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Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) > Handouts/Miscellaneous (Irene Gold) > Flashcards

Handouts/Miscellaneous (Irene Gold) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dermatonal levels that the Sciatic nerve is found?

A

Begins at L4- S3

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2
Q

What muscle does the Sciatic nerve go through?

A

Piriformis

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3
Q

Where is the end of the Sciatic nerve?

A

Just above the popliteal fossa

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4
Q

What two nerves does the Sciatic nerve divide into?

A

Common peroneal nerve

Tibial nerve

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5
Q

What named nerve does the common peroneal nerve become on the medial side of the leg and foot?

A

Deep peroneal nerve

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6
Q

What is the name of the nerve found on the lateral side of the leg and foot?

A

Superficial peroneal nerve

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7
Q

What is the distribution of the Tibial nerve?

A

Travels down the back of the leg through the tarsal tunnel, posterior to the medial malleolus
-Becomes the medial and lateral plantar nerves on the bottom of the foot

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8
Q

What is the initial treatment of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?

A

Referral to a vascular specialist
Anticoagulant therapy
Elevate the legs

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9
Q

What are two follow up procedures to do after Anticoagulant therapy of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?

A

Venous stripping

Graduated compression stockings

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10
Q

How is the Stork Orthopedic test performed?

A

Patient is instructed to stand on one leg and place the lumbar spine into extension.
Repeat on the other side

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11
Q

What does a positive Stoke test indicate?

A

Spondylolytic Spondylolisthesis

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12
Q

What is indicated if there is only pain on one wrist when the Bracelet test is performed?

A

Wrist injury

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13
Q

What condition is diagnosed if there is pain bilaterally with the Bracelet test?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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14
Q

When does Reyes Syndrome most commonly occur?

A

Giving an aspirin to a child
Recovery from a viral infection
i.e. Measles, Chicken Pox, Flu

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15
Q

What two conditions can Reyes Syndrome be diagnosed as?

A

Encephalitis

Meningitis

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16
Q

What are the symptoms of Reyes Syndrome?

A

Persistent/Recurrent vomiting
Personality Changes
(i.e. Combativeness, Irritability, Disorientation/Confusion, Delirium, Convulsion, Loss of Consciousness)

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17
Q

What two things can Reyes Syndrome lead to?

A

Hepatomegaly (Enlarged Liver)

Brain Damage

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18
Q

What is the name of the condition that is “Autoimmune demyelinating disease of the peripheral nervous system”?

A

Guillain Barre Syndrome

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19
Q

Where does Guillain Barre Syndrome start and what kind of Paralysis is it?

A

Starts- in the Legs

Paralysis type- Asending

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20
Q

What are three precursors to Guillain Barre Syndrome?

A

Immunizations
Viral infection
Following the flu

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21
Q

Is Guillain Barre Syndrome self resolving?

A

Yes

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22
Q

What percentage of people with Guillain Barre Syndrome have permanent muscle weakness or fatigue?

A

20%

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23
Q

Guillain Barre Syndrome becomes life threatening when what muscle is involved?

A

Diaphragm

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24
Q 
What condition has the characteristics of: 
Clicking of the jaw
Jaw locking
Change in bite
Ear problems/pain
Hearing loss
A

Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) Headache

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25
Q

What two things can provoke Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?

A

Dental work

Grinding teeth at night

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26
Q

What are three treatments for Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?

A

Refer to a dentist
Adjust the jaw
Tension relaxation techniques

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27
Q

What is the cause of Rheumatic Fever?

A

Beta hemolytic Streptococcal Infection

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28
Q

What lab is ordered to diagnosis Rheumatic Fever

A

ASO-Titre

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29
Q

What is damaged in a patient with Rheumatic Fever?

A

Endocardium (Lining of the heart)

30
Q

What heart valve is effected in Rheumatic Fever

A

Mitral Valve Stenosis

31
Q

What is a patient with Rheumatic Fever predisposed to?

A

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE), caused by Alpha hemolytic Streptococcal infection

32
Q

How does a primary heart block show up on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?

A

Increased PR interval; Prolonged Atrioventricular (AV) block

33
Q

On an electrocardiogram (EKG), what does it mean when there are two P waves before the QRS complex?

A

Weinkbochs- block at the bundle of HIS

Secondary Heart Block

34
Q

What will be missing on the electrocardiogram (EKG), if there is complete heart block (no ventricular contraction)?

A

QRS complex

35
Q

If the ST segment of a electrocardiogram (EKG) is enlarged or inverted, what does that indicate?

A 
Myocardial Infarction (MI) 
(Acute Heart Failure)
36
Q

In what condition will you see no P wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?

A

Atrial Fibrillation

37
Q

An absent Q wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG) indicates what?

A

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

38
Q

Where would you find a Type I (1) Salter Harris fracture?

A

Transverse Fracture through the growth plate/phsis

6% of the time

39
Q

What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through the growth plate and metaphysis but spares the epiphysis?

A

Type II (2) (Salter Harris)

40
Q

What percentage of fractures are Type II (2) Salter Harris fractures?

A

75%

41
Q

How long does it take a Salter Harris Type II (2) fracture to heal?

A

2-3 weeks

42
Q

What is a Type III (3) Salter Harris fracture?

A

Fracture through the Growth Plate and Epiphysis, sparing the metaphsis

43
Q

What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type III (3) fracture?

A

8%

44
Q

What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through all three areas, (Growth plate, Metaphysis, Epiphysis)?

A

Slater Harris Type IV (4)

45
Q

What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type IV (4) fracture?

A

10%

46
Q

What Type of Salter Harris fracture is seen in 1% of the population?

A

Type V (5)

47
Q

What Type of Salter Harris fracture is described as: “Compression Fracture of the growth plate, resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and diaphysis on x-ray”?

A

Salter Harris Type V (5) fracture

48
Q

What condition does heat make it better and cold makes it worse?

A

Fibromyalgia

49
Q

What is the treatment for Fibromyalgia?

A

Conservative Chiropractic care

Aerobic Activities

50
Q

How is Fibromyalgia diagnosed?

A

Pain at 11 of 18 tender points on digital palpation

51
Q

What condition is “Chronic muscle pain in muscle and soft tissue surrounding joint, often seen with depression”?

A

Fibromyalgia

52
Q

What are the four views taken for a wrist radiograph?

A

P-A
Lateral
Ulnar deviation
Medial Oblique

53
Q

What is the most commonly fractured carpal?

A

Scaphoid

54
Q

What is it called if the Scaphoid dislocates?

A

Signet Ring or Terry Thomas Sign

55
Q

What is the clinical name for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Scaphoid?

A

Preisser’s

56
Q

What carpal is dislocated to give the “Pie Sign”?

A

Lunate

57
Q

What is the clinical term for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Lunate?

A

Keinbock’s

58
Q

What are the four characteristics of all Benign Bone Tumors (BBT)?

A

Short Zone of Transition
Incidental Finding
Geographic Lesion
Encapsulated

59
Q

What are the 5 D’s and the 3 N’s for a stroke patient?

A 
5 D's
Dizziness
Drop Attack
Diplopia (Double Vision)
Dysarthria (Difficulty with speech)
Dysphagia (Difficulty Swallowing)

3 N’s
Nausea
Numbness
Nystagmus

60
Q

What five things are you Listening for in a patient that may be drunk?

A 
Slurred speech
Giddiness
Voice Change
Lack of context in speech
Inappropriate reactions to situations
61
Q

What is another name for the Supraspinatus Press test?

A

Empty Can test

62
Q

How is the Supraspinatus Press test performed?

A

Patient is seated, patient abducts their arms to 90 degrees with elbows flexed at 90 degrees. Patient resist downward pressure on both arms.

Patient is then instructed to medially rotate the shoulder and point the thumbs downward.

63
Q

If patient is unable to resist downward pressure from the doctor during the Empty Can test, what condition is indicated?

A

Tear of the Supraspinatus muscle

64
Q

How is Speed’s Test carried out?

A

Patient is directed to flex the arm while doctor offers resistance on the forearm.

Patient further resist forearm into supination and extension

65
Q

What does a positive Speed’s Test indicate?

A

Bicipital Tendinitis

66
Q

If Speed’s Test is positive where will there be increased tenderness?

A

In the bicipital groove

67
Q

What is the name of the condition and nerve involved in wrist issues?

A

DR CUMA
Drop wrist/ Radial nerve
Claw hand/Ulnar nerve
Median nerve/ Ape hand

68
Q

What type of lesion is EVERY peripheral nerve lesion?

A

Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL)

69
Q

What are two terms that are associated with and Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?

A

Fusiform means Ballooning Out

70
Q

What two “terms” should be associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

A

Baker’s Cyst (Located in the Popliteal Fossa)

Inflammatory

71
Q

What is a term that is often associated with Facet?

A

Meniscoid Enlargement

72
Q

What exercises should a patient with the following issues do:

Disc

Facet

A

Disc: McKenzies Extension Exercises

Facet: Williams Flexion Exercises

Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) (12 decks)

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