Handouts/Miscellaneous (Irene Gold) Flashcards
What is the dermatonal levels that the Sciatic nerve is found?
Begins at L4- S3
What muscle does the Sciatic nerve go through?
Piriformis
Where is the end of the Sciatic nerve?
Just above the popliteal fossa
What two nerves does the Sciatic nerve divide into?
Common peroneal nerve
Tibial nerve
What named nerve does the common peroneal nerve become on the medial side of the leg and foot?
Deep peroneal nerve
What is the name of the nerve found on the lateral side of the leg and foot?
Superficial peroneal nerve
What is the distribution of the Tibial nerve?
Travels down the back of the leg through the tarsal tunnel, posterior to the medial malleolus
-Becomes the medial and lateral plantar nerves on the bottom of the foot
What is the initial treatment of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?
Referral to a vascular specialist
Anticoagulant therapy
Elevate the legs
What are two follow up procedures to do after Anticoagulant therapy of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?
Venous stripping
Graduated compression stockings
How is the Stork Orthopedic test performed?
Patient is instructed to stand on one leg and place the lumbar spine into extension.
Repeat on the other side
What does a positive Stoke test indicate?
Spondylolytic Spondylolisthesis
What is indicated if there is only pain on one wrist when the Bracelet test is performed?
Wrist injury
What condition is diagnosed if there is pain bilaterally with the Bracelet test?
Rheumatoid Arthritis
When does Reyes Syndrome most commonly occur?
Giving an aspirin to a child
Recovery from a viral infection
i.e. Measles, Chicken Pox, Flu
What two conditions can Reyes Syndrome be diagnosed as?
Encephalitis
Meningitis
What are the symptoms of Reyes Syndrome?
Persistent/Recurrent vomiting
Personality Changes
(i.e. Combativeness, Irritability, Disorientation/Confusion, Delirium, Convulsion, Loss of Consciousness)
What two things can Reyes Syndrome lead to?
Hepatomegaly (Enlarged Liver)
Brain Damage
What is the name of the condition that is “Autoimmune demyelinating disease of the peripheral nervous system”?
Guillain Barre Syndrome
Where does Guillain Barre Syndrome start and what kind of Paralysis is it?
Starts- in the Legs
Paralysis type- Asending
What are three precursors to Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Immunizations
Viral infection
Following the flu
Is Guillain Barre Syndrome self resolving?
Yes
What percentage of people with Guillain Barre Syndrome have permanent muscle weakness or fatigue?
20%
Guillain Barre Syndrome becomes life threatening when what muscle is involved?
Diaphragm
What condition has the characteristics of: Clicking of the jaw Jaw locking Change in bite Ear problems/pain Hearing loss
Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) Headache
What two things can provoke Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?
Dental work
Grinding teeth at night
What are three treatments for Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?
Refer to a dentist
Adjust the jaw
Tension relaxation techniques
What is the cause of Rheumatic Fever?
Beta hemolytic Streptococcal Infection
What lab is ordered to diagnosis Rheumatic Fever
ASO-Titre
What is damaged in a patient with Rheumatic Fever?
Endocardium (Lining of the heart)
What heart valve is effected in Rheumatic Fever
Mitral Valve Stenosis
What is a patient with Rheumatic Fever predisposed to?
Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE), caused by Alpha hemolytic Streptococcal infection
How does a primary heart block show up on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?
Increased PR interval; Prolonged Atrioventricular (AV) block
On an electrocardiogram (EKG), what does it mean when there are two P waves before the QRS complex?
Weinkbochs- block at the bundle of HIS
Secondary Heart Block
What will be missing on the electrocardiogram (EKG), if there is complete heart block (no ventricular contraction)?
QRS complex
If the ST segment of a electrocardiogram (EKG) is enlarged or inverted, what does that indicate?
Myocardial Infarction (MI) (Acute Heart Failure)
In what condition will you see no P wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?
Atrial Fibrillation
An absent Q wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG) indicates what?
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
Where would you find a Type I (1) Salter Harris fracture?
Transverse Fracture through the growth plate/phsis
6% of the time
What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through the growth plate and metaphysis but spares the epiphysis?
Type II (2) (Salter Harris)
What percentage of fractures are Type II (2) Salter Harris fractures?
75%
How long does it take a Salter Harris Type II (2) fracture to heal?
2-3 weeks
What is a Type III (3) Salter Harris fracture?
Fracture through the Growth Plate and Epiphysis, sparing the metaphsis
What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type III (3) fracture?
8%
What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through all three areas, (Growth plate, Metaphysis, Epiphysis)?
Slater Harris Type IV (4)
What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type IV (4) fracture?
10%
What Type of Salter Harris fracture is seen in 1% of the population?
Type V (5)
What Type of Salter Harris fracture is described as: “Compression Fracture of the growth plate, resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and diaphysis on x-ray”?
Salter Harris Type V (5) fracture
What condition does heat make it better and cold makes it worse?
Fibromyalgia
What is the treatment for Fibromyalgia?
Conservative Chiropractic care
Aerobic Activities
How is Fibromyalgia diagnosed?
Pain at 11 of 18 tender points on digital palpation
What condition is “Chronic muscle pain in muscle and soft tissue surrounding joint, often seen with depression”?
Fibromyalgia
What are the four views taken for a wrist radiograph?
P-A
Lateral
Ulnar deviation
Medial Oblique
What is the most commonly fractured carpal?
Scaphoid
What is it called if the Scaphoid dislocates?
Signet Ring or Terry Thomas Sign
What is the clinical name for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Scaphoid?
Preisser’s
What carpal is dislocated to give the “Pie Sign”?
Lunate
What is the clinical term for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Lunate?
Keinbock’s
What are the four characteristics of all Benign Bone Tumors (BBT)?
Short Zone of Transition
Incidental Finding
Geographic Lesion
Encapsulated
What are the 5 D’s and the 3 N’s for a stroke patient?
5 D's Dizziness Drop Attack Diplopia (Double Vision) Dysarthria (Difficulty with speech) Dysphagia (Difficulty Swallowing)
3 N’s
Nausea
Numbness
Nystagmus
What five things are you Listening for in a patient that may be drunk?
Slurred speech Giddiness Voice Change Lack of context in speech Inappropriate reactions to situations
What is another name for the Supraspinatus Press test?
Empty Can test
How is the Supraspinatus Press test performed?
Patient is seated, patient abducts their arms to 90 degrees with elbows flexed at 90 degrees. Patient resist downward pressure on both arms.
Patient is then instructed to medially rotate the shoulder and point the thumbs downward.
If patient is unable to resist downward pressure from the doctor during the Empty Can test, what condition is indicated?
Tear of the Supraspinatus muscle
How is Speed’s Test carried out?
Patient is directed to flex the arm while doctor offers resistance on the forearm.
Patient further resist forearm into supination and extension
What does a positive Speed’s Test indicate?
Bicipital Tendinitis
If Speed’s Test is positive where will there be increased tenderness?
In the bicipital groove
What is the name of the condition and nerve involved in wrist issues?
DR CUMA
Drop wrist/ Radial nerve
Claw hand/Ulnar nerve
Median nerve/ Ape hand
What type of lesion is EVERY peripheral nerve lesion?
Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL)
What are two terms that are associated with and Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
Fusiform means Ballooning Out
What two “terms” should be associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Baker’s Cyst (Located in the Popliteal Fossa)
Inflammatory
What is a term that is often associated with Facet?
Meniscoid Enlargement
What exercises should a patient with the following issues do:
Disc
Facet
Disc: McKenzies Extension Exercises
Facet: Williams Flexion Exercises
