232
Q

What orthopedic test will be positive in a patient with Pronator Teres Syndrome?

A

Pinch Grip Test

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233
Q

What are the two treatments for Pronator Teres Syndrome?

A

Trigger Point Therapy

Spray and Stretch

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234
Q

What are the two sites where the Ulnar Nerve can become trapped?

A 
Tunnel of Guyon (Under the hook of the hamate)
Cubital Tunnel (Elbow)
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235
Q

What are two causes of Ulnar Nerve Entrapment?

A

Direct Trauma

Repetitive Microtrauma

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236
Q

What three signs will a patient present with that has Ulnar Nerve Entrapment?

A

Pain
Tingling/Numbness of the last 2 digits
Weakness of the Adductor Pollicis (Claw Hand Deformity)
Hypothenar atrophy (Pisiform)

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237
Q

Of the two entrapments; Tunnel of Guyon and Cubital Tunnel, which one will have weak wrist flexion on the ulnar side?

A

Cubital Tunnel Entrapment

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238
Q

What is the name of the condition that happens from a lower brachial plexus injury from childbirth?

A

Klumpke’s Palsy (C8-T1)

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239
Q

What does Klumpke’s Palsy look like?

A

Claw hand deformity with flexion of the wrist (Crumple Arm)

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240
Q

What is the description of the condition of Wrist Drop?

A

Unable to extend elbow and wrist

Radial Nerve Involvement

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241
Q

What is the name of the condition that has arm in “Adduction, Internal Rotation, and Flexion of the Wrist”?

A

Erb’s Palsy AKA Waiter’s Tip Deformity

Radial Nerve Involvement

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242
Q

What is the site that causes Saturday Night/ Crutch Palsy?

A

Spiral Groove

Radial Nerve Involvement

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243
Q

What are three causes of Saturday Night/Crutch Palsy?

A

Trauma
Lead Poisoning
Pressure from crutches

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244
Q

What reflex will be decreased in a patient with Radial Nerve involvement?

A

Triceps

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245
Q

In a patient with Radial Nerve involvement where will there be decreased sensation? (Three areas)

A

Posterior Arm
Posterior Forearm
Posterolateral three and a half (3.5) fingers

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246
Q

What are three causes of Winging Scapula?

A

Trauma
Iatrogenic
Idiopathic

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247
Q

What nerve is injured to cause Scapular Winging?

A

Long Thoracic Nerve

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248
Q

What muscle has paralysis in Scapular Winging?

A

Serratus Anterior

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249
Q

What nerve is damaged to cause Flaring of the Scapula?

A

Dorsal Scapular Nerve

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250
Q

What muscle has paralysis in Flaring of the Scapula?

A

Rhomboids

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251
Q

Where is the site of Meralgia Paresthetica?

A

Pelvic Brim under the inguinal ligament

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252
Q

What are three causes of Meralgia Paresthetica?

A

External pressure (Utility Belt i.e. Cops or Construction)
Obesity
Tight Jeans

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253
Q

What kind of symptoms are present with Meralgia Paresthetica?

A

Burning pain over the anterolateral thigh

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254
Q

What are two treatments for Meralgia Paresthetica?

A

Weight loss

Loose fitting clothes

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255
Q

Where are three sites of Sciatic pain?

A

Pelvis
Hip
Popliteal Fossa

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256
Q

What are five causes of Sciatica?

A 
Trauma 
Traction 
Wallet Pressure
Piriformis contracture 
Muscle spasm
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257
Q

Where will a patient with Sciatica have pain?

A

Posterior:
Buttock
Thigh
Leg, to the floor

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258
Q

What two leg movements will be decreased in a patient with Sciatica?

A

Weak knee flexion

Decreased Achilles Reflex

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259
Q

What is one possible differential diagnosis for Sciatica?

A

Facet involvement, Facet will NEVER cross the knee

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260
Q

What nerve is involved in Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Medial Plantar Nerve; Branch from the Tibial Nerve

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261
Q

What three symptoms would a patient with Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome present with?

A

Burning Paresthesia
Decreased sensation on the soles of feet
Weak muscles of the foot

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262
Q

What two motions will cause pain in Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Walking

Standing

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263
Q

What are three treatments for Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Adjust
Orthotic support
Foot in slight inversion

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264
Q

What is another name for Morton’s Neuroma?

A

Intermetatarsal Neuroma

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265
Q

What are five causes of Intermetatarsal Neuroma?

A
  • Freiberg’s Disease; avascular necrosis of a metatarsal, usually the 2nd one
  • Repetitive Microtrauma
  • Narrowed toed shoes
  • Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)
  • Foot Deformities
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266
Q

Where does a patient with Morton’s Neuroma have pain? (Two places)

A

Toes

Dorsum of the foot

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267
Q

What is one possible way to decrease pain in Morton’s Neuroma?

A

Shoes with a bigger toe box

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268
Q

What orthopedic test will be positive for Intermetatarsal Neuroma?

A

Morton’s Squeeze Test

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269
Q

What is the common site to have a Common Peroneal Nerve problem?

A

Fibular Head

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270
Q

What is the cause of Common Peroneal Nerve issues?

A

Trauma

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271
Q

What is the treatment for Common Peroneal Nerve complaints?

A

Adjust

Refer if there is a fracture

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272
Q

What two symptoms and where is the pain located in a patient with Common Peroneal Nerve issues?

A

Pain in the lateral leg
Weak Peroneal muscles
Foot drop

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273
Q

What nerve is involved in Anterior Compartment Syndrome?

A

Deep Peroneal Nerve (Medial Leg)

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274
Q

What condition has similar signs and symptoms to Deep Peroneal Nerve?

A

Charcot Marie Tooth

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275
Q

What four muscles can the Deep Peroneal Nerve effect?

A

Tibialis Anterior
Extensor Hallucis Longus
Extensor Digitorum Longus
Peroneus Tertius

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276
Q

What is the treatment for Deep Peroneal Nerve issues?

A

Medical Emergency

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277
Q

What is the name of the finger condition that is a “deformity in which the fingertip is curled in and cannot be straightened itself”?

A

Mallet Finger

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278
Q

What is the cause of the Mallet Finger Deformity?

A

Injury

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279
Q

What two finger conditions are seen in Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

A

Swan Neck Deformity

Boutonniere Deformity

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280
Q

What is the finger deformity described by the following “Hyper-flexion of the Distal Interphalangeal (DIP) and hyper-extension of the Proximal Interphalangeal (PIP)”?

A

Swan neck deformity

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281
Q

How is the Boutonniere Deformity described?

A

Hyper-extension of the Distal Interphalangeal (DIP) and hyper-flexion of the Proximal Interphalangeal (PIP)

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282
Q

What finger condition has “an abnormal thickening underneath the skin of the palm and fingers”?

A

Dupuytren’s Contracture

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283
Q

What two fingers are affected with Dupuytren’s Contracture?

A

Last two finger, curl into the palm

Middle finger may be involved in later

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284
Q

What is the name of the finger condition that has a finger “Locked in a flexed position”?

A

Trigger Finger

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285
Q

What causes Trigger Finger?

A

Tendons of the flexed finger become inflamed or swollen

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286
Q

How is Trigger Finger corrected?

A

Finger is straightened by person, swollen tendon is forced into the sheath, causing a popping or snapping sound

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287
Q

What are the two inflamed tendons seen in De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis?

A
  • *Extensor Pollicis Brevis**

* *Abductor Pollicis Longus**

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288
Q

How is De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis treated?

A

Bracing of the thumb and wrist

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289
Q

What orthopedic exam will be positive for De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis?

A

Finkelstein’s Test

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290
Q

What three functions does the Cerebrum help with?

A

Sensory Interpretation
Motor Interpretation
Language

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291
Q

What are five conditions that may effect the Cerebrum?

A 
Stoke (Cardiovascular Accident; CVA)
Cerebral Palsy
Alcoholism
Alzheimer's 
Tumor
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292
Q

What two functions are controlled by the Cerebellum?

A

Balance

Coordination

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293
Q

What are four possible problems that will be seen in a patient that has a Cerebellar issue?

A

Dysmetria (Past Pointing)
Dyssynergia (Lack of Coordination)
Diadochokinesia (Rapid Alternating Movements)
Unable to perform Tandem Gait

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294
Q

What are three conditions that are seen in Cerebellar Issues?

A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
Alcoholism
Cerebral Palsy

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295
Q

What three sensation is determined by the Posterior Columns?

A

Two point discrimination
Vibration (128 tuning fork on the distal joint)
Position Sense

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296
Q

When performing Romberg’s test, when are the Posterior Columns tested?

A

When the patient closes their eyes

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297
Q

What four conditions are seen when the Posterior Columns are affected?

A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
Tabes Dorsalis
Leprosy
Diabetes Mellitus

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298
Q

What tract has to deal with Voluntary Movement and flexors of the hands and feet?

A

Corticospinal (Pyramidal) Tract

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299
Q

What tract is involved in an Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL)?

A

Corticospinal (Pyramidal) Tract

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300
Q

What two sensations are sensed by the Lateral Spinothalamic tract?

A

Pain

Temperature

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301
Q

What tract is involved in a Syringomyelia?

A

Lateral Spinothalamic Tract

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302
Q

What Tract is the sensation of Crude Light Touch?

A

Anterior Spinothalamic Tract

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303
Q

What tract deals with balance reflexes and postural muscles?

A

Vestibulospinal Tract

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304
Q

What two conditions can be seen if a patient has an issue with their Vestibulospinal Tract?

A

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)

Labyrinthitis

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305
Q

What is the function of the Rubrospinal Tract?

A

Muscle tone and synergy to the proximal flexors of the extremities

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306
Q

What spinal tract deals with “Muscle tone and synergy to voluntary extensor muscles”?

A

Reticulospinal Tract

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307
Q

What spinal tract crosses at the medullary pyramids and travels to the flexors of the extremities?

A

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

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308
Q

What does the Ventral Corticospinal tract effect?

A

Crosses at the segmental level

Goes to the flexors of the trunk

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309
Q

What condition is a “cyst of the central canal of the spinal canal”?

A

Syringomyelia

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310
Q

Where is the congenital weak area of the spine that is seen with Syringomyelia?

A

C5-C6

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311
Q

What is the common finding of Syringomyelia?

A

Loss of pain and temperature over the shoulders in a cape like distribution

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312
Q

What condition is a demyelination of the central nervous system (CNS)?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

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313
Q

What cells are responsible for myelination of the Central nervous system (CNS)?

A

Oligodendrocytes

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314
Q

What population is often affected by Multiple Sclerosis (MS) and Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Females aged 20-40

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315
Q

What can cause an increase in the exacerbation of Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

Moving from cold to warm climates

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316
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

Diplopia
Scotomas (Partial Loss of vision or blind spot)
Transient Blindness
Optic Neuritis (Retrobulbar Neuritis)
Pain
Vertigo
Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL) in legs, causing distal weakness

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317
Q

What is the name of the positive orthopedic exam in Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A

Lhermitte’s Test

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318
Q

What are the three components of Charcot’s Triad, in Multiple Sclerosis (MS) patients?

A

SIN

Scanning Speech
Intention Tremor
Nystagmus

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319
Q

What are two ways to Diagnosis Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?

A 
MRI (Best)
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) exam; Increase in Proteins
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320
Q

What is always affected first in Myasthenia Graves?

A

Motor Cranial Nerves

321
Q

In the condition of Myasthenia Graves what is makes it an Autoimmune Disorder?

A

The body makes antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors

322
Q

What condition is a dysfunction of the Myoneural junction and is a weakness of the cranial nerves that later effects the proximal muscles?

A

Myasthenia Graves

323
Q

What are the early signs of Myasthenia Graves?

A

Ptosis
Diplopia (Double Vision)
Dysarthria
Fatigue of muscles (Especially after exercise)
Muscle weakness varies during the day; worse at day’s end

324
Q

What test is done on patients with Myasthenia Graves?

A

ACHr test

325
Q

What test is done to diagnosis Myasthenia Graves?

A

Tensilon Test

326
Q

What type of drug is used to treat Myasthenia Graves?

A

Cholinesterase Inhibiting Drugs

327
Q

What is the name for Lou Gehrig’s Disease?

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

328
Q

What is first effected in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

Hands

329
Q

Who usually has Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

Males less than 40 years of age

330
Q

What part of the spine is effected in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

Corticospinal tract

Anterior horn

331
Q

What is a differential diagnosis of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

Lateral Canal Stenosis

332
Q

What are the signs/symptoms of Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

Fasciculations
Spasticity
Increase in Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR)

333
Q

What kind of lesions are seen in Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)?

A

Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL) in the arms

Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL) in the legs

334
Q

What is another name for Posterolateral Sclerosis (PLS)?

A

Combined System Disease

335
Q

What areas of the spinal cord are effected in Combined Systems Disease?

A

Degeneration of:
Posterior Columns
Corticospinal Tracts

336
Q

A deficiency in what Vitamin leads to Posterolateral Sclerosis (PLS)?

A 
B12 (Pernicious Anemia)
Stomach Issue (Gut or Colon)
337
Q

What test will be positive in Combined Systems Disease?

A

Shilling Test

338
Q

What kind of paresthesia is seen in Posterolateral Sclerosis (PLS)?

A

Glove and Stocking

Neurological Symptoms are irreversible

339
Q

What is the name of the condition that has a “hemisection (partially severed) spinal cord; usually caused by injury”?

A

Brown Sequard

340
Q

In Brown Sequard, what is effected Ipsilateral and what is effected Contra-lateral?

A

Ipsilateral:
Motor function
Dorsal Columns

Contra-Lateral:
Loss of:
Pain
Temperature

341
Q

What condition is described as “A non-progressive motor disorder of the cerebral cortex due to anoxia to the brain prenatally or during birth trauma”?

A

Cerebral Palsy

342
Q

What type of Gait, Paralysis and two types of Movements are seen in patients with Cerebral Palsy?

A 
Gait: Scissored (Tight Adductors)
Paralysis: Spastic
Movements: 
Athetoid (Most Common)
Choreiform
343
Q

What is another name for Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Paralysis Agitans

344
Q

What condition is “Chronic progressive associated with loss of dopamine in the Substantia Nigra causing Basal Ganglionic dysfunction”?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

345
Q

What tract is effected in Paralysis Agitans?

A

Extrapyramidal Tract

346
Q

At what age is Parkinson’s usually seen?

A

Over the age of 50, with a gradual onset

347
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Paralysis Agitans?

A 
Resting tremor (Pill rolling)
Mask like face
Festinating gait
Cogwheel/Lead pipe rigidity
Forward stooped posture
Bradykinesia (Slow walking)
348
Q

What condition is “Inflammatory polyneuropathy of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS), linked to recent immunization or recent flu infection”?

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

349
Q

What kind of paralysis is Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Ascending; begins in the legs. Sensory symptoms

350
Q

When can Guillain-Barre Syndrome become a medical emergency?

A

If it reaches the diaphragm

351
Q

What condition is seen in tertiary syphilis, effecting the posterior columns?

A

Tabes Dorsalis

352
Q

What kind of pupil will be seen in a patient with Tabes Dorsalis?

A

Argyll Robertson’s- pupil accommodates but no response to direct light

353
Q

What kind of gait may be present in Tabes Dorsalis?

A

Slappage Gait

354
Q

What two body functions are effected in Tabes Dorsalis?

A

Coordination

Balance

355
Q

What condition is seen in Boys aged 3-7, that is a recessive sex linked disorder?

A

Muscular Dystrophy (Erb’s Duchenne)

356
Q

What kind of gait is seen in Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Waddling gait, weakness of proximal leg muscles

357
Q

What three postural signs will you see in a patient with Muscular Dystrophy, besides gait?

A

Toe walking
Hyperlordosis (Pot-Belly Stance)
Pseudohypertrophy of the calves

358
Q

What orthopedic exam can help diagnosis Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Gower’s Sign

359
Q

In the condition of Muscular Dystrophy what will be the lab findings?

A

Large increase in CPK (CK-MM)

Decrease in Creatinine

360
Q

What condition is “mental deterioration and amnesia”?

A

Alzheimer’s

361
Q

What is the most definitive diagnosis for Alzheimer’s?

A

Autopsy

362
Q

What is the most common age of on set for the condition of Huntington’s Chorea?

A

35-44

363
Q

What kind of disease is Huntington’s Chorea?

A

Neurodegenerative genetic disorder

364
Q

What are the thing affected in Huntington’s Chorea?

A

Muscle coordination
Cognitive decline
Dementia

365
Q

What is the name of the condition that is “Hereditary and affects both moth and sensory nerves”?

A

Charcot Marie Tooth Disease

366
Q

What are the three typical signs and symptoms of a patient that has Charcot Marie Tooth Syndrome?

A

Weakness of the foot and lower leg muscles
Foot Drop paired with a High Steppage Gait
Frequent trip and falls

367
Q

What muscles of the lower leg are affected over time in Charcot Marie Tooth Syndrome?

A

Peroneal Muscles

368
Q

What percentage of the gait cycle is Stance phase?

A

60%

369
Q

What are the three phases of the Stance Phase?

A 
Heel Strike (When heel hits the ground)
**Most stretch on the Sciatic Nerve**
Foot Strike (When heel of the foot is on the ground)
Toe Off (When up on toe and about to kick off)
370
Q

What percentage of the gait cycle is in Swing Phase?

A

40%

371
Q

What is the definition of Swing Phase?

A

Leg is swinging, no weight

372
Q

What are the two parts of Swing Phase?

A

Early Swing

Late Swing

373
Q

What two muscle cause Acceleration of the thigh?

A

Illiopsoas

Rectus Femoris

374
Q

What muscle can sprinters easily tear off the Anterior Inferior Spine due to it’s cartilaginous apophysis attachment?

A

Rectus Femoris

375
Q

The hamstring assist in what part of the gait cycle?

A

Deceleration

376
Q

What type of athlete is prone to pulling their hamstring?

A

Stop quickly
Forceful kicking

Hamstring is pulled of the ischial tuberosity

377
Q

The Heel Strike fires what group of muscles?

A

Dorsiflexors (Tibialis Anterior innervated by the Deep Fibular (Peroneal) Nerve))

378
Q

What muscle eccentrically contracts to absorb energy of the knee to prevent bucking, during the Heel Strike phase of the Gait Cycle?

A

Quadriceps

379
Q

During Foot Strike of the Gait Cycle what muscles contact to hold the body up right?

A

Abductors

380
Q

What muscles contract to move the body forward during the Foot Strike phase?

A

Plantar Flexors= Triceps Surae
Gastrocnemius
Soleus
Plantaris

381
Q

During the Toe Off phase of the Gait Cycle what muscle concentrically contracts to help the body move ahead by elongating the lower limb?

A

Quadriceps

382
Q

How is a Propulsion/Festinating/Shuffling gait described?

A

Forward leaning posture with small shuffling steps

383
Q

What condition is seen to have a Propulsion/Festinating/Shuffling gait?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

384
Q

How is a Scissored gait described?

A

Knee’s crossed at midline while walking (Tight Adductors)

385
Q

What condition is a Scissored gait often seen in?

A

Cerebral Palsy

386
Q

How is a Trendlenburg gait described?

A

Weak Gluteus Medias, causing lurching and drastic pelvic tilting on the affected side

387
Q

What condition is a Waddling gait often seen in?

A

Muscular Dystrophy

388
Q

What three conditions is a Steppage gait often seen in?

A

Anterior Compartment Syndrome
Foot Drop
L4 Lesion/ Paralysis of the Tibialis Anterior

389
Q

What condition is a Slappage/Sensory Ataxia gait often seen in?

A

Posterior Columns Disease

Difficult walking in the dark

390
Q

What two conditions is a Circumduction/Hemiplegic gait often seen in?

A

Stroke; swinging; unilaterally

Spastic Hemiplegia

391
Q

What condition is a Spastic gait often seen in?

A

Upper Motor Neuron Lesion (UMNL)

392
Q

What condition is a Drunken/Motor Ataxic gait often seen in?

A

Cerebellum issues (Wide based gait)

393
Q

Where does 50% of flexion and extension occur in the cervical spine?

A

Occiput-C1

394
Q

At what level does 50% of rotation occur in the cervical spine?

A

C1-C2

395
Q

What is another name for Bakody’s Test?

A

Shoulder Abduction Test

396
Q

How is Bakody’s Test performed?

A

Patient is seated, actively places affected arm/palm on top of their head. Elbow should be at the level of their head

397
Q

What is considered a Positive Bakody’s Test?

A

Relief of pain

398
Q

What does Bakody’s Test indicate?

A

Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) Encroachment

399
Q

How is Foraminal Compression Test performed?

A

Patient is seated actively rotates head side to side.
Doctor presses down in a neutral position.
Rotate head to each side and apply downward pressure

400
Q

How is Jackson’s Compression Test performed?

A

Patient is seated, doctor lateral flexes patient’s head to one side and applies downward pressure. Repeat on other side.

401
Q

How is Maximum Cervical Compression Test performed?

A

Never Touch the Patient
Patient is seated, actively rotate, laterally flex and extend to one side. Do NOT come back to Neutral

If no pain have the patient maximally laterally flex. Repeat on the other side.

No Compression/Downward pressure applied

402
Q

How is Distraction Test performed?

A

Patient seated, doctor exerts upward pressure on patient’s head removing the weight of the patients head for the neck.

403
Q

How is Shoulder Depression Test performed?

A

Patient is seated, doctor presses down on shoulder of patient while laterally flexing cervical spine away from shoulder. Perform on other side.

404
Q

How is Soto Hall Sign performed?

A

Patient is supine, doctor places one hand on sternum while passively flexing patient’s head toward chest.

405
Q

What is considered a Positive Foraminal Compression Test?

A

Radicular Pain/Localized Pain

406
Q

What is considered a Positive Jackson’s Compression Test?

A

Radicular Pain/Localized Pain

407
Q

What is considered a Positive Maximum Foraminal Compression Test?

A

Radicular Pain/Localized Pain

408
Q

What is considered a Positive Distraction Test and what does it indicate, for both an increase and decrease in pain?

A

Decrease in Pain= Nerve root Compression/Space Occupying Lesion (SOL)

Increase in Pain=Sprain/Strain

409
Q

What is considered a Positive Shoulder Depression Test?

A

Pain

410
Q

What is considered a Positive Soto Hall Sign?

A

Localized Pain

411
Q

What does Foraminal Compression, Jackson’s Compression, Maximal Foraminal Compression Test indicate?

A

Nerve Root Compression/ Facet Syndrome

412
Q

What does Shoulder Depression Test indicate?

A

Nerve Root Adhesions

413
Q

What does Soto Hall Sign indicate? (Two things)

A 
Compression Fracture (Anterior Pain)
Ligament Damage (Posterior Pain) (Sprain/Strain)
414
Q

What four orthopedic exams can be performed to indicate a Space Occupying Lesion (SOL)?

A

Valsava’s Maneuver
Naffziger’s Test
Milligram’s
Dejerine’s Triad

415
Q

How is Spurling’s Test performed?

A

Most aggressive for closing off Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)

Patient actively maximally rotates and laterally flexes head to the affected side. Doctor delivers a vertical blow to the top of the head.

(Can be done bilaterally or with the neck in hyperextension)

416
Q

How is Naffziger’s Test performed?

A

Patient is seated while doctor applies digital pressure over the jugular veins bilaterally.

Can place blood pressure cuff around patient’s neck and pump to 40 mm Hg and hold for ~30 seconds (NOT RECOMMENDED)

If patient has no pain, instruct them to cough

417
Q

How is Valsava’s Maneuver performed?

A

Doctor ask the patient to bare down like they are having a bowel movement

418
Q

What is considered a Positive Spurling’s Test?

A

Pain in the neck, shoulder or arm

419
Q

What is considered a Positive Valsava’s Maneuver Test?

A

Radicular Pain

420
Q

What is considered a Positive Naffziger’s Test?

A

Pain

421
Q

What is a contraindication to Naffziger’s Test?

A

Vascular Compromise

422
Q

What is another name for Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (TOS)?

A

Neurovascular Compression Syndrome

423
Q

Who should you refer a patient to if they have a Cervical Rib?

A

Orthopedist

424
Q

How do you perform Allen’s Test?

A

Patient seated with elbow flexed and forearm is supinated, ask the patient to pump the hand, keep closed while doctor occludes the radial and ulnar arteries until hand is blanched. Patient slowly opens the hand while doctor opens one artery and records filling time. Repeat on other artery.

425
Q

What is a Positive Allen’s Test?

A

Delay of more than 10 seconds for blood to return

426
Q

What does a Positive Allen’s Test indicate?

A

Occlusion of corresponding artery

427
Q

How is Adson’s Test performed?

A

Patient seated, doctor slightly abducts, extends and externally rotates the arm while taking the radial pulse.
Patient rotates the head towards the side being tested and extends head. Patient than takes a deep breathe.

428
Q

What is another name for Adson’s Test?

A

Scalenus Anticus Test

429
Q

What is a Positive Adson’s Test?

A

Alteration in amplitude of Radial Pulse

430
Q

What does a Positive Adson’s Test indicate?

A

Cervical Ribs

431
Q

What is another name for Modified Adson’s Test?

A

Scalenus Medius Test

432
Q

How is Modified Adson’s Test performed?

A

If Adson’s test was NEGATIVE. Patient rotates their head to the opposite side, extends head and takes a deep breathe.

433
Q

What is a Positive Modified Adson’s Test?

A

Alteration in amplitude of the Radial Pulse

434
Q

What does a Positive Modified Adson’s Test indicate?

A

Subclavian Artery

Scalenus Medius Syndrome

435
Q

What is another name for the Costoclavicualar Maneuver?

A

Eden’s Test

436
Q

How is Eden’s Test performed?

A

Doctor palpates the radial pulse while drawing the patients shoulder down and back. The patient then flexes the chin to chest.

437
Q

What is a Positive Eden’s Test?

A

Alteration in the amplitude of the Radial Pulse

438
Q

What does a Positive Eden’s Test indicate?

A

Compression between the first rib and clavicle

439
Q

What is another name for Wright’s Test?

A

Hyperabduction Maneuver

440
Q

How is Wright’s Test performed?

A

Patient seated while the doctor palpates the radial pulse. Each arm is individually abducted to 180 degrees.
-Doctor notes angle at which radial pulse diminishes or disappears.

441
Q

What is a Positive Wright’s Test?

A

Lower Arm is the affected arm (+)

If pulses are lost with more than 10 degrees different between arms

442
Q

What does a Positive Wright’s Test indicate?

A

Pectoralis Minor Syndrome

Axillary Artery

443
Q

What does a Reverse Bakody’s Maneuver look like?

A

Seated patient actively places hand on top of head

444
Q

What is a Positive Bakody’s Maneuver?

A

Increase Pain

445
Q

How is Halstead’s Test performed?

A

Patient extends head back. Doctor slightly abducts the arm then applies downward (“Hal Down on the arm”) traction on the arm while taking pulse.

446
Q

What is a Positive Halstead’s Test?

A

Alteration in the amplitude of Radial Pulse

447
Q

What does a Positive Halstead’s Test indicate?

A

Cervical Rib; Refer to an Orthopedist

448
Q

How is Bikele’s Sign performed?

A

Patient actively abducts the shoulder to 90 degrees with the elbow flexed to 90 degrees and then extends the shoulder. Now patient extends the elbow.

449
Q

What is a Positive Bikele’s Sign?

A

Resistance and increased radicular pain

450
Q

What three things are indicated by a Positive Bikele’s Sign?

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (TOS)
Brachial Plexus Neuritis
Meningeal Irritation

451
Q

How is Roo’s Test performed?

A

Patient is seated. Both arms are at 90 degrees then patent abducts and externally rotates them.
The patient then repeatedly open and closes the fists for 3-5 minutes.

452
Q

What is a positive Roo’s Test?

A

Reproduction of symptoms or unusual discomfort

453
Q

What does an Positive Roo’s Test indicate?

A

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome (TOS)

454
Q

Which one of the four rotator cuff tendons is most frequently torn?

A

Supraspinatus

455
Q

Where is the Supraspinatus Muscle usually torn from?

A

Insertion point; the humeral head of the greater tuberosity

456
Q

What is the best diagnosis for a Rotatory cuff tear?

A

MRI

457
Q

What is the recommended treatment for Rotor Cuff injuries?

A

Codman’s Exercises

458
Q

What is the action of the Supraspinatus muscle?

A

Abduction

459
Q

What is the nerve supply to the Supraspinatus muscle?

A

Suprascapular Nerve

460
Q

Where does the Supraspinatus muscle insert?

A

Greater Tubercle of the humerus

461
Q

What is the action of the Infraspinatus muscle?

A

External Rotation of the arm

462
Q

What is the nerve supply to the Infraspinatus muscle?

A

Suprascapular Nerve

463
Q

What is the insertion of the Infraspinatus muscle?

A

Greater Tubercle of the humerus

464
Q

What is the action of the Teres Minor muscle?

A

External Rotation of the arm

465
Q

What is the nerves supply of the Teres Minor muscle?

A

Axillary Nerve

466
Q

What is the insertion of the Teres Minor Muscle?

A

Greater Tubercle of the humerus

467
Q

What is the nerve supply of the Subscapularis muscle?

A

Subscapular Nerve

468
Q

What is the action of the Subscapularis muscle?

A

Internal Rotation of the arm

469
Q

What is the insertion of the Subscapularis muscle?

A

Lesser tubercle of the humerus

470
Q

At what two joints does abduction of the shoulder occur?

A

Glenohumeral

Scapulothoracic articulation

471
Q

What is the appropriate ratio of movement between the Glenohumeral joint and the Scapulothoracic articulation when the shoulder is abducted?

A

2:1

472
Q

What does a decrease ration of the Glenohumeral joint and Scapulothoracic articulation indicate?

A

Adhesive Capsulitis AKA Frozen Shoulder

473
Q

What two muscles elevate the scapula?

A

Trapezius

Levator Scapula

474
Q

What two muscles retract the scapula?

A

Rhomboid (Major and Minor)

475
Q

What muscle protracts the scapula?

A

Serratus Anterior

476
Q

How is Apley’s Scratch Test performed?

A

Patient is seated and instructed to actively put hand behind the head and touch the opposite superior angle of the scapula.
-Then place hand behind the back and touch the opposite inferior angle of the scapula

477
Q

What is a Positive Apley’s Scratch Test?

A

Pain or decreased Range of Motion (ROM)

478
Q

What does a Positive Apley’s Scratch Test indicate?

A

Degenerative Tendonitis of Rotator Cuff

479
Q

How is Codman’s Drop Arm Test performed?

A

Doctor passively abducts arm to about 90 degrees, then suddenly removes support.

-This causes deltoid to contract suddenly causing an increase in pain

480
Q

What is a Positive Codman’s Drop Arm Test?

A

Inability to maintain arm position

481
Q

What does a Positive Codman’s Drop Arm Test indicate?

A

Supraspinatus Tear

482
Q

How is the Apprehension Test performed?

A

Doctor abducts and slowly externally rotates the affected shoulder.

483
Q

What is a Positive Apprehension Test?

A

Patient shows sign of alarm

484
Q

What does a Positive Apprehension Test indicate?

A

Chronic Shoulder Dislocation

485
Q

How is Dugas’ Test performed?

A

Patient places the hand of the affected shoulder on the opposite shoulder and attempts to touch the chest with the elbow

486
Q

What is a Positive Dugas’ Test?

A

Unable to perform

487
Q

What does a Positive Dugas’ Test indicate?

A

Acute Shoulder Dislocation

488
Q

How is Dawbarn’s Sign performed?

A

Test Da-Bursa

Deep palpitation by the doctor over the subacromial bursa elicits pain. Without moving the fingers the arm Is passively abducted.

489
Q

What is a Positive Dawbarn’s Sign?

A

Reduction of Pain

490
Q

What does a Positive Dawbarn’s Sign indicate?

A

Subacromial Bursitis; Most common Hydroxyapatite Deposition Disease (HADD)

491
Q

How is Yergason’s Test?

A

Patient flexes the elbow to 90 degrees while seated. Doctor palpates the bicipital tendon and resists the patient’s attempt to actively supinate the hand and flex the elbow.

492
Q

What is a Positive Yergason’s Test?

A

NOT positive for pain

Audible click or snap in the bicipital groove

493
Q

What does a Positive Yergason’s Test indicate?

A

Bicipital Tendon Instability

494
Q

What are two other names for Lateral Epicondylitis?

A

Radio Humeral Bursitis

Tennis Elbow

495
Q

What muscle is affected in Lateral Epicondylitis?

A

Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis

496
Q

What movements will cause pain in the condition of Lateral Epicondylitis?

A

Wrist extension

Pronation of the elbow

497
Q

What are two other names for Medial Epicondylitis?

A

Little leaguers Elbow

Golfer’s Elbow

498
Q

What muscle is affected in Medial Epicondylitis?

A

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

499
Q

What movement will cause pain in the condition of Medial Epicondylitis?

A

Flexion of the wrist, medial portion of the elbow

500
Q

What are three treatment/case management for both Lateral and Medial Epicondylitis?

A

Transverse Massage
Underwater ultrasound
Counterforce brace

501
Q

How is Cozen’s Test performed?

A

Patient’s elbow is flexed to 90 degree with the forearm pronated and fist dorsiflexed.
Doctor stabilizes the elbow and resists the patient’s dorsiflexion.

502
Q

What is a Positive Cozen’s Test?

A

Pain in the lateral elbow

503
Q

What does a Positive Cozen’s Test indicate?

A

Lateral Epicondylitis

504
Q

How is Reverse Cozen’s Test performed?

A

Patient is seated with arm close to the body. Patient makes a fist and flexes wrist with supination. Doctor resist flexion of wrist while supporting the elbow.

505
Q

What is a Positive Reverse Cozen’s Test?

A

Pain In the medial elbow

506
Q

What does a Positive Reverse Cozen’s Test indicate?

A

Medial Epicondylitis

507
Q

How is Mill’s Test Performed?

A

Patient is instructed to extend the forearm, make a fist, flex the wrist and then maximally pronate the forearm.

This test can be performed passively by the doctor

508
Q

What is a Positive Mill’s Test?

A

Pain on the lateral Elbow

509
Q

What does a Positive Mill’s Test indicate?

A

Lateral Epicondylitis

510
Q

How is Tinel’s Sign at the Wrist performed?

A

Percuss over the flexor retinaculum of the wrist and the Tunnel of Guyon

511
Q

What is a Positive of Tinel’s sign at the Wrist?

A

Tingling into the lateral three finger or the medial two fingers

512
Q

What does a Positive of Tinel’s Sign at the Wrist indicate?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

Ulnar Nerve Impingement

513
Q

How is Phalen’s Sign performed?

A

Patient flexes the wrists maximally and hold the position for up to 60 seconds by pushing both wrist together

514
Q

What is a Positive Phalen’s Sign?

A

Tingling into the first three digits of the hand

515
Q

What does a Positive Phalen’s Sign indicate?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

516
Q

How is Froment’s Sign performed?

A

Doctor places a piece of paper between the patients thumb and index fingers and attempts to pull the paper out

517
Q

What is a Positive Froment’s Sign?

A

Unable to keep paper between finger

518
Q

What does an Positive Froment’s Sign indicate?

A

Ulnar nerve palsy

519
Q

How is Finkelstein’s Test performed?

A

Patient is asked to make a fist with the thumb tucked inside. Then the fist is deviated in the ulnar direction.

520
Q

What two muscles are being evaluated during Finkelstein’s Test?

A

Extensor Pollicis Brevis

Abductor Pollicis Longus

521
Q

What is a Positive Finkelstein’s Test?

A

Pain over the anatomical snuff box

522
Q

What does a Positive Finkelstein’s Test indicate?

A

De Quervain’s Disease (Stenosing Tenosynovitis)

523
Q

What is another name for De Quervain’s Disease?

A

Stenosing Tenosynovitis

524
Q

How is a Straight Leg Raiser (SLR) Test performed?

A

Patient is supine with legs extended. Doctor places one hone under the heel and the other over the knee and slowly raised the leg.

525
Q

What is a Positive Straight Leg Raiser (SLR) Test?

A

Pain down the affected side

526
Q

What are three possible indications from a Positive Straight Leg Raiser (SLR) Test?

A

Sciatica
Disc/Space Occupying Lesion (SOL)
Lumbar lesion

527
Q

How is Bragard’s Test Performed?

A

After pain with a Straight Leg Raiser (SLR), the leg is lowered below the point of discomfort and the foot is sharply dorsiflexed

528
Q

What is a Positive Bragard’s Test?

A

Pain in the affected leg

529
Q

What does a Positive Bragard’s Test indicate?

A

Sciatica

530
Q

How is Sicard’s Sign performed?

A

Perform a Straight Leg Raiser (SLR), lower the leg 5 degrees and dorsiflex big toe.

531
Q

What is a Positive Sicard’s Sign?

A

Pain in the affected leg

532
Q

What does a Positive Sicard’s Sign indicate?

A

Sciatica

533
Q

How is Turyn’s Sign performed?

A

While the patient is in the supine position, doctor dorsiflexes the big toe

534
Q

What is a Positive Turyn’s Sign?

A

Pain in the Gluteal region

535
Q

What does a Positive Turyn’s Sign indicate?

A

Sciatica

536
Q

What is another name for the Well Leg Raiser (WLR)?

A

Fajerstazn’s

537
Q

How is a Well Leg Raiser (WLR) performed?

A

Straight Leg Raiser (SLR) with dorsiflexion of the foot performed on the asymptomatic side of a sciatic patient

538
Q

What is a Positive Well Leg Raiser (WLR)?

A

Pain down Symptomatic (Sciatic) side

539
Q

What does a Positive Well Leg Raiser (WLR) indicate?

A

Medial Disc Lesion

540
Q

How is Millgram’s Test performed?

A

Patient is supine with limbs extended. Patient is asked to elevate legs six (6) inches off the table and hold for as along as possible, up to 60 seconds

541
Q

What is a Positive Millgram’s Test?

A

Pain

542
Q

What does a Positive Millgram’s Test indicate?

A

Space Occupying Lesion (SOL)

543
Q

How is Goldthwait’s Sign performed?

A

Patient is supine with affected leg raised slowly while doctor’s hand is under the lumbosacral portion of the spine.

544
Q

What is a Positive Goldthwait’s Sign?

A

Pain

545
Q

What does a Positive Goldthwait’s Sign indicate? (Three different indications)

A

0-30 degrees: Sacroiliac (SI) Joint
30-60 degrees: Lumbosacral Joint
60-90 degrees: Lumbar Spine or Contralateral SI Joint

546
Q

How is Linder’s Test performed?

A

Patient’s head is passively flexed to the chest

547
Q

What is a Positive Linder’s Test?

A

Pain in the lumbar spine radiating to the sciatic nerve

548
Q

What does a Positive Linder’s Test indicate?

A

Root Sciatica

549
Q

How is Bowstring’s Test performed?

A

Doctor performs a Straight Leg Raiser (SLR) to the point of pain. The knee is flexed slightly and placed on the doctor’s shoulder. Digital pressure is placed above the popliteal fossa and then in the popliteal fossa.

550
Q

What is a Positive Bowstring’s Test?

A

Pain in lumbar spine region or Radiculopathy

551
Q

What does a Positive Bowstring’s test Indicate?

A

Sciatica (BEST TEST)

552
Q

How is Bonnet’s Sign performed?

A

Patient supine, doctor stands on the side being tested. Doctor internally rotates leg, adducts leg and then performs a Straight Leg Raiser (SLR)

553
Q

What is a Positive Bonnet’s Sign?

A

Radicular Pain into the limb

554
Q

What does a Positive Bonnet’s Sign indicate?

A

Piriformis Syndrome

555
Q

What is another name for Belt’s Test?

A

Supported Adam’s Test

556
Q

How is Belt’s Test Performed?

A

Patient bends forward and the doctor notes when the pain occurs.
Then doctor stands sideways behind the patient and grasps the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) and braces their hip into the sacrum.
The patient flexes again and range of motion is noted.

557
Q

What is a Positive Belt’s Test?

A

Pelvic Lesion: No pain when pelvis is stabilized

Spine Lesion: Pain will be present with and without stabilization

558
Q

How is Kemp’s Test performed?

A

Patient seated/standing and supported by the doctor.
Doctor rotates the patient’s trunk from the original position and circumducts the trunk towards the affected side and then away from the affected side.

559
Q

What is a Positive Kemp’s Test?

A

Sciatic Pain Down the involved side

560
Q

What does a Positive Kemp’s Test indicate?

A

Posteromedial Disc: Positive Kemp’s away from pain

Posterolateral Disc: Positive Kemp’s into pain

561
Q

How is Neri’s Bowing Test performed?

A

When patient is bending forward at the waist the knee flexes on the side of involvement

562
Q

What is a Positive Neri’s Bowing Test?

A

Knee buckling

563
Q

What does a Positive Neri’s Bowing Test indicate? (Four Possibilities)

A

Tight Hamstrings
Lower Disc issue
Lumbosacral Issue
Sacroiliac Joint issue

564
Q

How is Becterew’s Test performed?

A

Patient seated. Patient attempts to extend each leg, one at a time. Doctor places one hand on the side being tested to resist hip flexion by the patient.
Patient then attempts to extend both legs together with both thighs stabilized by the doctor.

565
Q

What is a Positive Becterew’s Test?

A

Pain or Leaning Back

566
Q

What does a Positive Becterew’s Test indicate?

A

Disc

Posteromedial disc if pain when good leg is raised

567
Q

How is Minor’s Sign performed?

A

Ask the patient to rise form a seated position

568
Q

What is a Positive Minor’s Sign?

A

Patient will support body with uninvolved side balancing on good side

569
Q

What does a Positive Minor’s Sign indicate?

A

Sciatica

570
Q 
What is the Positive findings for the following test:
Gaenslen's Test
Lewin-Gaenslen's Test
Iliac Compression Test
Hibb's Test
Yeoman's Test
A

Pain in the Sacroiliac (SI) Joint

571
Q 
What is the Indication for the following test:
Gaenslen's Test
Lewin-Gaenslen's Test
Iliac Compression Test
Hibb's Test
Yeoman's Test
A

Sacroiliac (SI) Lesion

572
Q

What is the best test for the Sacroiliac (SI) joint?

A

Yeoman’s Test

573
Q

How is Yeoman’s Test Performed?

A

Doctor stabilizes Sacroiliac (SI) joint testing with other hand. Doctor flexes the leg of the affected side and hyperextends the thigh by lifting knee off the table.

574
Q

How is Gaenslen’s Test Performed?

A

Patient is supine, involved side near the edge of the examining table. Opposite knee and thigh fully flexed and fixed against the abdomen of the patient.
The involved leg is gradually extended off the table by the doctor.
Doctor applies downward pressure against clasped knee and knee of the extended hip.

575
Q

How is Lewin-Gaenslen’s Test Performed?

A

Patient side lying on unaffected side and pulls lower knee to chest.
Doctor stands behind patient, stabilizes pelvis and hyperextends the top thigh

576
Q

How is Iliac Compression Test Performed

A

Patient in side-lying position with involved side up.
Doctor hands are placed over the upper part of the iliac crest.
Doctor exerts downward pressure.

577
Q

How is Hibb’s Test Performed?

A

Doctor stabilizes pelvis on side they are standing. With other hand, doctor grasps the ankle of the opposite leg and flexes the knee to 90 degrees. The doctor slowly pushes the leg laterally away producing

Internal rotation of the hip
Sacroiliac (SI) Joint or Hip Pathology

578
Q

How is Hip Abduction Stress Test Performed?

A

Patient is lying on non-effected side. Patient actively abducts the leg, the doctor the exerts downward pressure on the proximal knee.

579
Q

What is a Positive Hip Abduction Stress Test?

A

Pain at the Posterior Superior Iliac Spine (PSIS)

580
Q

What does a Positive Hip Abduction Stress Test indicate? (Two indications)

A

Sacroiliac (SI) joint problems

Gluteus Medius Weakness

581
Q

How is Nachlas Test Performed?

A

Patient’s leg flexed to 90 degree. Heel is approximated to the same buttock. Doctor stabilizes the side they are testing

582
Q

What is a Positive Nachlas Test?

A

Pain in the Sacroiliac (SI) Joint

583
Q

What are two indications of Nachlas Test?

A

Sacroiliac (SI) joint lesion

If pain in anterior thigh; Femoral Nerve Stretch

584
Q

How is Patrick’s FABERE Test Performed?

A

Patient supine. Thigh is Flexed, Abducted, Externally Rotated and Extended while downward press is placed on the opposite Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) and same knee

585
Q

What is a Positive Patrick FABERE Test?

A

Pain in the hip

586
Q

What does a Positive Patrick FABERE Test indicate?

A

Hip Lesion

587
Q

How is Laguerre’s Test Performed?

A

Patrick FABERE in the Air

Patient supine. Thigh is Flexed, Abducted, Externally Rotated and Extended while downward press is placed on the opposite Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) and same knee

588
Q

What is a Positive Laguerre’s Test?

A

Pain in the hip

589
Q

What does a Positive Laguerre’s Test indicate?

A

Hip Lesion

590
Q

How is Thomas Test Performed?

A

Patient supine, thigh is flexed with the knee bent up to the abdomen.

591
Q

What is a Positive Thomas Test?

A

Opposite knee/thigh rises off the table

592
Q

What does a Positive Thomas Test Indicate?

A

Hip flexion contracture

593
Q

How is Allis Test Performed?

A

Patient supine, both knees flexed to 90 degrees with feet placed flat on the table and both malleoli approximated.

Doctor compares the height of the knees

594
Q

What is a Positive Allis Test?

A

Significant difference in knee height

595
Q

What does a Positive Allis Test indicate?

A

On knee taller an one more forward=
Posterior displacement of the femoral heal
Short femur

If one leg is Taller= Tibial Problem
If one knee is Forward= Femur Problem

596
Q

How is Ortolani’s Test Performed?

A

Infant is supine. Leg are abducted and externally rotated

597
Q

What is a Positive Ortolani’s Test?

A

Palpable or Audible Click

598
Q

What does a Positive Ortolani’s Test indicate?

A

Congenital Hip Dysplasia

599
Q

How is Barlow’s Test Performed?

A

Infant supine, hip in Adduction, gentle posterior pressure on each hip, one at a time

600
Q

What is a Positive Barlow’s Test?

A

Deep sounding “Thunk” as the femoral head subluxates Out of the socket

601
Q

What does a Positive Barlow’s Test indicated?

A

Congenital Hip Dysplasia

602
Q

How is Ober’s Test Performed?

A

Patient is side lying, involved side up.
Doctor places on hand on the pelvis. Thigh is abducted and extended.
Doctor then allows the leg to drop into adduction

603
Q

What is a Positive Ober’s Test?

A

Knee stays elevated (Abducted)

604
Q

What does a Positive Ober’s Test indicate?

A

Tensor Fascia Lata (TFL) Contracture

605
Q

How is Ely’s SIGN Performed?

A

Patient Prone. The heel is approximated to the same buttock after flexion of the knee

  • No Stabilization*
  • *Sign-Same-pSoas**
606
Q

What is a Positive for Ely’s SIGN?

A

Pain

607
Q

What does a Positive Ely’s Sign indicate?

A

Rectus Femoris Contracture

pSoas

608
Q

How is Ely’s TEST Performed?

A

Patient prone. The heel is approximated to the opposite buttock and hyperextended

609
Q

What is a Positive Ely’s TEST?

A

Pain

610
Q

What does a Positive Ely’s TEST indicate?

A

Hip Lesion
Illiopsoas irritation
Inflamed lumbar nerve roots

611
Q

How is Trendelenburg’s Test Performed?

A

Patient stands and raises one foot of the floor and then the other, while the doctor observes the buttock/pelvis

612
Q

What is a Positive Trendelenburg’s Test?

A

Buttock/Pelvis on the foot that is raised off the floor drops
Patient will have Low Back Pain (LBP)

613
Q

What does a Positive Trendelenburg’s test indicat3e?

A

Hip Abductors are week on stance (Grounded) led side

614
Q

What Knee condition is described as “Swelling and pain immediately after and injury”?

A

Ligament Tear

615
Q

How is a Meniscal Tear described?

A

Swelling occurs 12-24 hours after injury. Unable to lock out joint

616
Q

What are two other names for Chondromalacia Patella?

A

Patellofemoral Tracking Disorder

Runner’s Knee

617
Q

What muscle pulls the patella lateral in Runner’s Knee?

A

Vastus Lateralis

618
Q

What motion/action is most provocative in Patellofemoral Tracking Disorder?

A

Walking down stairs

619
Q

What condition is caused by Chondromalacia Patella?

A

Retropatelar Degenerative Joint Disease

620
Q

What two orthopedic test are performed to confirm Chondromalacia Patella?

A

Clark’s

Fouchet’s

621
Q

What knee condition is seen in athletes doing repetitive knee extensions?

A

Osgood Schlatter’s

622
Q

What bone is injured in Osgood Schlatter’s Disease?

A

Avulsion fracture of the Tibial tuberosity

623
Q

What are two things to know about Osteochondritis Dessicans? (Knee Condition)

A 
Avascular Necrosis (AVN)
Knee Locks out of Extension
624
Q

What orthopedic test is used to confirm Osteochondritis Dessicans?

A

Wilson’s Sign

625
Q

What is the name of the knee condition that is “Prepatellar bursitis after repetitive pressure on the knee”?

A

Housemaid’s Knee

626
Q

What is another name for Jumper’s Knee?

A

Patellar Tendonitis

627
Q

Where is the pain in Tensor Fascia Lata (TFL) Syndrome?

A

Lateral knee

628
Q

What causes the pain in Tensor Fascia Lata (TFL) Syndrome?

A

A shortened Tensor Fascia Lata (TFL)

629
Q

What population and movements make Tensor Fascia Lata (TFL) Syndrome worse?

A

Population: Runners
Movements: Walking or running up and down hill or stairs

630
Q

What three orthopedic test are used to test/check the integrity of the collateral ligaments of the knee?

A

Abduction Stress Test (Valgus Stress Test)
Adduction Stress Test (Varus Stress Test)
Apley’s Distraction Test

631
Q

What is another name for Abduction Stress Test?

A

Valgus Stress Test

632
Q

How is the Abduction Stress Test Performed?

A

Patient is supine. Doctor applies valgus stress to the knee while abducting the foot in full extension and at 30 degrees of flexion

633
Q

What is a Positive Valgus Stress Test?

A

Increased Pain or Laxity

634
Q

What does a Positive Abduction Stress Test indicate?

A

Medial Collateral Ligament Involvement

635
Q

What is another name for Varus Stress Test?

A

Adduction Stress Test

636
Q

How is the Adduction Stress Test Performed?

A

Patient is supine. Doctor applies Varus stress to the knee while adducting the foot in full extension and at 30 degrees flexion

637
Q

What is a Positive Adduction Stress Test?

A

Increased Pain or Laxity

638
Q

What does an Positive Adduction Stress Test indicate?

A

Lateral Collateral Ligament Involvement

639
Q

How is Apley’s Distraction Test Performed?

A

Patient is prone, knee flexed to 90 degrees. Doctor anchors the thigh of the patient and grasps proximal to the foot and applies upward pressure and rotates the leg internal and externally.

Heel points to the side being tested

640
Q

What is a Positive Apley’s Distraction Test?

A

Pain in the knee

641
Q

What does a Positive Apley’s Distraction Test indicate?

A

Collateral Ligament Tear

Heel points to the side of torn ligament

642
Q

What four Orthopedic Test can be performed for the Cruciate Ligaments of the Knee?

A

Drawer Test
Slocum’s Test
Lachman’s Test
Posterior Sag Sign

643
Q

How is Drawer Test Performed?

A

Patient is supine. Knee is flexed to 90 degrees and hip to 45 degrees. Doctor Stabilizes the foot on the table.
Tibia is then drawn forward and back

644
Q

What is a Positive Drawer Test?

A

Pain or Joint Laxity

645
Q

What does a Positive Drawer Test indicate?

A

Anterior (Pulling A-P) Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear

Posterior (Pulling P-A) Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear

646
Q

How is Slocum’s Test Performed?

A

Rotary Instability

Patient is Supine. Knee is flexed to 90 degrees foot is put into internal and external rotation.
Doctor stabilizes the foot and grasps the leg with thumbs palpating the knee joint.
Doctor pulls the tibia applying P-A stress in the knee

647
Q

What is a Positive Slocum’s Test?

A

Pain or Joint Laxity

648
Q

What does a Positive Slocum’s Test indicate?

A

External Rotation: Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) AND Medial Cruciate Ligament (MCL)

Internal Rotation: Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) AND Lateral Cruciate Ligament (LCL)

649
Q

How is Lachman’s Test Performed?

A

Best test for the Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)

Patient supine. Knee is flexed to 30 degrees
Doctor stabilizes the femur with one hand and pulls the tibia forward with the other

650
Q

What is a Positive Lachman’s Test?

A

Soft End Feel

651
Q

What does a Positive Lachman’s Test indicate?

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) instability

652
Q

How is Posterior Sag Sign Performed?

A

Dashboard to Tibia in a motor vehicle accident

Patient Supine. knees flexed to 90 degrees, hip flexed to 45 degrees
Doctor compares the prominence for the Tibial tuberosites

653
Q

What is a Positive Posterior Sag Sign?

A

Tibial drops back (sags) on the femur

654
Q

What does a Positive Posterior Sag Signe indicate?

A

Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear

655
Q

What three orthopedic test can be performed to test the Meniscus of the knee?

A

MuMurray Sign
Apley’s Compression Test
Bounce Home Test

656
Q

What is the best orthopedic exam for the Meniscus of the knee?

A

McMurray Sign

657
Q

What is lacking to the Meniscus of the knee?

A

Nerve Supply

658
Q

If a patient has a meniscus issue how long will it be after an injury until you see swelling?

A

12-24 hours

659
Q

How is MuMurray Sign Performed?

A

Patient supine. Doctor flexes the thing and leg to 90 degrees.
Doctor places one hand on the knee, grasps the patient’s heel.
Doctor Externally rotates the leg, and then slowly extends the knee.
Doctor then internally rotates the leg and brings it into extension with a valgus stress to the joint

660
Q

What is a Positive MuMurray Sign?

A

Painful click or snap heard

661
Q

What does a Positive MuMurray Sign indicate?

A

Lateral Meniscus: Internal Rotation

Medial Meniscus: External Rotation

662
Q

How is Apley’s Compression Test Performed?

A

Patient Prone with knee flexed to 90 degrees
Doctor anchors the thigh of the patient and grasp proximal to the foot and applies downward pressure and rotates the leg internally and externally.

Heel Points to the side being tested

663
Q

What is a Positive Apley’s Compression Test?

A

Pain in the knee

664
Q

What does a Positive Apley’s Compression Test indicate?

A

Lateral Meniscus: External Rotation

Medial Meniscus: Internal Rotation

Heel Points to side of Pathology

665
Q

How is Bounce Home Test Performed?

A

Patient is supine, knee is flexed completely

Knee is dropped into extension

666
Q

What is a Positive Bounce Home Test?

A

Incomplete Extension

667
Q

What does a Positive Bounce Home Test indicate?

A

Meniscus Tear

12-24 hours before you will see swelling

668
Q

What two orthopedic tests can be to check the Patella?

A

Apprehension Test of the Patella

Clarke’s Sign AKA Patellar Grinding Test

669
Q

What is another name for Clarke’s Sign?

A

Patellar Grinding Test

670
Q

How is Apprehension Test of the Patella Performed?

A

Patient supine.

Doctor displaces patella medial to lateral

671
Q

What is a Positive Apprehension Test of the Patella?

A

Patella will feel dislocated and the quadriceps contracts

Look at face for alarm/apprehension

672
Q

What does a Positive Apprehension Test of the Patella indicate?

A

Chronic Patellar Dislocation

673
Q

How is Clarke’s Sign Performed?

A

Patient supine, with knee extended
Doctor applies superior to inferior pressure on the superior pole of the patella and ask the patient to contract the quadriceps

674
Q

What is a Positive of Clarke’s Sign?

A

Retropatellar Pain

Inability to sustain a contraction of the quadriceps

675
Q

What does a Positive Clarke’s Sign indicate?

A

Chondromalacia Patella

676
Q

What are three additional orthopedic exams that can be done on the knee?

A

Wilson’s Test
Dreyer’s Test
Noble Compression Test

677
Q

How is Wilson’s Test Performed?

A

Patient is seated and actively extends and flexes knee with tibia internally rotated.
When 30 degrees is reached the pain increases and is relieved by external rotation of the tibia

678
Q

What is a Positive Wilson’s Test?

A

Decrease in Pain

This test has been seen on Boards lately

679
Q

What does a Positive Wilson’s Test indicate?

A

Osteochondritis Dessicans (Avascular Necrosis)

680
Q

How is Dreyer’s Test Performed?

A

Patient supine. Asked to raise their extended leg, unable to do so.
Doctor applies pressure to the quadriceps muscle and patient can lift their leg

681
Q

What is a Positive Dreyer’s Test?

A

Patient can only lift their leg with pressure is applied to the quadriceps muscle

(This test has been seen on Boards lately)

682
Q

What does a Positive Dreyer’s Test indicate?

A

Fractured Patella

683
Q

How is Noble Compression Test Performed?

A

Patient supine. Hip and knee are both flexed at 90 degrees

Doctor applies pressure to the lateral femoral condyle while extending the knee

684
Q

What is a Positive Noble Compression Test?

A

Pain over the area of Pressure

685
Q

What does a Positive Noble Compression Test indicate?

A

Tensor Fascia Lata (TFL) Syndrome

AKA

Illiotibial Band Syndrome

686
Q

What are three abnormalities of the foot?

A

Pes Planus
Talipes Equinovarus
Pes Cavus

687
Q

What condition is commonly called “Flat Feet” and have the heads of the tarsals displaced medially and downward (Plantarward)?

A

Pes Planus

688
Q

What are the two treatments for Pes Planus?

A

Exercise foot muscles, pull a towel in with toes

Orthotics

689
Q

What is another name for Club Foot?

A

Talipes Equinovarus

690
Q

How is Talipes Equinovarus described?

A

Most common birth defect, heel is elevated and foot is turned inward

691
Q

What is the condition of very high arches and toes are in flexion?

A

Pes Cavus

692
Q

What is a treatment of Pes Cavus?

A

Orthotics

693
Q

What is a patient with Pes Cavus prone to?

A

March/Stress Fracture

694
Q

What is the name of the nerve tumor most commonly between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal head?

A

Morton’s Neuroma

695
Q

What is another name for a Metatarsal Stress Fracture?

A

March Fracture

696
Q

What is the name of the condition that is often seen with pain in the morning and brought on by a heel spur?

A

Plantar Fasciitis

697
Q

In the condition of Plantar Fasciitis when does the pain decrease?

A

Throughout the day

698
Q

What is one possible treatment of Plantar Fasciitis?

A

Deep tissue massage

699
Q

What is the name of the condition that has a burning pain on the sole of the foot (Medial Plantar Nerve)?

A

Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome

700
Q

What two orthopedic test that can be used to check for Achilles Tendon Rupture?

A

Thompson’s Test AKA Simmond’s Test/Trauma

701
Q

What is the most common sprain/strain of the ankle?

A

Inversion

702
Q

What grade of Sprain/Strain has “No ligaments torn, but may have slight swelling or decreased range of motion”?

A

Grade 1

703
Q

What is the treatment for a Grade 1 sprain/strain?

A 
PRICE
Protect
Rest
Ice
Compress 
Elevate
704
Q

How is a Grade 2 Sprain/Strain described? (Three characteristics)

A

Incomplete or partial Rupture
Lots of swelling and bruising
Almost no range of motion (immobilize 2-3 weeks)

705
Q

What are the characteristics of a Grade 3 sprain/strain?

A

Complete Tear
Surgical Case
Refer to and Orthopedist

706
Q

How is the Anterior Front Drawer Test Performed?

A

Patient Supine. Doctor places hand around anterior aspect of the lower tibia while grasping calcaneus in the palm of the other hand and then pulls calcaneus forward.

707
Q

What is a Positive Anterior Foot Drawer Test?

A

Talus slides forward

708
Q

What does a Positive Anterior Foot Drawer Test indicate?

A

Anterior Talofibular Ligament Instability
Calcanofibular Ligament
Posterior Talofibular Ligament

709
Q

How is the Medial and Lateral Stability Test Performed?

A

Patient is seated or supine.

Doctor grasps the patient’s foot and passively inverts and everts the foot.

710
Q

What is a Positive Medial and/or Lateral Stability Test?

A

Excessive gapping on either side

711
Q

What does a Positive Medial and/or Lateral Stability Test indicate?

A

During Inversion- Anterior Talofibular or Calcaneofibular ligament tear

During Eversion- Deltoid Ligament Tear

712
Q

What is another name for Thompson’s Test?

A

Simmond’s Test

713
Q

How is Thompson’s Test performed?

A

Patient Prone; feet hanging off the table

Doctor flexes knee to 90 degrees and squeezes the calf

714
Q

What is a Positive Thompson’s Test?

A

No Plantar flexion of foot

715
Q

What does a Positive Thompson’s Test indicate?

A

Achilles’ tendon Rupture

716
Q

What are the five Malingering test?

A 
Burn's Bench Test
Hoover's Sign
Lasegue's Sitting Test
Magnusson's Test
Mannnkopf's Sign
717
Q

How is Burn’s Bench Test Performed?

A

Patient is instructed to kneel on a table 18 inches off the floor, bend forward at the trunk and touch the floor.
Doctor holds the ankle

718
Q

What is a Positive Burn’s Bench Test?

A

Patient refuses to preform test

719
Q

How is Hoover’s Sign Performed?

A

Patient supine

Doctor places one hand under each heel and ask patient to lift affected limb

720
Q

What is a Positive Burn’s Bench Test?

A

Doctor does not fell the unaffected side pressing downward

721
Q

How is Lasegue’s Sitting Test Performed?

A

Patient is seated upright on the edge of the table/chair (with no back rest)
Doctor faces the patient and usually under the guise of “Checking circulation” extends the patient’s legs below the knee, one at a time, so the limb is parallel with the floor

722
Q

What is a Positive Lasegue’s Test?

A

No pain when there had been a Positive Straight Leg Raiser (SLR)

723
Q

How is Magnusson’s Test Performed?

A

At the beginning of the Case History, patient is asked to point to the site of pain
Doctor marks it with a skin marking pencil/documents on paperwork
Doctor later ask patient to point to site of pain

724
Q

What is a Positive Magnusson’s Test?

A

Patient does not point to the originally spot of pain

725
Q

How is Mannkopf’s Sign Performed?

A

Doctor takes a resting pulse rate

Doctor then applies pressure over the painful area and takes pulse rate again

726
Q

What is a Positive Mannkopf’s Sign?

A

An increase in pulse rate of 10 beats per minute

727
Q

What does a Positive Mannkopf’s Sign indicate?

A

Not a Malinger (Pulse Rate does not change)

728
Q

What are four orthopedic exams that can be used to diagnosis Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Chest Expansion Test
Forresiter’s Bowstring Sign
Lewis Supine Test
Amoss Sign

729
Q

How is Chest Expansion Test Performed?

A

A tape measure placed around the 4th intercostal space.
Patient exhales completely, measurement is taken
Patient inhales completely, measurement is taken

Normal 1.5-3 inches difference

730
Q

What is a Positive Chest Expansion Test? (Both Genders)

A

Women: Less than a 1.5 inch difference
Men: Less than a 2 inch difference

731
Q

How is Forrestier’s Bowstring Sign Performed?

A

Patient standing, have them bend to each side

732
Q

What is a Positive Forrestier’s Bowstring Test?

A

Muscle tightness on the ConCave side

733
Q

How is Lewin Supine Test Performed?

A

Patient Supine

Doctor supports the legs on the table. Patient in then asked to do a sit-up with out using their hands

734
Q

What is a Positive Lewin Supine Test?

A

Unable to perform a Sit-up without the use of their hands

735
Q

How is Amoss Sign Performed?

A

Patient is asked to go from a side-lying to a seated position

736
Q

What is a Positive Amoss Sign?

A

Localized thoracolumbar pain

Lack of Range of Motion

737
Q

What are three things a Positive Amoss Sign Indicate?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis
Intervertebral Disc Syndrome
Severe Sprain/Strain

738
Q

What condition are all indicated by:

A

Chest Expansion Test
Forrestier’s Bowstring Test
Lewin Supine Test
Amoss Sign

739
Q

Is it possible to diagnosis Ankylosing Spondylitis on x-Ray?

A

Yes

740
Q

In a patient with Meningeal Irritation what are four symptoms will they present with?

A

Fever
Headache
Photophobia
Nuchal Rigidity

741
Q

In a patient with Meningeal Irritation, when evaluating the Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) what macronutrient will be seen in each type and will it be increased or decreased?

A

Viral: Increase in Proteins (Lymphocytes)

Bacterial: Decrease in Glucose

742
Q

What two orthopedic exam Indicate Meningeal Irritation?

A

Brudzinski Sign

Kernig’s Sign

743
Q

How is Brudzinski Sign Performed?

A

Patient supine

Doctor passively flexes the patient’s head approximating chin to chest

744
Q

What is a Positive Brudzinski Sign?

A

Buckling of the patient’s knee

745
Q

How is Kernig’s Sign Performed?

A

Patient Supine

Doctor flexes the hip and knee to a 90/90 position and then attempts to extend the knee

746
Q

What is a Positive Kernig’s Sign?

A

Patient resists extension

Resistance causes a Kicking motion

747
Q

How is Gower’s Sign Performed?

A

When patient is arising from a supine position, patient turns prone and then climbs up themselves

748
Q

What does a Positive Gower’s Sign indicate?

A

Muscular Dystrophy

749
Q

How is Lhermitte’s Sign Performed?

A

Patient seated or supine

Patient actively and passively flexes chin to chest

750
Q

What is a Positive Lhermitte’s Sign?

A

Sharp electric shock like sensation don the the spine into the extremities

751
Q

What three conditions does a Positive Lhermitte’s Sign indicate?

A

Multiple Sclerosis**
Myelopathy
Demyelination cord lesions

752
Q

How is Libman’s Test Performed?

A

Doctor places thumbs on mastoid process, applies pressure until patient expresses discomfort

753
Q

What is Libman’s Test used for?

A

Pain threshold of a Patient

Can also be used for a malingering test

754
Q

How is Rust Sign performed?

A

Patient spontaneously grasp the head/neck with both hands when rising from a lying position

755
Q

What are three indications of a Positive Rust Sign?

A

Cervical instability due to a sprain/strain
Fracture
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)

756
Q

How is Schepelmann’s Sign Performed?

A

Patient raises both arms over head while seated and laterally bends to each side

757
Q

What does a Positive Schepelmann’s Sign indicate?

A

Concave Side pain: Intercostal Neuralgia

Convex Side pain: Pleurisy or Myofascitis

758
Q

How is Dejerine’s Triad Performed?

A

Patient has pain brought on by coughing, sneezing or bearing down

759
Q

What does a Positive Dejerine’s Triad indicate?

A

Space Occupying Lesion (SOL)

760
Q

How is Hofman’s Sign Performed?

A

Patient Supine
Hip and knee flexed to 90 degrees
Doctor squeezes and dorsiflexes the foot simultaneously

761
Q

What is a Positive Homan’s Sign?

A

Deep Calf Pain

762
Q

What does a Positive Homan’s Sign indicate?

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

763
Q

How is O’Donohue’s Test Performed?

A 
Patient actively moves any joint against resistance (Muscle being tested) and then 
Doctor passively (Ligament being tested) move the joint through full range of motion (ROM)
764
Q

What is a Positive O’Donohue’s Test?

A

Pain in the joint/area being tested

765
Q

What does a Positive O’Donohue’s Test indicate?

A

Pain at Passive Range of Motion (ROM): Sprain (Ligament)

Pain at Active Range of Motion (ROM): Strain (Muscle)

766
Q

What rating on the Wexler Scale (Deep Tendon Reflexes) indicate a Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL)?

A

0+

1+

767
Q

What function does a Afferent Nerve have?

A

Sensory

768
Q

What is the function of a Efferent Nerve?

A

Motor

769
Q

What nerve has Worse pain at night?

A

Median Nerve

770
Q

What nerve innervates the lateral forearm and hand?

A

Median Nerve

771
Q

What nerve innervates the medial forearm and hand?

A

Ulnar Nerve

772
Q

What nerve innervates the posterior arm and hand?

A

Radial Nerve

773
Q

What are four things that can cause Scleratogenous Pain?

A

Facet
Sacroiliac (SI) joint
Scapular–Thoracic articulation
Tempromandibular Joint (TMJ)

774
Q

What condition will be seen in a patient who was baking cookies and burned their skin on a hot pan but did not realize it until they smelled burning skin/flesh?

A

Syringomyelia

775
Q

In what condition is it a contraindication of any heating modalities (i.e. Paraffin Baths)

A

Multiple Sclerosis

776
Q

What area of the brain is effected with a Lateral Nystagmus?

A

Cerebellum

777
Q

What area of the brain is effected if the patient has a Vertical Nystagmus?

A

Brain Stem

778
Q

What is the name of the test performed on patients with Myasthenia Gravis that has a decreased response overtime due to Acetylcholine receptors?

A

Holly-Jolly EMG

779
Q

In the condition of Brown Sequard, what side will have Motor and Sensory loss?

A

Motor Loss: Ipsilateral Side of lesion

Sensory Loss: Contralateral Side of lesion

780
Q

What “Type” of writing will you see in a patient with Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Very small (Microgaphy), trying to hide they resting tremor in their hand

781
Q

What is another name for Gillian-Barre Syndrome?

A

Laundry’s Paralysis

782
Q

What condition is seen in a patient who goes to the bathroom at night without turning on the lights?

A

Tabes Dorsalis

Decreased light is very similar to closing the eyes, Posterior Columns problem

783
Q

What condition will have difficulty walking upstairs?

A

Muscular Dystrophy

784
Q

What is the name of the condition that has chronic wide spread pain?

A

Fibromyalgia

785
Q

How is Fibromyalgia confirmed?

A

Pain at 11 of 18 tender points

786
Q

What four symptoms are associated with Fibromyalgia?

A

Fatigue
Sleep disturbances
Joint Stiffness
Depression

787
Q

What are five things that can cause a Space Occupying Lesion(SOL)?

A 
Disc
Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) encroachment 
Tumor
Inflammation 
Subluxation
788
Q

What type of lesion is a Space Occupying Lesion (SOL), said to be?

A

Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL)

789
Q

If a patient has pain on Ulnar deviation what is being affected?

A

Triangular Fibrocartilage Complex

790
Q

What orthopedic exam is paired with Nobel’s Compression Test?

A

Ober’s Test`

791
Q

Cruciate Ligaments are name for what?

A

Where they attach to the tibia (Cross your fingers)

792
Q

What is the most injured muscle of the Quadriceps?

A

Vastus Medialis

793
Q

What knee ligament is the most injured ligament?

A

Anterior Cruciate Ligament

794
Q

What meniscus is the most injured?

A

Medial Meniscus

795
Q

What action causes and Unhappy Triad?

A

A blow to the lateral side of the knee, then planted into the ground

796
Q

What three Structures are injured in an Unhappy Triad?

A

Medial Collateral Ligament
Anterior Cruciate Ligament
Medial Meniscus

797
Q

What two findings of the knee will be present if there is a Meniscus tear?

A

Walking and the knee gives way

Knee locks out (Bucket handle)

798
Q

What two grading of Sprain/Strain can be seen by a Chiropractor?

A

Grade 1

Grade 2

799
Q

Achilles tendon rupture is most commonly seen in patients who use what?

A

Corticosteroids

Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) (12 decks)

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