Principles (Part II) (Irene Gold) Flashcards
1
Q
Who is the Discoverer/Founder of Chiropractic?
A
Daniel David (DD) Palmer
2
Q
What year was Chiropractic founded in?
A
1985
3
Q
What are the “Short Levers” used by DD Palmer?
A
SP & TVP
4
Q
What is the foundation that Chiropractic is Based upon?
A
Tone (Nerves to tense or too slack)
5
Q
What does the Nerve Compression Theory state?
A
Causes of Subluxations are one of the following:
Psychic (Thoughts)
Mechanical (Trauma)
Chemical (Toxins)
6
Q
What phrase did DD Palmer coin?
A
Innate from Christianity
7
Q
Where did DD Palmer learn Chiropractic from?
A
Eastern European Bone Setters
8
Q
What is Chiropractic philosophy based on?
A
Principle of Structure (Spinal Column) to Function (Nervous System for healing)
9
Q
What is a term that is similar to Innate?
A
Homeostasis (Self Regulating and Self Healing)
10
Q
What term is defined as “Suggest that the body requires something greater than physical and chemical processes to function”?
A
Vitalism
11
Q
Who is the Developer of Chiropractic?
A
Bartlett Joshua (BJ) Palmer
12
Q
What three things did BJ Palmer introduce to the profession?
A
Neurocalometer (hand held instrument to detect heat imbalances)
Meric Chart of Nerve Tracing
Hold In One (HIO) Technique
13
Q
At what vertebral complex does the Hole In One (HIO) Technique apply?
A
C1/C2; were thought to be the only place a subluxation would occur, producing significant problems. Cord Compression Theory
14
Q
Who thought that “Subluxations are from abnormal Biomechanics caused by an imbalance in a weight bearing spine”?
A
Carver
15
Q
What did Carver think that all distortion of the spine started?
A
Pelvis
16
Q
What technique is Cox credited with developing?
A
Flexion/Distraction
17
Q
What five conditions can Flexion/Distraction technique help with?
A
Lumbar disc protrusion Spondylolisthesis Facet Syndrome Subluxation Scoliosis Curves
18
Q
Who developed the Sacro-Occipital Technique (S.O.T)
A
DeJarnette
19
Q
What is the “definition” of the Sacro-Occipital Technique (S.O.T)
A
Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) flow through the pumping action of the sacrum and the cranial Dura mater
20
Q
Who is paired with “Fixation theory of joint Hypomobility”?
A
Gillet/Faye
21
Q
What technique/person believed that “Subluxations are all posterior with disc wedging”?
A
Gonstead
22
Q
What technique is; upper cervical specific and deal with the dentate ligament?
A
Grostic
23
Q
Who is the Father of Homeopathy?
A
Hahnemann
24
Q
Who is the Father of Modern Medicine and was the first to manipulate?
A
Hippocrates
25
What four things did Illi determine?
Joint Hypermobility
SI joint movement
Pelvic dynamics
Discovered/tested (SI) ligaments
26
What is credited with the "3 Phase model of Instability"?
Kirkaldy-Willis
27
What are the three Phases of Instability?
Dysfunction
Unstable
Stabilization; breaking up spinal adhesions on and injured segment
28
Who is associated with the Segmental Facilitation Theory?
Korr
29
What is the center of Korr's Segmental Facilitation Theory?
Muscle
30
What Theory is described as the following "Subluxation creating a hyperactive nervous system rather than a decease in nerve impulses"?
Segmental Facilitation Theory, Korr
31
Who is the first to use heel lifts, and "sacrum is the keystone to the spine"?
Logan, Founded Logan Basic Technique
32
Who are the two "World Renowned scientist in the field of Biomechanics of the spine"?
Panjabi
| White
33
What is the General Adaptation Syndrome?
Under optimum conditions the body can respond to stressors
34
Who came up with the General Adaptation Syndrome?
Selye
35
What three things did Stephenson come up with?
Wrote Chiropractic Textbook
Identified 33 Principles of Chiropractic
"Safety Pin" Cycle
36
Who is the Founder of Osteopathy?
Andrew Taylor Still
37
Who "related the integrity of the spine and skeleton to the proper function of the circulatory system"?
Andrew Taylor Still
38
Who named the profession of Chiropractic?
Samuel Weed
39
What are the four parts of the Core Chiropractic Paradigm?
1. The Body is Self Regulating and Self Healing
2. Nervous System is the master system, regulates everything and connects person to their environment
3. Spinal biomechanics can cause subluxations and affect the body's nervous system and body function
4. Chiropractor; correct, manage and minimize vertebral subluxation through adjusting
40
What are the five components of a Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?
```
Neuropathophysiology
Kinesiopathophysiology
Myopathoology
Histopathology
Pathophysiology (Biochemical)
```
41
Who came up with the Five components of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?
Faye
42
What are three parts of the Neuropathophysiology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?
Irritation (Sustained Hyperactivity)
Compression or Mechanical Insult (Pressure, Stretching, Angulation, Distortion)
Decreased Axoplasmic Transport
43
What does Irritation of the Neuropathophysiology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) result in?
Facilitation
44
Irritation of the Anterior Horn cell exhibits what response?
Hypertonicity or muscle spasm
*Acute Facilitated*
45
What is exhibited when the Lateral Horn Cells are Irritated?
Vasomotor Changes
i. e.: Hypersympatheticotonic Vasoconstriction
* Acute Facilitated*
46
What Horn is Irritated when Sensory Changes are exhibited?
Posterior Horn Cells
*Acute Facilitated*
47
What does Compression in the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) result in?
Degeneration, which leads to:
Muscle atrophy (Anterior Horn)
Anesthesia (Posterior Horn)
Sympathetic Atonia (Lateral Horn)
*Chronic Inhibited*
48
What "Alters development, growth, and maintenance of cells or structures that are dependent on this trophic (Growth) influence expressed via the nerves"?
Decreased Axoplasmic Transport
49
What three phases can describe Kinesiopathophysiology?
Hypomobility
Diminished/Absent Joint Play
Segmental hypermobility due to compensation
50
What is Lack of Appropriate Joint Motion associated with in Kinesiopathophysiology?
Nociceptive and Mechnoreceptive reflex functions that include Proprioception
51
What do Early manifestations of Vertebral Subluxation lead to? (Kinesiopathophysiology)
Chronic Vertebral articulations
| Shortening of Ligaments-->Limited Range of Motion (ROM)
52
What is the Cornerstone Model of Chiropractic because it's the goal of adjusting to restore motion?
Kinesiopathophysiology
53
What component of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC), may include spasm or Hypertonicity of muscles as a result of compression/facilitation?
Myopathoology
54
What is Hilton's Law? (Myopathoology)
A nerve supplying a joint also supplies the muscles which move the joint and skin covering the articular intersection of those muscles
55
What is an Acute Condition of Myopathoology?
Spasm
56
What is a Chronic Condition of Myopathoology?
Atrophy
57
What are the four component of Histopathology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) relate to?
Inflammation
Pain
Heat
Swelling
58
How can the four components of Histopathology happen/become a result?
Trauma
Hypermobility Irritation
Repair Process
59
What are the five signs of Inflammation seen in Histopathology?
```
Redness (Rubor)
Heat (Calor)
Swelling (Tumor)
Pain (Dolor)
Loss of Function (Functio Laesa)
```
60
What component of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) is described as "Hormonal and chemical effect or imbalances related to the pre-inflammatory stress syndrome"?
Pathophysiology (Biochemical)
61
What three things are produced in the Pathophysiology (Biochemical) of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?
Histamines
Prostaglandins
Bradykinins
62
What are two areas you will see the Pathophysiology (Biochemical) of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?
Stress Syndrome
| Pro-Inflammatory
63
What is the end result of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?
Dis-Ease
64
What are the four Neurological Reflex Models?
Somatosomatic
Viscerovisceral
Somatovisceral
Viscersomatic
65
What must all reflex arcs involve?
Spinal Cord
66
What is a Reflex Arc?
Where the sensory meets the Motor
67
What Neurological Reflex Model is described as "Stimulus at one level of the musculoskeletal system produces reflex activity in the nervous system, which is then exhibited elsewhere in the musculoskeletal system"?
Somatosomatic
68
What is an example of the Somatosomatic Reflex?
Knee-Jerk reflex
69
What Reflex Model is "Afferent and Efferent are visceral sensory and autonomic nerve fibers"?
Viscerovisceral
70
What is a Somatovisceral reflex?
```
Afferents= Somatic Sensory Fibers
Efferents= Autonomic Fibers
```
71
What reflex is described as "Stimulus to nerves or receptors related to spinal structures produces reflexive responds to influencing function in the visceral organs"?
Somatovisceral
72
What is an example of Somatovisceral Reflex Arc?
Relieving pain and distress of primary dysmenorrhea via adjustments
73
What is a Viscerosomatic reflex?
```
Afferents= Visceral Sensory Fibers
Efferents= Somatic Motor Fibers
```
**Opposite of Somatovisceral Reflex**
74
What four things does the term "Somatic" refer to?
Skin
Bone
Muscle
Nerve
75
What is another term for Visceral?
Autonomic
76
What three things are related to Visceral (Autonomic)?
Organs
Lymph
Blood
77
What is the term defined as "Thinking about something"?
Psycho
78
Where does the "GATE" control theory of pain start?
Substantia Gelatinous (Lamina II of the Grey Mater)
79
What determines the degree of which the "Gate" is opened or closed?
Spinal Cord
80
Signals travelling on what fibers greatly depress pain transmission?
Type 1A (A Alpha), Fast, Afferent
81
What fibers does Pain travel on?
Type C (IV) Fibers
82
Where do pain fibers terminate?
Dorsal Horn of the Spinal Cord in the Substantia Gelatinosa
83
In the "Gate" Theory, when second order mechanoreceptor axon terminate what is caused?
Presynaptic inhibition
84
What do the subclavian arteries become?
Vertebral Arteries, then join to become the basilar arteries
85
What does the majority of the blood from the Vertebral Arteries supply?
Cranium
| Brain Stem
86
What are the nine symptoms that may be included with Vascular Insufficiency Models?
5 D's, 3 N's and an A
```
Diplopia (Double Vision, other visual disturbance)
Dizziness (Vertigo, Light Headedness)
Drop Attacks (Loss of Consciousness)
Dysarthria
Dysphagia
```
Nausea (Vomiting)
Numbness (On one side of the body or face)
Nystagmus
Ataxia of Gait
87
Where is the most common location for compression of the vertebral artery?
Over the posterior arch of C1
88
What movements cause the most compression of the Vertebral Artery?
Rotation and Extension of C1/C2
89
What is the area of importance in the Nerve Compression Theory?
Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)
90
What hypothesis "States that intervertebral subluxations may interfere with the normal transmission of nerve energy by irritating or compressing spinal nerve roots"?
Nerve Compression theory
91
What are the six anatomical components that can be found in the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?
```
Spinal Nerve
Nerve Root
Recurrent Meningeal Nerve
Blood Vessels
Lymphatics
Connective Tissue
```
92
What effects will be seen when a bone is on a nerve?
```
Decreased sensation
Pain in dermatome patterns
Decreased Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR)
Decreased nerve conduction
Muscle Atrophy
```
93
Why are Nerve Roots more mechanically predispose to irritation or compression than peripheral nerves?
Nerve Roots are placed in tension by traction of peripheral nerves, with head and neck movements
94
What are Nerve Roots (Endoneurium) lacking?
Strong Connective Tissue Sheaths that support Peripheral nerves (Epineurium and Perineurium)
95
Under what kind of strength will a Nerve Root fail before a Peripheral Nerve?
Tension
96
What is the term for Chemicals transported along Axoplasmic Transport?
Trophic
97
What is the slower kind of flow called?
Axoplasmic Transport (Retrograde)
98
What are four things to know about Antegrade Transport?
Forward Moving-- Cell Body to Terminal
Nerve Growth (Tropic)
Faster
More Common
99
What are four things to know about Axoplasmic Flow?
Backwards Moving
Bring products/waste to the cell body
Slower
Less Common
100
What will the alteration of Axoplasmic Flow lead to?
Aberrations of:
Structures
Function
Metabolism
**Leading to Disease or Dysfunction**
101
What are the four things that can cause Cord Compression (Compressive Myelopathy)?
```
Destruction of the Spinal Cord Tissue by:
Neoplasms
Hematomas
Congenital Defects
Extreme Trauma
```
102
What Hypothesis was used by BJ Palmer to describe the Hole In One (HIO) Technique?
Cord Compression
103
What vertebral level did BJ Palmer think would affect any and all functions of the body?
C1/C2
104
What are six other names for the Facilitation Hypothesis?
```
Fixation Theory
Segmental Facilitation
Segmental Hypothesis
Gamma Motor Gain
Proprioceptive Insult
Sympatheticotonia
```
105
What hypothesis is described as "A lowered threshold for firing in a spinal cord segment, as a result of afferent bombardment associated with spinal lesions"?
Fixation Theory
106
Who developed the first model to describe the neurological effects of segmental dysfunction?
Korr
107
How did Korr's model describe segmental dysfunction?
Sustained hyperactivity of a segment caused by a muscle spindle of activity
108
What are the neurological implications of Korr's Fixation Theory?
Segmental Dysfunction causes pathological somatic and visceral processes
109
Korr stated that a vertebra "stuck" in a normal or abnormal position but has normal Range of Motion is do to what?
Muscle spasm, producing Hypomobility and nociception (Pain)
110
What is the definition of Proprioceptive Insult?
Constant bombardment of nociception, lowering the threshold
111
What is another name for Neurodystrophic Hypothesis?
Neuroimmunomodulation
112
What theory is described as "Spinal biomechanical insult to nerves may affect intra-neural Axoplasmic transport mechanisms and, in turn, affect the quality of neurotropic influence and molecular (chemical) changes in the cell?
Neurodystrophic Hypothesis
113
In what theory did DD Palmer state that "Lowered tissue resistance is the cause of disease"?
Neuroimmunomodulation
114
Who stated that exposure to stress can cause "diseases of adaptation"?
Selye
115
What are the four stages of Adaptation?
Alarm
Resist
Adapt
Exhaust
116
What is the name of the mechanism that coordinates the response to stress?
Neuroendocrine
117
What is the name of the ligament that holds the dens in the fovea dentalis of atlas? (The indent on the posterior side of the anterior tubercle)
Transverse Ligament
118
What ligament goes from occiput to C2, includes the transverse ligament as the horizontal position and is Cross Shaped?
Cruciate Ligament
119
What ligament limits rotation of C2?
Alar Ligament
120
What is another name for the Alar Ligament?
Check Ligament
121
Where is the Alar ligament attached?
Sides of the dens to the occipital condyles
122
What motion is limited by the Apical Dental Ligament?
Limits flexion/extension of C2
123
Where is the attachment sites of the Apical Dental Ligament?
Apex of the dens to the anterior aspect of the foramen
124
What is the name Ligaments that connects the Pia to the Dura along the spinal cord?
Dentate Ligament (21 total ligaments)
125
What ligament limits Extension?
Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
126
Where is the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament located?
Front of the vertebral bodies from Sacrum to C2
127
What is the Tectorial Membrane?
Continuation of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament from C2 to the Occiput
128
Where is the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament the Widest, Thinner and Thinnest?
Widest- Cervicals
Thin- Lumbar
Thinnest- L5
129
What is the most important posterior ligament in limiting flexion?
Ligamentum Flavum
130
What is the name of the Ligament that is a continuation of the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament from Atlas to Occiput?
Anterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament
131
What Ligament limits flexion?
Posterior Longitudinal Ligament
132
Where is the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament located?
Back of the Vertebral Bodies (Anterior Portion of the Canal)
133
Where is the Ligamentum Flavum Located?
Lamina to Lamina (Posterior portion of the canal)
134
What Ligament has a high elastic content and is "yellow" in color?
Ligamentum Flavum
135
What is the name of the Ligamentum Flavum as it continues for C2 to C1?
Posterior Atlanto-Axial Ligament
136
What is the name of the Ligament given to the continuation of the Ligamentum Flavum from C1 to the Occiput?
Posterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament
137
Where can the Capsular Ligament be found?
Between Articular Processes
138
Where is the Supraspinous Ligament found?
From Spinous Process to Spinous Process
139
What is the name of the ligament between transverse processes?
Intertransverse Ligament
140
What is the name of the Ligament between Spinous Processes?
Interspinous Ligament
141
What is the name of the Ligament that is a continuation of the Supraspinous Ligament from C7 to the Occiput?
Ligamentum Nuchae (Nuchal Ligament)
142
At what levels is the Intervertebral Disc found?
Between the bodies of C2/C3 to the Lumbosacral Junction
143
What are the two basic components of the Intervertebral Disc?
Central- Gelatinous Nucleus Pulposus
Peripheral- Fibrocartilaginous Annular Fibrosus
144
What part of the disc allows for "limited torsion and limited rotation of the vertebra"?
Annulus Fibrosus
145
What is one function of the Annulus Fibrosus?
Allows the disc to adapt to stress
146
What is the blood supply that innervates the outer portion of the Annulus Fibrosis?
Sinuvertebral Nerves
147
What causes disc herniation, during the aging process?
Water content gradually decreases
148
Why are thoracic disc herniations rare?
Disc is very thick in this part of the spine
149
What is the positions that will increase pressure of the disc?
```
Recumbent
Standing
Sitting
Sitting Leaning Forward
Jumping
```
150
Where is the weakest part of the disc?
Posterolateral Aspect (narrowing of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament)
151
What will cause a fracture to the endplate but not a herniation?
Compressive Loads to the disc
152
How is the disc provided nutrients?
Imbibition (Motion)
153
What is the name given to "the connective tissue coverings arranged in thee distinct layers that cover and protect the spinal cord from excessive movement and damage"?
Meninges
154
What is the most external layer of the meninges?
Dura Mater
155
What layer of the meninges is the thickest and toughest?
Dura Mater
156
Where is the Dura Mater located?
Continuous for the cranial cavity to the Sacrum
157
What two thing does the Dura Mater cover?
Individual nerve roots
| Nerves as they exit the spinal canal
158
The sleeves of the Dura Mater follow what?
Nerves to the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)
| Surround a Swelling, which is the Dorsal Root Ganglion
159
What part of the Meninges is delicate and avascular?
Arachnoid Mater
160
What part of the Meninges is attached to the inner surface of the Dura?
Arachnoid Mater
161
What word is described for the projections from the Arachnoid to the Pia Mater?
Web-like
162
What is the name of the meninges that is a singular layer of connective tissue that adheres directly to the surface of the neural tissue, including individual cranial nerves and spinal rootlets?
Pia Mater
163
Where is the primary location of the Dentate Ligaments?
Thoracic Region
164
What side of the spinal cord do the Dentate Ligament project from and where do they attach?
Project- Lateral surface
Attach- Penetrate the Arachnoid Mater and anchor to the Dura Mater
165
What Theory does the Dentate Ligament go with?
"Dural Torque Theory"
Rotational stresses, meningeal torsion
166
In what movement will the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) open and close?
Open-Flexion
Close-Extension
167
What are the boundaries of the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?
```
Anterior: Bodies (Cervical and Uncinates)
Intervertebral Disc (IVD)
```
Superior: Pedicle
Inferior: Pedicle
Posterior: Zygopophyseal Joints (Facet Joints)
168
What are the anatomical contents of the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)? (Six things)
```
Spinal nerve
Nerve root
Recurrent Meningeal nerves
Blood Vessels
Lymphatics
Connective Tissue
```
169
What is the order of compression in an Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?
Adipose Tissue
Veins
Artery
Nerve
170
What is located inside the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?
Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)
171
What type of pressure is a Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG) most sensitive to?
Compression
172
What is most effected by a subluxation?
Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)
173
What is another name for a Cell body?
Soma
174
What part of the neuron structure extends from the soma an receives signal information from the local environment?
Dendrite
175
What term is "Signals which travel as action potentials are generated here"?
Axon
176
What is an Action Potential?
Summation of signals received from dendrites, which can be stimulatory or inhibitory . When it reaches the end of an axon it causes the release of a neurotransmitter
177
What two factors are action potentials based on?
Diameter of the nerve
| Degree of myelination
178
What is the name of the cell that produces myelin in the Central Nervous System (CNS)?
Oligodendrocytes
179
What condition has demyelinization of the Central Nervous System (CNS)?
Multiple Sclerosis (MS)
180
What is the name of the cell that produces myelin in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) (Insulates Nerve Fibers)
Schwann Cells
P.S- I Love you Schwann)
181
What condition has demyelinization of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?
Guillain-Barre
182
Where are cell bodies located?
Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)
183
What two processes does each Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG) contain?
Peripheral Process- extends to the periphery along he path taken by the spinal nerve and it's branches
Central Process- extends into the Central Nervous System (CNS), as the dorsal root of the spinal nerve
184
What two "senses" does a Mechanoreceptor determine?
Touch
| Hearing
185
What "sense" does a Thermoreceptor determine?
Temperature
186
What "sense" does a Nocioceptor determine?
Pain
187
What cell helps with determining Vision?
Electromagnetic
188
What two "senses" does a Chemoreceptor determine?
Smell
| Taste
189
What type of Somatic Motor Neuron, innervate and active skeletal muscle fibers through the Myoneural Junction?
Alpha Motor Neurons
190
What are two characteristics of an Alpha Motor Neuron?
Large Diameter
| Fast Conducting
191
What neurotransmitter is released by Alpha Motor Neurons?
Acetylcholine
192
What are two functions of Gamma Motor Neurons? (Somatic Motor Neuron)
Innervates muscle spindles
| Establishes a set point for muscle tone
193
What are four characteristics of A Alpha nerves?
Heavily Myelinated
Fastest
Largest
Most Sensitive
194
What are the six nerve fibers that are Peripheral Nerve Fibers?
```
A Alpha
A Beta
A Gamma
A Delta
B
C
```
195
What are three characteristics of C Fibers?
Un-Myelinated pain fibers
Small Diameter
Slow Conductivity
196
What is the Primary Neurotransmitter of C Fibers?
Substance P
197
What types of Sensory Only nerve fiber goes to the Muscle Spindle?
```
1A (Sensory Fiber)
A Alpha (Peripheral Nerve)
```
198
What type of Sensory Only nerve fiber is associated with Golgi Tendon Organs?
1B (Sensory Fiber)
199
What Type of nerve fibers is linked to "Muscle Spindle detects stretch/velocity"?
```
1A Motor (Contraction of Muscle) (Sensory Fiber)
A Alpha (Peripheral Nerve)
```
200
What Nerve fiber is linked with "Muscle Spindle effect, muscle tone"?
A Gamma Motor Neuron (Peripheral Nerve)
201
What nerve fiber is Preganglionic Autonomic Effect and White Rami Communicantes?
B (Peripheral Nerve)
202
What nerves are Fast Pain (Pressure Pain)?
```
A Delta (Peripheral Nerve)
III (Sensory Fiber)
```
203
```
What two nerves are with the following:
Slow Pain
Temperature Afferent
Postganglionic Autonomic Efferent
Gray Rami Communicantes
```
C (Peripheral Nerve)
| IV (Sensory Fiber)
204
What two nerves are with the following:
- Touch Pressure Receptor Afferents
- Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO) detects tension on joint/tendon
Sensory:
Joint position sense
Vibration sense
Two Point discrimination
A Beta (Peripheral Nerve)
1B (Sensory Fiber)
205
What is the most important function of the Autonomic Nervous System(ANS)?
Regulate Blood Flow
206
What hormone is released by the Sympathetic Nervous System?
Epinephrine
207
What is the location, Level and Horn, of the Sympathetic Nervous System?
T1-L2
Lateral horn of the spinal cord
208
What is the phrase that is usually associated with the Sympathetic Nervous System?
Fight or Flight
209
What are the body responses of the Sympathetic Nervous System?
Vasoconstriction of the Skin
Increased sudomotor activity (Sweat Glands)
Pilomotor Response (Hair Standing on End)
Pupils Dilate
Bronchodialation
Tachycardia
Blood to large Muscles
(Vasomotor, Sudomotor, Pilomotor=Sympathetic)
210
What is the term when the Sympathetic Nervous System is stimulated/facilitated?
Sympathicotonia
211
What is the term when the Sympathetic Nervous System is inhibited?
Sympathetic Atonia
212
What neurotransmitter is released by the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Acetylcholine
213
What is another term for the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Cholinergic
214
What is another term for the Sympathetic Nervous System?
Adrenergic
215
What is the location of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Cranio-Sacral Division
Cranial Nerves: III, VII,IX,X
("Cranial Nerves 3,7,9,10 are Parasympathetic Friends")
Sacral Nerves: S2,S3,S4 ("Keep the Penis off the Floor")
216
What is the phrase usually associated with the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
Rest and Digest
217
What are the two terms when the Parasympathetic Nervous System is stimulated/facilitated?
Parasympathicotonia
| Vagotonia
218
What is the term when the Parasympathetic Nervous System is inhibited?
Parasympathetic Atonia
219
What are the body responses of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?
```
Increased Peristalsis
Increased Smooth Muscle activity
Depressed respiration
Pupil Constriction
Bradycardia
Bowel and Bladder activity increased
Stimulation of secretions
```
220
What spinal tract is responsible for "Proximal Muscle Flexors of the upper extremity"?
Rubrospinal Tract
221
What spinal tract is responsible for "Extensor Muscle of the back and arms"?
Reticulospinal Tract
**Except and back muscles innervated by a Plexus;
Dorsal Scapular Nerve: Rhomboids and Levator Scapula
Thoracodorsal Nerve: Latissimus Dorsi
222
What spinal tract is responsible for "Neck Muscles"?
Tectospinal Tract
223
What area of the brain is responsible for reflex to light?
Superior Colliculus
224
What area of the brain is responsible for the reflex of sound?
Inferior Colliculus
225
What spinal tract is responsible for "information from the cerebellum and vestibular nuclei" (Extensor Muscle of Back and Legs)?
Vestibulospinal Tract
226
What spinal tract is responsible for "For Flexors of the distal extremities (hands and feet)"?
Corticospinal Tract (Pyramidal Tract)
227
What are the two sensations picked up by the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract?
Pain
| Temperature
228
What are the two sensations picked up by the Ventral Spinothalamic Tract?
Crude Touch
| Pressure
229
The Dorsal Columns Medial Lamniscus (DCML) carry what sensation?
Conscious Proprioception
230
What are three examples of Conscious Proprioception?
Vibration
Joint Position Sense
2-Point Discrimination
(Dorsal Columns; Medial Lamniscus)
231
What two receptors in the Dorsal Columns pick up Touch?
Meissner's
| Merkel's
232
What receptor in the Dorsal Columns pick up Vibration?
Pacinian Corpuscle
233
What receptor in the Dorsal Columns pick up Joint Position Sense?
Ruffini
234
What sensation is picked up by the Spinocerebellar Tract?
Unconscious Proprioception
235
What two types of cells are found in the Spinocerebellar Tract?
Muscle Spindle Cells (MSC)
| Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO)
236
What type of fiber and "Feeling" are determined by Muscle Spindle Cells?
Type 1a fiber
Feeling- Stretch
237
What type of fiber and "Feeling" are determined by Golgi Tendon Organ?
Type 1b fiber
Feeling- Tension
238
What are the six Goals of Adjustments?
1. Stimulate the 1b Golgi Tendons and Postsynaptic Inhibition of the alpha motor neurons due to fast stretch on the tendon
2. Close the pain gait by sending a proprioceptive message to the Central Nervous System (CNS) on large type A fibers
3. Increase mechanoreceptors bombardment (closing pain gait)
4. Break up adhesions
5. Increase Mobility/Motion
6. Improve Neurological Function
239
On the Meric Chart what are the levels of C2/C3 associated with?
Tonsils
240
What levels on the Meric Chart are associated with the Heart and Lungs?
T1-T4
241
On the Meric Chart what level is associated with the Gallbladder?
T4
242
What level on the Meric Chart are associated with the Stomach?
T5-T9
243
What three organs are associated with the T6-T10 area of the Meric Chart?
Liver
Pancreas
Gallbladder
244
On the Meric Chart what levels are associated with the Kidney?
T10-T12
245
What levels and two organs are Sympathetically Driven on the Meric Chart?
Level: L1-L2
Organs:
Ovary
Colon
246
What area and two organs are Parasympathetically Driven on the Meric Chart?
Area: Sacrum
Organs:
Colon
Uterus
247
What term has the following definition: Sensory impulses from the periphery to the posterior horn of the spinal cord?
Afferent
248
How is the term Allodynia defined?
Perception of pain from a normally non-painful stimulus
249
What term has the following definition: Pathological fusion of bone across a joint?
Ankylosis
250
What are the components of a Anterior Motion Segment?
Two Vertebral Bodies
Intervertebral Disc
Weight Bearing
251
What term has the following definition:
Type II nerve injury
Physical disruption of the axon with Wallerian degeneration results in temporary paralysis and sensory changes. Intact sheath of the Schwann allows recovery in weeks to month. Partial reaction of degeneration.
Axonotmesis
252
What is released from a damaged muscle cell
Is part of the inflammatory process
Sensitizes Nociceptors
Bradykinin
253
Which nerve fibers are: Small, Slow, Non-Myelinated and carry pain sensation (Nociceptors)
C Fibers
254
The following definition describes what word:
An increase in strain of a material that occurs during constant stress from loading. It is a deformation of viscoelastic tissue to a constant, steadily applied load. In the body, the structure may or may not return to it's original length or shape?
Creep
255
What structure innervates the skin and muscles of the back?
Dorsal Rami
256
What kind of pain is seen by nerve root compression?
Dermatogenous Pain
257
What are three words to describe a Dermatogenous Pain Pattern?
Sharp
Burning
Radicular
258
How is the term Efferent defined?
Motor impulses from the Anterior horn of the spinal cord to the periphery
259
What word is defined by the following:
| The tendency of a tissue under load to return to it's original size and shape after the removal of the load?
Elasticity
260
What structure in the body has a major elastic component?
Ligaments
261
What word has the following definition:
| Connective Tissue that surrounds an individual nerve fiber?
Endoneurium
262
What is the definition of Epineurium?
Connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve and it's major branches
263
What anatomical structure is responsible for direction of motion (Directional Guidance)?
Facets
264
What term has the following definition:
| Increase in afferent stimulation causes a decrease threshold for firing?
Facilitations
265
What will a continued stimulation resulting in?
Hyperactive Responses
266
Where are Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO) located and what do they detect?
Location: End of the Muscle
Detect: Muscle Tension
267
What is inhibited when a Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO) is stimulated?
Muscle Contraction
268
What term has the following definition:
Treats the patient with heavily diluted preparations (Primarily from plants and mineral sources) which are thought to cause effects similar to the symptoms present?
Homeopathy
269
The following definition is paired with what word?
Presences of excess blood in the vessels supplying a particular region of the body with hyper-active responses (Hypersympathicotonia)
Hyperemia
270
What is the term for an effect of constant loading and unloading of a tissue?
Hysteresis
271
What is thought to be an over use movement in the body causing Hysteresis?
Leaning Forward
272
What is the term for "Intra-Articular synovial tabs"
Meniscoid
273
What can a Meniscoid prevent?
A joint from having full mobility
274
What is a Motion Segment?
Function Unit of the Spine
275
What are the parts that make up a Motion Segment?
Two Vertebral Bodies
Disc (Between the Bodies)
Articular Facets
Ligaments binding the two vertebra together
276
What components of the Motion Segment make up the
| Anterior and Posterior parts?
Anterior: Vertebral Bodies and Disc
Posterior: Articular Facets
277
What term is defined by the following:
| A receptor that is sensitive to the length/stretch of an intrafusal fiber?
Muscle Spindle
278
What term has the following definition:
Type I nerve injury
A local nerve conduction block (Nerve pressure or blunt trauma) with no physical disruption of the axon resulting in transient paralysis, slight sensory change
No reaction of degeneration
Recovery is usually hours to days
Neurapraxia
279
What is the name of the structure that is a "Sensory receptor sensitive to pain"?
Nocioceptor
280
What term has the following descriptions:
Type III Nerve Injury
Most serious degree of nerve injury. Involves the disruption of the nerve and the nerve sheath
Full reaction of degeneration
No recovery is possible
Neurotmesis
281
What occupation had the "Focus was on the "rule of the Artery" and used nonspecific manipulation to enhance the flow of blood"?
Osteopathy
282
What is the definition of Perineurium?
Connective tissue that surrounds smaller bundles of nerve fibers
283
What term has the following definition:
Property of material that instantly deforms when a load is applied and does not return to it's original shape when the load is removed?
Plasticity
284
What is an anatomical example of Plasticity?
Bone
285
What makes up the Posterior Motion Segment?
Articular Facets
286
What two type of receptors surround the Posterior Motion Segment?
Mechanoreceptors
| Nociceptors
287
Where are and what is the function of Proprioceptors?
Location: Muscles, Tendons, Joints
Function: Detect position and motion of the body
288
What kind of pain is often seen in a Facet or Sacroiliac (SI) joint?
Scleratogenous Pain
289
What are to characteristics of Scleratogenous Pain?
Pain is dull in nature
| Poorly localized pain
290
What is another name for the Sinuvertebral Nerve?
Recurrent Meningeal Nerve
291
What term is described by the following:
Recurrent branches of the primary dorsal rami of the spinal nerve that innervates the fascia, ligaments, periosteum, intervertebral joints and intervertebral disc of the vertebra
Goes to the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL), Ligamentum Flavum, and anterior Dura
Sinuvertebral Nerve
292
What ligament does the Recurrent Meningeal Nerve not go to?
Anterior Longitudinal Ligament
293
What term "essentially refers to the skin, bone, nerve and muscle"?
Soma (Somatic)
294
What is the term that refers to growth and nutrition?
Trophic
295
What structure runs through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebra, beginning at C6?
Vertebral Arteries
296
Obstruction of what area and artery may lead to insufficient blood flow to the head?
Area: Transverse Foramina
Artery: Vertebral Artery
297
What structure in the spinal cord, innervates the skin and muscles of the trunk and limbs?
Ventral Rami
298
What is the term that refers to the autonomic organs, blood and lymph vessels?
Viscera (Visceral)
299
What is the term that has the following definition:
| The principle that maintains the laws of physics and chemistry cannot explain the nature of life?
Vitalism
300
What is the definition of Wolff's Law?
Bone is shaped by the forces placed on it or the lack of forces as in immobilization
301
What Law has the following definition:
The trunk of a nerve sends branches to a particular muscle, the joint moved by the muscle and the skin overlaying the insertion of the muscle.
Altered nerve activity to a muscle may be associated with altered nerve activity to the segmentally related spinal joints.
Hilton's Law
302
What Law is described by: Increased epiphyseal pressure leads to decreased grown and vice versa
Heuter-Volkman's Law
303
What disease is an example of Heuter-Volkman's Law?
Scheuermann's Disease
304
What law states; the Anterior horn of the cord is motor, while the posterior horn is sensory?
Bell-Magendie
305
What sensation is perceived by the examiner during passive range of motion of a joint?
End Feel
306
What is Soft Tissue Approximation?
Normal resistance felt with the joint motion is restricted by soft tissue (i.e. Elbow Flexion)
307
How is Bony Palpation described?
Abrupt halt as two hard surfaces meet
| Full range of motion has been achieved
308
What is another term for a Spasm?
Guarded, resisted by muscle contraction
309
What should you feel in a Spasm?
Muscle reaction
310
Why can end feel not be felt is Spasm?
Because of pain or Guarding
311
What is one condition that is a spasm that may be a contraindication to adjust?
Torticollis
312
What term is defined as "Perceived as a hard arrest with a slight give"?
Capsular feel
313
What condition may have a Capsular Feel of Palpation?
Sub-acute or chronic arthritis (Rheumatoid Arthritis)
314
How Is Springy Block Palpation defined?
Slight "rebound" at the end range of motion
315
What is one condition that may have a Springy Block feeling?
Meniscal Tear, internal derangement of the joint (Positive Bounce Home Test)
316
What is the term used when a patient feels pain before full range of motion is achieved?
Empty Feel
317
What is possibly suggested by Empty Feel?
Pathology (i.e. Bursitis, Abscess, Neoplasm)
318
What kind of Fixation has the following description:
Secondary fixation due to chronic involuntary Hypertonicity of muscles
Palpates as deep, taut and tender fibers,
Exhibits restricted mobility and rubbery end bock
Muscular Fixation
319
What is an example of Muscular Fixation?
Acute Torticollis
320
What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Chronically fixed segment that may lead to ligamentous shortening
Palpates as an abrupt hard block with no end play with a normal range of motion
Ligamentous Fixation
321
What is an example of Ligamentous Fixation?
Chronic Whiplash
322
What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Fixation due to Exostosis
Joint exhibits free motion up to a point where there is an abrupt, complete, hard arrest
Bony Fixation
323
What is an example of Bony Fixation?
Advanced Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)
324
What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Major Fixation due to intra-articular adhesions
Joint has no end movement and is painful when challenged
Articular/Capsular Fixation
325
What is an example of Articular/Capsular Fixation?
Frozen Shoulder (May become Ankylosed)
326
What term is defined as the following:
| A written report on the details of a series of related cases
Case Series
327
What term is defined as the following:
| A written report on the details of a single case
Case Study
328
What term is defined as the following:
| Research that address issues directly related to patient care
Clinical Research
329
What term is defined as the following:
A prospective longitudinal experiment design to assess the comparative efficacy of effectiveness of a treatment, often labeled a randomized clinical trial if random assignments of subject are made to each of the comparison treatment groups
Clinical Trial
330
How is the term Cohort defined?
Defined group of people observed over a period of time
331
What term is defined as the following:
Comparison group assignment in a clinical trial that receives no treatment, a placebo treatment or an alternative treatment
Control group
332
What is the term defined as "Measurements taken at one moment in time"?
Cross Sectional Studies
333
What term is defined as the following:
| An experiment in which patients and either doctors or outcome assessors are blind
Double Blind Study
334
What is the definition of Frequency?
A general or statistical expression of how often a condition or disease occurs
335
What is the definition of a Gold Standard?
A measured of agreed upon accuracy and validity
336
What term is defined as the following:
| The proportion of a clearly defined group, initially free of a condition, that develops it over a period of time
Incidence
337
What term is defined as the following:
| The consistency of measured results between different practitioners evaluating the same thing
InTERobserver reliability
338
What term is defined as the following:
| The consistency in which one practitioner can consistently arrive at the same result
InTRAobserver reliability
339
What term is defined as the following:
A study in which the researcher observes events as they occur naturally or in the course of normal practice, without attempting to have any influence
Observational Study
340
How is the term Prevalence defined?
The proportion of a population having a particular condition or outcome at a given moment
341
What term is defined as the following:
| A study that reviews events that have already occurred
Prospective Study
342
What term is defined as the following:
| A prospective longitudinal study in which the patients are divided into two or more groups on a randomized basis
Randomized Control Study
343
How is the term Reliability defined?
The consistency of a measurement when repeated
344
What is a Retrospective Study?
A study that reviews events that already occurred
345
What term is defined as the following:
| The proportion of times a diagnosis study is correct in patients without a specific diagnosis
Sensitivity
346
What term is defined as the following:
| A study in which the patients are blind as to weather they are in the experimental or comparison group
Single Blind Study
347
What term is defined as the following:
| The proportion of times a diagnostic procedure is correct in a patient without a specific diagnosis
Specificity
348
What term is defined as the following:
The degree to which an observation or measurement provides an indication of the true state of the phenomena being measured
Validity
