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Viruses Flashcards

1
Q

Which cells produce type II IFN?

A

T cells and macrophages

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2
Q

Which T cell response do type II IFNs promote?

A

TH1

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3
Q

Which substances activate the IFNb gene?

A

IRF3 and NFkB

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4
Q

Which viruses are reversiviruses?

A

Retroviruses and hepadnaviruses

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5
Q

Which viruses translate one giant open reading frame then do polyprotein processing?

A

Picornaviruses

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6
Q

Which viruses encode enzymes to cleave mRNA caps?

A

Poxviruses

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7
Q

Which DNA viruses synthesize factors which stimulate the cell into cycle?

A

Papovaviruses, adenoviruses, herpesviruses

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8
Q

Which large DNA viruses encode TK and ribonucleotide reducatase?

A

Herpesviruses, poxviruses

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9
Q

Which kind of virus causes only acute infection?

A

Picornavirus

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10
Q

Which kind of virus causes all latent infetion?

A

Herpesviruses

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11
Q

Which kind of virus is permitted in some cells but latent in others?

A

Herpesviruses

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12
Q

Which is the only -ve sense RNA virus to replicate in the nucleus??

A

Influenza

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13
Q

What is the icosahderal capsid made up from?

A

20-based sphere made up of capsomeres

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14
Q

What is a virus protein not in the virion called?

A

A non-structural protein

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15
Q

Why is RNA polymerase error prone?

A

Lacks proof reading capacity

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16
Q

Which group of animals do poxviruses affect?

A

Chordates

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17
Q

What does gp120 bind to?

A

CD4

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18
Q

What does gp340 of EBV bind to?

A

CD21

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19
Q

Where do poxviruses replicate?

A

Cytoplasm

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20
Q

What transcribes the provirus?

A

Host RNA pol II

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21
Q

What happens to herpesvirus DNA when it enters the nucleus?

A

Converted to a circular episome

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22
Q

Why do poxviruses encode enzymes to cleave mRNA cap?

A

Transition from early to late protein expression

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23
Q

What do viruses downregulate to evade CD8 T cells?

A

MHC class I

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24
Q

Which kind of viruses are lytic?

A

Non-enveloped RNA or those inducing host cell cutoff

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25
Which cells phagocytose free virus?
Macrophages and neutrophils
26
What does TLR3 detect?
dsRNA
27
What does TLR9 detect?
CpG DNA
28
Where are the PRRs which viruses first contact?
Fibroblasts and epithelial cells
29
What is PKR?
Protein kinase R
30
What is OAS?
2'-5'-oligoadenylate synthetase
31
What does OAS synthesise?
2'5'-oligoAs
32
What does 2'5'-oligoA do?
Turns RNAse L into active form
33
What are the proinflammatory cytokines for the Th1 response?
IL-1,2,12,18 TNFa and IFNgamma
34
What are the cytokines for the Th2 response?
IL-4,10, TGFb
35
Which Th2 cytokine promotes growth of infeted B cells?
vIL-10
36
Which response is important for systemic infections?
CD8+
37
When is primary viraemia?
Lymph node to blood
38
What is secondary viraemia?
Spleen/liver/vascular endothelium to blood
39
Which budding side allows virus spread?
Basolateral
40
Which viruses need a low temp so can't cause chest infections?
Rhinovirus
41
Which kind of infections have less chance of transmission?
Acute
42
Why does latency occur in non-permissive cells?
Genes for replication aren't expressed
43
Which viruses have low stability?
Enveloped
44
What is a perinatal infection?
During birth or from breast milk
45
Which viruses show germline transmission?
Endogenous retroviruses
46
What is the normal structure of the prion protein?
Alpha helical GPI-anchored membrane protein
47
Which enzyme are amyloid plaques resistant to?
Protease
48
What is the immune response to abnormal PrP?
None
49
What is acyclovir active against?
HSV1+2
50
Which viral enzymes does acyclovir require?
TK and DNA pol
51
What are ganciclovir and cidofovir used to treat?
HSV1+2
52
What are ganciclovir and cidofovir?
Nucleoside analogues
53
How do ganciclovir and cidofovir show their specificity?
Used by virus DNA polymerase
54
What are ganciclovir and cidofovir used to treat?
HCMV
55
How are ganciclovir and cidofovir given?
IV
56
Which viruses can be created from oligonucleotides using synthetic biology?
Poxviruses
57
Which responses must a live vaccine induce?
T cell and antibody
58
What is nucleic acid immunisation?
DNA into host cells so they produce antibodies from mRNA
59
What % of sporadic colon cancers have APC mutation?
20%
60
What % of sporadic colon cancers have MLH1 mutation?
15%
61
What does p53 upregulate?
BAX
62
What is the relationship between the dose of carcinogen and number of tumours?
Linear
63
Are initiation effects irreversible?
Yes
64
How do carcinomas initially travel?
Lymphatics
65
What does Wnt encode?
Extracellular ligand
66
How many tumours have mutant Rb?
90%
67
Does hyperplasia involve genetic changes?
No
68
Are malignant tumours usually aneuploid?
Yes
69
Can tumour cells metastasize via tissue spaces?
Yes
70
What are the main cause of schistosoma pathology?
Eggs
71
What does Ebola VP35 do?
RNA transcription cofactor, inhibits IRF3, binds dsRNA to prevent PRR recognition
72
What does Ebola VP40 do?
A matrix protein, can form into several oligomeric forms, can bind RNA and aid replication, can aid nucleocapsid transport to the cell surface, promotes virion budding
73
What does ebola VP30 do?
Transcription activator which works with RNA pol
74
What does ebola VP24 do?
Blocks IFN signalling by binding to the pore
75
What is ebola L?
RNA dep RNA pol
76
What is packaged in the virion to prime reverse transcription?
tRNA
77
What kind of viruses produce endotoxin?
Gram -ve
78
Which hepatitis is cancer causing?
B
79
In which people is HBV chronic?
Neos
80
What is capsid made of?
Protein
81
What does monopartite mean?
Genome is a single nucleic acid molecule
82
Which viruses have the largest genome?
DNA
83
What does TK produce?
dNTP pool
84
Which virus classes are lytic?
DNA, non-enveloped RNA and those that cause host shut-off
85
What does src encode?
Tyrosine kinase
86
What can viruses target to prevent apoptosis?
Bcl-2 and caspases
87
Which influenza RNA segments are spliced?
7 and 8
88
How many kinds of HA are there?
17
89
How many kinds of NA are there?
9
90
Which influenza subunit determines whether the virus replicates well in human or avian cells?
PB2
91
How many reading frames does HBV have?
4
92
What differs in the three forms of HBsAg?
N-termini
93
What does ORF-X encode?
Transactivating protein
94
How many genes does Ebola encode?
7
95
What do HIV tat and rev do?
Switch off capsid and envelope protein during later infection
96
What does HIV VPU do?
Downregulates CD4 and inhibits NFkB
97
How are gag and pol produced?
Ribosomal frameshifting
98
In how many instances does gag-pol frameshifting work?
1/20
99
How do dideoxycytidine, dideoxyinosine and lamivudine work?
Chain terminating
100
How does enfurvitide work?
Fusion inhibitor
101
What is used to inactivate the rabies virus?
beta-propriolactone
102
Which virus does not have a 3' OH?
HIV

BOD (7 decks)

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