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BOD > Bacteria > Flashcards

Bacteria Flashcards

1
Q

Is E Coli gram -ve or +ve?

A

-ve

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2
Q

Is MRSA gram +ve or gram -ve?

A

+ve

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3
Q

Which cells are PMNs?

A

Basophils, eosinophils and neutrophils

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4
Q

What is a regulon?

A

Operons regulated together

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5
Q

What kind of DNA do bacteria have?

A

dsDNA circular

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6
Q

Where are bacterial ribosomes?

A

Filling the cytosol

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7
Q

What kind of mRNA do bacteria have?

A

polycistronic unstable

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8
Q

What is the default bacterial shape?

A

Sphere

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9
Q

Which actin homologue controls cell shape to produce a rod?

A

MreB

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10
Q

Which tubulin ancestor localises at the midcell to form a ring?

A

FtsZ

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11
Q

How many proteins does the flagellum contain?

A

40-50

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12
Q

Which kind of bacteria have a periplasm?

A

Gram -ve

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13
Q

Where are the beta lactamases found?

A

The periplasm

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14
Q

Where are porin and LPS found?

A

Outer membrane

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15
Q

What is removed in the Sec pathway?

A

N-terminal export signal

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16
Q

Which kind of bacteria need additional transport pathways?

A

-ves

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17
Q

Which kind of bacteria have TolC exit ducts?

A

-ves

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18
Q

Which are the three lipopolysaccharides in gram -ves?

A

O-antigen, lipid A, core polysaccharide

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19
Q

Which of the lipopolysaccharides are variable?

A

O-antigen

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20
Q

What is the O-antigen important for defence against?

A

Complement and macrophages

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21
Q

Which TLR recognises lipid A?

A

TLR4

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22
Q

What crosslinks does peptidoglycan have vertically and horizontally?

A

Oligopeptide

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23
Q

What acids do gram +ve bacteria have?

A

Teichoic

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24
Q

What is the signal to produce endospores?

A

Lack of amino acids

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25
Q

What is the structure of an endospore?

A

Core and cortex

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26
Q

Where are the bacterial chemoreceptors?

A

“Nose”

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27
Q

Which way does the propeller rotate to move forwards?

A

Counter clockwise

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28
Q

What happens if the propeller goes clockwise?

A

Tumbles for random reorientation

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29
Q

What are His-Asp pathways?

A

Membrane signal transduction pathways which modulate operon networks

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30
Q

In high cell density, what are the virulence genes against?

A

Different strains

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31
Q

How do bacteria recognise a quorum?

A

Secrete a signal molecule and then sense its concentration using a positive feedback loop

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32
Q

Where are quorum genes switched on?

A

When there is enough of a bacterium’s own type

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33
Q

What do adhesins bind to?

A

Host cells or the tissue matrix

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34
Q

What molecule do adhesins bind to?

A

Carbohydrates of glycolipids

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35
Q

Where are adhesins found?

A

The end of the pili

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36
Q

How are pili assembled?

A

From the inside out

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37
Q

What happens to pili subunits in the periplasm?

A

Bind to the chaperone

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38
Q

Which complex do adhesins bind to in order to start the pilus?

A

Usher

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39
Q

Which substances are used to form biofilms?

A

Adhesins and polysaccharides

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40
Q

Do pedestals or adhesins form tighter adhesions?

A

Pedestals

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41
Q

In pedestals, what delivers effector proteins into the host cell?

A

Needles

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42
Q

Which receptors are induced in pedestals?

A

Tir

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43
Q

What binds to Tir to promote actin polymerisation to form the pedestal?

A

Intimin

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44
Q

What is the zipper mechanism?

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis

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45
Q

In the zipper mechanism, what mimics eukaryotic ligands?

A

Invasins

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46
Q

What do invasins do?

A

Bind integrins

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47
Q

What is the trigger mechanism?

A

Bacterium remains in vacuole

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48
Q

How does the bacterium promote endocytosis in the trigger mechanism?

A

Uses internalins

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49
Q

Which mechanism shows “ruffles”?

A

Trigger

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50
Q

What forms an actin tail to push the cell forwards?

A

ActA

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51
Q

How many genes do pathogenic bacteria have?

A

5000

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52
Q

Which bacterium has less genes?

A

Chlamydia - intracellular

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53
Q

What is the speed of mRNA turnover?

A

Fast

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54
Q

Which genes contain transposons contain?

A

Toxins/heavy metal resistance

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55
Q

What picks up transposons?

A

Extra-chromosomal plasmids

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56
Q

Where are most virulence genes found?

A

Pathogenicity islands

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57
Q

How do pathogenicity islands evolve?

A

Horizontal gene transfer

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58
Q

What is transduction?

A

Phage

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59
Q

What is conjugation?

A

Sex pilus then local lysis

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60
Q

What is transformation?

A

Natural uptake of DNA from dead lysed bacteria

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61
Q

What inhibits bacterial growth in the GI tract?

A

Gastric acid and bile salts

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62
Q

What breaks down peptidoglycan?

A

Lysosome

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63
Q

What is iron sequestered by to reduce bacterial growth?

A

Lactoferrin and transferrin

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64
Q

What binds to the bacterial cell membrane to form a pore?

A

Defensins

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65
Q

Which TLR does flagellin activate?

A

TLR5

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66
Q

Which TLR does peptidoglycan activate?

A

TLR2

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67
Q

Which TLR does unmethylated DNA activate?

A

TLR9

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68
Q

Which TLR does LPS activate?

A

TLR4

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69
Q

Which complement pathway does LPS activate?

A

Alternative

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70
Q

What does CRP bind to when acting as a PRR?

A

Phosphocholine

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71
Q

Which kind of bacteria is the MAC effective against?

A

Gram -ves

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72
Q

What is the C3b receptor?

A

CR1

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73
Q

Which proteins react with cardiac cells and contribute to autoimmune disease?

A

Streptococcal M proteins

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74
Q

What structure do macrophages use to kill?

A

Phagolysosomes

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75
Q

What do macrophages bind to?

A

Lectins

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76
Q

What do phagolysosome granules contain?

A

Lactoferrin and NADH peroxidase

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77
Q

Which pigment does myeloperoxidase have?

A

Haem

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78
Q

Where is myeloperoxidase found?

A

Neutrophil lysosome

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79
Q

What causes the green appearance in neutrophil-rich secretions?

A

Myeloperoxidase

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80
Q

Are CTLs important during induced immunity?

A

No

81
Q

What does Th1 activate in induced immunity?

A

Macrophages

82
Q

What does Th2 cause production of during induced immunity?

A

Igs

83
Q

What activates classical complement?

A

Pre-existing antibody binds C1q or CRP

84
Q

What does the lectin complement pathway recognise?

A

Mannose

85
Q

What does mannose activate?

A

MASP

86
Q

Which kind of bacteria have capsules?

A

Those causing pneumonia

87
Q

What does the O-antigen prevent formation of?

A

MAC

88
Q

How do bacteria change the O-antigen to mimic the host?

A

Attach a sialic acid to it

89
Q

By which mechanism do bacteria switch surface antigens?

A

Phase variation

90
Q

Which bacteria use enzymes to spread?

A

Staph and strep

91
Q

Which bacteria cause endemic mastitis?

A

Staph and strep

92
Q

Which enzymes break down connective tissue?

A

Collagenase and hyaluronidase

93
Q

What do siderophores do?

A

Bind iron and reimport it into the cell

94
Q

How can bacteria inhibit chemotaxis?

A

Use a peptidase to cleave C5a

95
Q

Where do proteases cleave IgA?

A

Near the hinge

96
Q

What do cytolysins do to the host cell membrane?

A

Degrade phospholipids or form pores

97
Q

What is the A of an AB toxin?

A

Active

98
Q

What is the B of an AB toxin?

A

Receptor binding

99
Q

What do AB toxins do to single polypeptides?

A

Cleave them into fragments

100
Q

What is the structure of AB toxin?

A

Either have disulphide bridges or are multimeric

101
Q

How do AB toxins enter the cell?

A

Receptor mediated endocytosis and retrograde transport

102
Q

What do superantigens bridge?

A

The TCR and MHC

103
Q

What cytokines do superantigens cause a storm of?

A

IL-1, IL-2, TNF

104
Q

What are the two kinds of bacterial toxins?

A

Cytolysins and enzymatic intracellular toxins

105
Q

Which body part do bacteria causing meningitis colonise?

A

Nasopharynx

106
Q

What are meningitis-causing bacteria capsulated with?

A

Sialic acid

107
Q

Which protease do meningitis-causing bacteria secrete?

A

IgA

108
Q

What do penicillin-resistant bacteria cleave penicillin to?

A

Penicilloic acid

109
Q

Which subunit does chloramphenicol bind to?

A

50S

110
Q

Which enzymes does chloramphenicol inhibit?

A

Peptidyl transferase

111
Q

Which subunit do aminoglycosides alter?

A

16S rRNA

112
Q

Which processes do aminoglycosides inhibit?

A

tRNA selection and peptide elongastion

113
Q

What enzymes do bacteria resistant to aminoglycosides produce?

A

Acetyltransferases

114
Q

Which subunit does tetracycline bind to?

A

30S

115
Q

Which process does tetracycline inhibit?

A

Aminoacyl tRNA binding

116
Q

Which proteins do bacteria produce to dislodge tetracycline?

A

Ribosomal Protection Proteins

117
Q

What are RPPs similar to?

A

Translocation elongation factors

118
Q

Which enzymes do fluoroquinolones inhibit?

A

Topoisomerases

119
Q

Which resistance protein blocks topoisomerase and prevents antibiotic binding?

A

Qnr

120
Q

Which enzymes does vancomycin block access to?

A

Transpeptidase

121
Q

Which enzymes do vancomycin-resistant bacteria encode?

A

PBPs (variant transpeptidases)

122
Q

What is vitamin B9?

A

Folate

123
Q

What does sulphonamide compete with?

A

pABA

124
Q

Which enzyme does sulphonamide inhibit?

A

DHPS

125
Q

Which enzymes does trimethoprim inhibit?

A

DHFR

126
Q

How is the affinity different in R-plasmid encoded versions?

A

Lower

127
Q

What is the source of energy for transporting the antibiotic through the periplasm?

A

ATP hydrolysis

128
Q

Which enzyme does clavulanic acid inhibit?

A

Beta-lactamase

129
Q

Which toxins do Shigella produce?

A

ShET1 and ShET2

130
Q

What can haemophilus influenzae cause?

A

Pneumonia and meningitis

131
Q

Which strep pyogenes protein binds C1q?

A

Endopeptidase O

132
Q

Which bacteria cause meningitis?

A

E. Coli, Strep pneum, Neisseria m and pharyngis, H. influenza

133
Q

Which bacteria cause pneumonia?

A

Strep pneum, haem influenzae

134
Q

Which kind of bacteria cause meningitis?

A

Encapsualted

135
Q

Which toxins does E. Coli produce?

A

Haemolysins, CDTs, cytotoxic necrotizing factor

136
Q

What do CDTs do?

A

DNAse genotoxin

137
Q

What does cytotoxic necrotizing factor do?

A

Deamidase, targets GTPases, disrupts actin cytoskeleton

138
Q

Which toxins do UPEC produce?

A

haemolysin, cytotoxic necrotizing factor

139
Q

Which toxin does EHEC produce?

A

Shiga-like toxin (N-glycosidase to modify rRNA, block translation, break down vascualture)

140
Q

Which toxin does ETEC produce?

A

Labile Toxin (cholera-like enterotoxin)

141
Q

Which toxin does salmonella produce?

A

CDT

142
Q

Which toxin does salmonella typhi produce?

A

CDT

143
Q

Which toxins does vibrio cholera produce?

A

AB (for receptor mediated endocytosis) and fixes Gs on

144
Q

Which toxins does helicobacter produce?

A

VacA (ion channel) and CagA (cell proliferation)

145
Q

Which toxin does C. tetani produce?

A

AB

146
Q

Which toxin does C/ botulinum produce?

A

AB

147
Q

Which toxin does C. difficile produce?

A

Glucosylase (glycosylate and inhibit Rho/Ras GTPases causing cytokeleton and tight junction destruction)

148
Q

Which inactivate IgA protease?

A

Neisseria, strep pneum. E. Coli, H. influenzae

149
Q

Which siderophore does pseudomonas aeruginosa produce?

A

Pyoverdin

150
Q

Which toxin does staph aureus produce?

A

Alpha-toxin

151
Q

Which toxins do strep pyogenes produce?

A

Streptolysins O and S, C5a peptidase, DNAse

152
Q

Which iron binding sideophore does strep. equi produce?

A

Equibactin

153
Q

Which bacteria is anti-complement?

A

Strep. pyogenes

154
Q

Which toxins does Shigella produce?

A

Shiga toxin, SHET1 and SHET2

155
Q

What does Yersinia “yops” do?

A

Subvert macrophages

156
Q

Which toxins does Strep. pneum. produce?

A

Pneumolysin,

157
Q

What effector protein facilitates lysis in M. tuberculosis?

A

ESAT6

158
Q

Which toxins does Corynebacterium diphtheriae produce?

A

AB DTX, one to ADP-ribosylate EF2 and prevent translation,

159
Q

Which toxins does bordetella pertussis produce?

A

Multimeric AB, ADP-ribosylates adenyl cyclase regulators, adenylate toxin homologues

160
Q

Which toxins does bacilla anthracis produce?

A

Multimeric AB, adenylate cyclase homologue

161
Q

Which toxin does Campylobacter produce?

A

CDTs

162
Q

Which toxins does Corynebacterium ulcerans/pseudoTB produce?

A

AB, one which ADP-ribosylates EF2

163
Q

Which bacteria ADP-ribosylate EF2?

A

Corynebacteria

164
Q

Which membrane has TolC?

A

Outer

165
Q

Which enzyme does ciprofloxacin inhibit?

A

DNA-dep RNA pol

166
Q

Is H pylori gram positive or negative?

A

Negative

167
Q

What does Shiga-like toxin cause in children?

A

Uraemic syndrome

168
Q

Are bacteria haploid?

A

No

169
Q

What do salmonella pathogenicity islands contain?

A

SPI-1 and SPI-2

170
Q

Which receptor does lipid A activate macrophages by?

A

Cd14

171
Q

How many genes has chlamydia got?

A

900

172
Q

Which bacteria have LPS?

A

Negative only

173
Q

Which bacteria lack a cell wall?

A

Chlamydia and Mycoplasma

174
Q

How do anaerobes gain energy?

A

Fermentation using electron acceptors such as iron

175
Q

How long are insertion sequences?

A

A few hundred BP

176
Q

Which nucleotides differ in pathogeniity islands?

A

CG

177
Q

What do SPI-1 do?

A

Determines entry into non-phagocytic cells

178
Q

What does SPI-2 do?

A

Survival in macrophages

179
Q

Which bacteria forms plaque on teeth?

A

Strep. mutans

180
Q

Which bacteria colonise catheters?

A

Staph

181
Q

Which bacteria colonise contact lenses?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

182
Q

Which condition predisposes to to P.aeruginosa biofilm in the lungs?

A

Cystic fibrosis

183
Q

Which eukaryotic ligands do trigger proteins mimic?

A

SipA, SipC, SptP

184
Q

What does YopT do?

A

Targets GTPases to disrupt cytoskeleton

185
Q

What does YopP do?

A

Acetyltransferase that inhibits signalling triggering apoptosis

186
Q

Whcih transcription factor represses C. diff gene expression when bound by iron?

A

DtxR

187
Q

What is receptor for DTX?

A

HB-EGF

188
Q

Which host protease nicks the DTX polypeptide?

A

Furin

189
Q

Which Lancefield group is S. equi?

A

C

190
Q

Where does C perfringens germinate from?

A

Spores in pre-heated foods

191
Q

Which bacteria remains in a membrane bound vacuole?

A

Salmonella

192
Q

Where are S.typhi bacteria shed?

A

Bile

193
Q

Which C difficile toxins are produced?

A

TcdA and TcdB

194
Q

What do C difficile toxins do?

A

Glycosylate GTPases

195
Q

Which bacteria can be live attenuated?

A

Salmonella

196
Q

Which drug are meningitis E coli becoming resistant to?

A

Ciprofloxacin

197
Q

What does chloramphenicol inhbit?

A

Peptidyl transferase

198
Q

What does aminoglycosides inhibit?

A

tRNA selection adn polypeptide elongation

199
Q

Resistance to tetracycline?

A

RPP to dislodge it

BOD (7 decks)

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