Parasites Flashcards

1
Q

What is the other name for acute INTESTINAL schistosomiasis?

A

Katayama fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Katayama fever a reaction to?

A

Larval worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When does Katayama fever occur?

A

2-10 weeks post exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which organs are enlarged in Katayama fever and chronic intestinal schistosomiasis?

A

Liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What life cycle stage does chronic INTESTINAL schistosomiases occur at?

A

Egg production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How soon after exposure does chronic INTESTINAL schistosomiasis occur?

A

2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is severe INTESTINAL schistosomiasis related to?

A

Site of adult worm pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where are egg granulomas found in chronic INTESTINAL shistosomiasis?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which kind of schistosomiasis causes portal hypertension?

A

Severe INTESTINAL schistosomiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which kind of schistosomiasis causes Symmer’s pipe stem periportal fibrosis?

A

Severe INTESTINAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes reduced contractility in UROGENITAL schistosomiasis?

A

Fibrotic bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which disease are women with UROGENITAL schistosomiasis predisposed to?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In what stage of schistosomiases is there bladder calcification and cancer?

A

Severe UROGENITAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the vector of trypanosoma?

A

Tsetse fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Posh name for a fluke?

A

Trematode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Posh name for a cestode?

A

Tape worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which kind of parasite has pseudocoelome with intestine and sexual organs within in and hard inert outer cuticle?

A

Nematode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which segment of the tapeworm matures into an oncosphere?

A

Proglottis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which species have an oncosphere?

A

Taenia salium and hymenolepis diminuta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is formed following oncosphere embedding?

A

Cysticerci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which part of the tapeworm attaches to the intestine wall?

A

Scolex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where is the protoscolex found?

A

Inside hydatid cycsts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the name of the apical complex in apicomplexa for secretion, attachment and invasion?

A

Conoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which rhoptry bulb proteins does the conoid secrete?

A

AMA1 and RONs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does the rhoptry secrete?
Proteins and membrane
26
When does the rhoptry produce ROMs?
During moving junction formation
27
What does the microneme secrete?
Crawling protein
28
What secretes duffy binding protein?
Microneme
29
What secretes MICs?
Microneme
30
What are MICs attached to during apical attachment?
Actin-myosin motor
31
What does the parasitopherous vacuole protect against?
Intracellular damage
32
Which proteins associate with the parasitopherous vacuole?
Rhoptry
33
What decorates the parasitopherous vacuole with proteins for protection and nutrient scavenging?
Dense granules
34
What does the parasitopherous vacuole inhibit fusion with?
Lysosomes
35
Which is synthesised in the apicoplast?
Isoprenoid and fatty acid synthesis
36
What is the oocyst formed from in toxoplasma?
Micro and macrogamete
37
What is the form in which toxoplasma is shed by cats and taken up by mice?
Oocyst
38
What happens to the oocyst in cat faeces?
Undergoes sporogony
39
What is the oocyst formed from in malaria?
An ookinete
40
Where does the ookinete attach to in malaria?
The outside of the mosquito stomach
41
What is the rapidly diving form of toxoplasma in pseudocysts which can cross the placenta?
Tachyzoite
42
What is the slowly dividing form of toxoplasma found in the tissue cyst?
Bradyzoite
43
What is the bradyzoite infective to?
Cats and intermediate hosts
44
Which tissues are the bradyzoite found in?
Muscle and nervous tissues
45
How many sporozoites are formed within an oocyst following meiosis?
Eight
46
Where are the sporozoites found during malarial infection?
The salivary gland
47
Where do the sporozoites form?
Inside the oocyst
48
Where is the kinetoplast found?
Associated with the mitochondria at the basal body of the flagellum
49
What does the kinetoplast contain?
DNA
50
What kind of DNA does the kinetoplast contain?
mDNA
51
What kind of transcription does the kinetoplast show?
Polycistronic
52
What is the infectious stage for the tsetse fly?
Metacyclic trypomastigote
53
How do metacyclic trypomastigotes enter humans?
Injected into bloodstream
54
What is the circulating form of T brucei?
Bloodstream trypomastigotes
55
Where are procyclic trypomastigotes formed?
Fly midgut
56
How do procyclic trypomastigotes multiply?
Binary fission
57
Which part of the cell becomes active in procyclic trypomastigotes?
Mitochondria
58
What are amastigotes formed from?
Promastigotes
59
In which disease are amastigotes phagocytosed and asexually divide within the phagolysosome?
Leishmaniasis
60
What happens to the phagolysosome in Leishmaniasis?
It bursts
61
What form of T brucei is found repicating in the fly's salivary gland?
Epimastigote
62
How does the promastigote divide?
Asexually
63
Where does the promastigote migrate to?
Sandfly oesophagus
64
What is the dormant hepatic form of malaria?
Hypnozoite
65
Where are schizonts found?
In an RBC
66
What happens in a schizont?
Trophozoites develop into merozoites
67
How many merozoites can be released from hepatocytes?
Up to 40,000
68
What do the merozoites do?
Invade RBCs
69
How can merozoites also be formed?
Following trophozoite development in RBCs
70
How do merozoites bind to DARC?
Using DBR
71
What is formed when a merozoite invades RBCs?
Trophozoite
72
What do trophozoites develop into?
Merozoites again
73
When are micro/macro gametes formed?
When some merozoites invade RBCs
74
What do the micro and macrogametes form in a mosquito?
Zygote
75
What does the zygote transform into in malaria?
Ookinete
76
What is the name for hepatocyte budding vessels which release merozoites into the blood?
Merosome
77
What does hemozoin bind to?
Fibrinogen
78
Which TLR recognises fibrinogen?
TLR4
79
Which is released by schistosoma and penetrates the snail?
Miracidium
80
How does the primary sporocyst multiply?
Asexually
81
What part of the snail does the primary sporocyst travel to?
Hepatopancreas
82
What is the primary sporocyst formed from?
Miracidium
83
How does the secondary sporocyst multiply?
Asexually
84
What does the secondary sporocyst produce hundreds of?
Cercariae
85
What time are the cercariae released?
Mid morning
86
How long can the cercaiae survive in water?
48 hrs
87
How long do the schistosomulae live in host skin?
Several days
88
What do the schistosomulae travel in?
Blood and lymphatics
89
What is the larvae of O. volvulus that is ingested by the blackfly called?
Microfilariae
90
What is the human-infective third stage O. volvulus larvae called?
L3
91
Where does L3 develop into an adult?
Subcutaneous tissue
92
How does L3 enter the body?
Blood wound
93
What is the first larval stage in the blackfly during O. volvulus infection?
L1
94
Which kind of parasites are multicellular?
Macroparasites
95
What class of parasite shows antigen switching?
Protozoans
96
When can T brucei cross the BBB?
Second stage
97
How does the Tsetse fly look lik the host?
Acquires blood group antigens
98
What do variable surface antigens inhibit?
C3 convertase
99
Which parasite stage are eosinophils effective against?
Early stages
100
Which T cell response does a metazoan induce?
Th2
101
What is the mutation in HbSS?
Val to Glu
102
What happens to HbSS under low O2?
Clumps
103
Where are deformed RBCs cleared?
Spleen
104
What does HbSS give protective immunity?
PfEMP display and adherence are poor
105
Do HbC and E show sickling?
NO
106
What is the mutation in HbC?
Position 6 glu to lys
107
What is the mutation in HbE?
Position 26 Glu to Lys
108
How many loci does the alpha subunit have?
2
109
How many loci does the beta subunit have?
1
110
What is the thalassemia inheritance?
Autosomal recessive
111
Which thalassemia protects against anaemia by increasing RBC count?
ALpha
112
What is reduced on the cell surface in alpha thalassemia to prevent rosetting?
CR1
113
What is reduced to allow oxidative damage in thalassemia?
GSH
114
What is the natural host of P. knowlesi?
Long and pigtailed macaque
115
Which one causes UROGENITAL schistosomiasis?
Haematobium
116
Which is the animal reservoir of schistosomiasis?
Japonicum
117
After egg production, what happens to the T cell response in schistosomiases?
Switches from Th1 to Th2
118
Which schistosoma has a lateral spine?
Mansoni
119
Which schistosoma is small?
Japonicum
120
In chronic schistosomiasis, what happens to the T cell response?
Th1 upregulated
121
Which kind of schistosomiases causes varicose veins?
INTESTINAL
122
What happens to the CD4 cytokine production in chronic schistosomiasis?
Decreases
123
What happens to the size of egg granulomas in chronic schistosomiases?
Decreases
124
Which T cell response is sustained in severe schistosomiasis?
Th2
125
What cytokine modulates fibrosis in severe schistosomiasis?
IL-10
126
Which T cell response acts against granulomas?
Th1, CD4
127
What does a too large T cell response cause in schistosomiasis?
Too many fibroblasts
128
What is produced in schistosomiasis to block host Igs?
IgSF
129
Which protease cleaves iC3b in schistosomiasis?
M28
130
What happens to a schistosomiasis infection during reduced Il-13?
More infection
131
What happens if there is reduced IFN-gamma during a schistosomiasis infection?
Severe fibrosis (Th2 response)
132
What happens if there is reduced Fox3p+ Treg and reduced IFN-gamma during a schistosomiasis infection?
Hepatosplenic disease
133
What kind of disease is Ivermectin used for?
Filarial
134
Which channels does Avermectin bind to?
Glu-gated Cl- channels
135
What does avermectin kill?
Parasitic worms and some arthropods
136
What is O. volvulus transmitted by?
Simulium
137
How often is Ivermectin treatment used for O. volvulus?
Yearly
138
Which kind of Plasmodium can be treated using quinines?
Vivax and ovale
139
Which plasmodium is artemisinin used for?
Falciparum
140
What does artemisinin inhibiting PfATP6 cause?
Calcium accumulation
141
What is DDT only used for now?
Indoor residual spraying
142
Where are pyrethroids used?
Long lasting insecticidal nets
143
What does CRISPR/Cas9 do?
Uses RNA guide to change alleles and made infertile
144
What do schistosoma eggs hatch to release?
Miracidia
145
How many weeks post infection can schistosoma eggs be detected?
8
146
Do hookworms and ascaris have a direct or indirect lifecycle?
Direct
147
Do onchocerca, plasmodium and schistosoma have a direct or indirect lifecycle?
Indirect
148
Which protein is involved in sequestering and rosetting infected erythrocytes?
PfEMP-1
149
Which kind of development does PfEMP-1 cause development of?
Cerebral
150
What can PfEMP bind to on endothelial cells?
CD36, ICAM-1, VCAM-1, CSA
151
How often are the fever peaks in Plasmodium?
Every 2 days
152
Which parasite causes blackwater fever?
Plasmodium
153
Does plasmodium cause hyperglycaemia?
No
154
Which T cell response activates macrophages?
Th1
155
How does plasmodium cause anaemia?
Host immune response
156
How do PfEMP proteins prevent iRBC clearance in the spleen?
Binds vascular endothelium so sequestered in the microvasculature
157
Which plasmodium uses DARC?
Vivax
158
Is DARC on the parasite or the human?
Human
159
Which plasmodium uses DBL?
Falciparum
160
What is EBA-175?
The erythrocyte binding antigen on falciparum
161
What does EBA-175 bind to?
Glycophorin A on teh RBC
162
Where do macroparasites not normally replicate?
Definitive host
163
What do liver schizonts release?
40,000 merozoites
164
What is hydronephrosis?
Calcified bladder and pressure on kidney