viruses (exam 3) Flashcards

1
Q

. What are the unique characteristics of viruses?

A

Minuscule, acellular, infectious agents with DNA or RNA; obligate intracellular parasites; lack metabolic pathways, membranes, and organelles.

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2
Q

What are the two main components of a virus?

A

Protein (capsid) and nucleic acid (DNA or RNA).

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3
Q

What are the three main shapes of viruses?

A

Helical, polyhedral (icosahedral), and complex.

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4
Q

What is the difference between naked and enveloped viruses?

A

Enveloped viruses have a phospholipid membrane around the capsid, while naked viruses lack this membrane.

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5
Q

What is a virion?

A

The extracellular state of a virus, consisting of a capsid surrounding nucleic acid, sometimes with an envelope.

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6
Q

What is the host range of a virus?

A

The spectrum of host cells a virus can infect, determined by receptor compatibility.

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7
Q

What are the five stages of lytic replication in bacteriophages?

A

Attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, and release.

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8
Q
  1. How does lysogenic replication differ from lytic replication?
A

Lysogenic replication integrates viral DNA into the host genome (prophage), delaying lysis; lytic replication immediately kills the host.

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9
Q

What is a prophage?

A

Inactive bacteriophage DNA integrated into a bacterial host’s genome during lysogeny.

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10
Q

What is lysogenic conversion?

A

When a prophage introduces new genes (e.g., toxins) that alter the host bacterium’s phenotype.

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11
Q

Where does DNA virus replication occur in animal cells?

A

Typically in the nucleus (e.g., herpesvirus).

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12
Q

Where does RNA virus replication occur in animal cells?

A

Typically in the cytoplasm (e.g., poliovirus).

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13
Q

What is a retrovirus?

A

An RNA virus that uses reverse transcriptase to convert its RNA genome into DNA (e.g., HIV).

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14
Q

What is a provirus?

A

Viral DNA integrated into a host cell’s genome (e.g., HIV provirus).

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15
Q

What enzyme do retroviruses carry?

A

Reverse transcriptase.

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16
Q

How do enveloped viruses acquire their envelope?

A

By budding from the host cell membrane, taking a portion of the membrane with them.

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17
Q

What are spikes on animal viruses?

A

Glycoproteins that mediate attachment to host cells.

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18
Q
  1. What is a latent viral infection?
A

A dormant state where the virus remains in the host without producing virions (e.g., HSV-1).

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19
Q

What is a persistent viral infection?

A

Slow release of virions over time without immediately killing the host (e.g., HIV).

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20
Q

How do viruses cause cancer?

A

By inserting oncogenes, disrupting tumor suppressor genes, or promoting uncontrolled cell division (e.g., HPV, EBV).

21
Q

What is antigenic drift?

A

Minor mutations in viral genes (e.g., influenza H/N spikes) leading to small changes in antigens.

22
Q

What is antigenic shift?

A

Major changes in viral antigens due to reassortment of genome segments (e.g., influenza A).

23
Q

Why is influenza A prone to antigenic shift?

A

It infects multiple species (e.g., birds, pigs), allowing genome segment mixing.

24
Q

What is the difference between communicable and noncommunicable diseases?

A

Communicable diseases spread between hosts; noncommunicable diseases do not (e.g., tetanus).

25
Q

What is a contagious disease?

A

A communicable disease that spreads easily (e.g., measles).

26
Q
  1. What is the difference between a portal of entry and exit?
A

Entry: How pathogens enter the host (e.g., respiratory tract). Exit: How they leave (e.g., feces).

27
Q

What is the parenteral route?

A

Pathogen entry through breaks in the skin (e.g., needles, bites).

28
Q

What is the difference between infection and disease?

A

Infection: Pathogen colonization; Disease: Symptoms/damage from infection.

29
Q
  1. What is the difference between a symptom and a sign?
A

Symptom: Subjective (e.g., pain); Sign: Objective (e.g., fever).

30
Q

What are resident microbiota?

A

Microbes that permanently colonize the host.

31
Q

What are transient microbiota?

A

Microbes temporarily present in/on the host.

32
Q

List Koch’s postulates.

A

1) Pathogen present in diseased hosts; 2) Isolated and grown in culture; 3) Causes disease when introduced to healthy host; 4) Re-isolated from new host.

33
Q

What is the purpose of Koch’s postulates?

A

To establish a causal link between a microbe and a disease.

34
Q

What are limitations of Koch’s postulates?

A

Fails for unculturable microbes, asymptomatic carriers, and polymicrobial diseases.

35
Q

What is ID50?

A

Infectious dose for 50% of a population; measures virulence.

36
Q

What is LD50?

A

Lethal dose for 50% of a population; measures toxicity.

37
Q

What is the function of hyaluronidase?

A

Breaks down hyaluronic acid in connective tissue to promote pathogen spread.

38
Q

What is the function of collagenase?

A

Degrades collagen in tissues to facilitate invasion.

39
Q

What are the three types of exotoxins?

A

Cytotoxin, enterotoxin, neurotoxin.

40
Q

What is an endotoxin?

A

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) in Gram-negative bacterial cell walls; causes fever/shock.

41
Q

How do AB toxins work?

A

B subunit binds host cell; A subunit enters and disrupts cellular functions (e.g., botulinum toxin).

42
Q

What does botulinum toxin do?

A

Blocks acetylcholine release, causing paralysis.

43
Q

What are the five stages of infectious disease?

A

Incubation, prodromal, illness, decline, convalescence.

44
Q

How do capsules act as virulence factors?

A

Resist phagocytosis and enhance adhesion.

45
Q

What is antigenic variation?

A

Pathogens alter surface antigens to evade immunity (e.g., Neisseria gonorrhoeae).

46
Q

How does Neisseria achieve antigenic variation?

A

Gene recombination changes pilin proteins.

47
Q

What are four ways virulence factors promote infection?

A

Adhesion, immune evasion, toxin production, and tissue invasion.

48
Q

Why are virulence factors advantageous to microbes?

A

Enhance survival, transmission, and host damage.

49
Q

Why is adhesion critical for infection?

A

Ensures pathogens attach to host cells/tissues to colonize and invade.