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BOD > Immune System > Flashcards

Immune System Flashcards

1
Q

What substances cause neutrophil recruitment?

A

PAF and TH17

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2
Q

Which kind of fungus impairs neutrophils?

A

Deep filamentous mould

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3
Q

Which kind of fungus spreads through epithelia into arteries if neutrophil numbers are reduced?

A

Aspergillus

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4
Q

Which T cell response stimulates eosinophils?

A

TH2

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5
Q

Which co-stimulatory receptors do dendritic cells express?

A

B7.1 and B7.2

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6
Q

Which cytokines can macrophages secrete?

A

IL1, TNF, IL8

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7
Q

Which negative regulatory molecules do macrophages express?

A

TGFbeta

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8
Q

Which T cell response activates macrophages?

A

TH1

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9
Q

Which IFN does macrophages secrete?

A

IFN-gamma

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10
Q

Which receptor is macrophage tropic?

A

CCR5

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11
Q

Which kinds of fungi impair macrophages?

A

Yeasts and dimorphic fungi

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12
Q

What do fungi secrete once inside a macrophage?

A

Calcium binding protein

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13
Q

Which kind of T cell response stimulates mast cells?

A

TH2

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14
Q

Which mast cell receptor causes mast cell degranulation in hypersensitivity?

A

FCgammaRIII

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15
Q

Which cytokines can NK cells secrete?

A

IFNgamma and TNFalpha

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16
Q

Which NK cell receptor detects MHC class I?

A

KIR

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17
Q

Which NK cell receptor detects LLT-1?

A

NKR-P1

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18
Q

Which NK cell receptor detects MIC-A (stress marker)?

A

NKG2D

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19
Q

Which cytokine activates NK cells?

A

IFNgamma

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20
Q

Which T cells activate NK cells?

A

TH1

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21
Q

Which NK cell receptor triggers ADCC?

A

FCgammaRIII

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22
Q

Which cytokine activates a mature naive T cell?

A

IL2

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23
Q

Which T cells are CD25+?

A

Tregs

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24
Q

Which kind of T cells trigger type IV hypersensitivity?

A

TH1

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25
Q

Which type of cells mediate abacavir sensitivity?

A

T cells

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26
Q

Which receptor is T cells tropic?

A

CXCR4

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27
Q

Which kind of fungal infections impair T cells?

A

Yeasts and dimorphic fungi

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28
Q

Which constant region does IgD have?

A

Delta

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29
Q

Which constant region does IgM have?

A

Micro

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30
Q

Which cytokines stimulate soluble antibody production?

A

IL 4,5,6

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31
Q

What do some viruses encode to promote growth of infected B cells?

A

vIL-10

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32
Q

What produce IL-1beta?

A

Inflammasome

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33
Q

What does IL-1 and TNFalpha activate when it binds to its receptors?

A

NFkB and AP1

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34
Q

What is IL-1 a cofactor for?

A

IL-3 and IL-6

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35
Q

What is IL-1 cleaved by?

A

Caspase 1

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36
Q

Synthesis of what does IL-2 promote?

A

IL-1

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37
Q

Which cells does IL-2 activate?

A

B cells and NK cells

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38
Q

What is the IL-2 receptor?

A

CD25

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39
Q

Which kind of T cell does IL-4 stimulate production of?

A

TH2

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40
Q

Which isotype switch does IL-4 promote?

A

IgE

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41
Q

Which receptors does IL-6 bind?

A

IL-6Ralpha and IL-6ST

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42
Q

What kind of a receptor is the CXCL8 receptor?

A

GPCR

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43
Q

Which cells does IL-12 stimulate?

A

T and NK

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44
Q

Which cytokine production does IL-12 increase?

A

IFNgamma and TNFalpha

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45
Q

Which kind of T cell does IL-12 stimulate differentiation into?

A

TH1

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46
Q

Which cells secrete TNFalpha?

A

NK and sentinel macrophages

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47
Q

What kind of a response does type 1 IFN produce?

A

Antiviral

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48
Q

Which kind of T cell response does IFNgamma downregulate?

A

TH2

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49
Q

What stimulates IFNbeta production?

A

IRF3 and NFkB

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50
Q

Which MHC class do type 1 IFNs upregulate?

A

I

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51
Q

Which T cell response does type 2 IFN promote?

A

TH1

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52
Q

Which kind of cells are type 3 IFN important in?

A

Epithelial

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53
Q

What does ISGF3 act on in the JAK-STAT pathway?

A

ISRE

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54
Q

Which are the ISG antiviral genes?

A

OAS, PKR, Mx

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55
Q

What does PKR activate?

A

eIF2-alpha

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56
Q

What does FAS binding to receptor FAS induce?

A

Apoptosis

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57
Q

What kind of DNA is a bacterial PAMP?

A

unmethylated CpG-rich DNA

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58
Q

Which kind of DNA/RNA are PAMPs in viruses?

A

dsRNA, uncapped RNA, cytoplasmic DNA

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59
Q

What kind of dimers do TLRs signal as?

A

Homo or hetero

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60
Q

Where is TLR4 found?

A

Cell surface

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61
Q

Where is TLR3 found?

A

Endosomes

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62
Q

What does TLR4 ligation result in?

A

NFkB

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63
Q

What does TLR3 result in?

A

IRFs

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64
Q

Where are NLRs found?

A

Cytoplasm

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65
Q

What do NLRs recognise?

A

Peptidoglycan degradation products

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66
Q

What does NLR ligation result in?

A

NFkB

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67
Q

What does NLR signal by to activate the inflammasome?

A

NALP3

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68
Q

Where are RLRs found?

A

Cytoplasm

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69
Q

What do RLRs recognise?

A

RNA

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70
Q

What does RLR ligation result in?

A

IRF3 and IRF7 for antiviral IFN1 response (type 1)

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71
Q

Which factor produces bradykinin?

A

XII

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72
Q

How does histamine affect tight junctions in endothelial cells?

A

Releases them

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73
Q

What is IL-1a/b cleaved by?

A

Caspase 1

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74
Q

What does TNF and IL-1a/b activate?

A

NFkB and AP1

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75
Q

What do ferritin, hepcidin, ceruloplasmin and haptoglobin do?

A

Limit iron available for pathogen

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76
Q

What do sentinel macrophages secrete?

A

IL1, TNF and IL8

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77
Q

What does L-selectin on neutrophil, monocyte or T cell bind to on the endothelium?

A

PSGL

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78
Q

What does LFA-1 on neutrophil bind to on the endothelium?

A

ICAM-1

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79
Q

What does PSGL on the neutrophil bind to on the endothelium?

A

P selectin first, then E selectin

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80
Q

What does VLA-4 on the monocyte bind to on the endothelium?

A

VCAM-1

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81
Q

When is L-selectin expressed on most leukocytes?

A

Constitutively

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82
Q

Which secretory bodies have P-selectin?

A

Weibel-Palade

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83
Q

What do all selectins bind?

A

sialyl Lewis x

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84
Q

What are the selectins?

A

Ca dependent lectins

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85
Q

Under what conditions does PSGL bind the selectins?

A

Flow

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86
Q

With which selectin does PSGL mediate rolling?

A

E

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87
Q

Where is the anaphylatoxin on C3a?

A

At end of alpha chain

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88
Q

Which things can perform nucleophilic attack on thioester bond of C3b?

A

Water or OH or NH2 on bacterial surface

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89
Q

What is C3b further cleaved into?

A

Inactive C3c and C3d

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90
Q

What are factor P deficient people susceptible to?

A

Neisseria

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91
Q

Which kind of bacteria are factor I deficient people susceptible to?

A

Encapsulated

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92
Q

Where is factor H found?

A

Plasma

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93
Q

What does factor H bind on vertebrate cells?

A

Sialic acid

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94
Q

What is the structure of a “tulip protein”?

A

Head group on long protein chain, ends with a collagen-like sequence

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95
Q

Which part of the C1q binds the CRP?

A

Phosphocholine

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96
Q

When can Clq bind antibdy Fc regions?

A

When they are bound to their target antigen

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97
Q

Is C2a or C2b smaller?

A

C2b

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98
Q

How does C9 polymerise?

A

Self polymerises

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99
Q

What can C5-9 deficient people suffer from?

A

Neisseria

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100
Q

What is iC3?

A

C3(H2O)

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101
Q

What protects host cells from MAC and C9?

A

CD59

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102
Q

What happens in paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria?

A

RBCs lacking CD59 are lysed by complements

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103
Q

What is a linear epitope?

A

AA sequence

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104
Q

What is a conformaional epitope?

A

3D protein structure

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105
Q

Why don’t neuronal cells have MHC?

A

If killed they don’t recover

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106
Q

What are the costimulatory molecules from the macrophage after the PRRs are ligated?

A

B7 and CD40

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107
Q

What is affinity maturation?

A

Cells with highest affinity are induced to proliferate

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108
Q

How do FDCs trap antigen?

A

Antigen/antibody/C3b complex

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109
Q

Which Igs have three constant domains?

A

G, A, D

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110
Q

Which Igs have four constant domains?

A

M and E

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111
Q

Which Ig is always made?

A

IgM

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112
Q

Which CDR is most variable?

A

CDR3

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113
Q

Why are IgMs always made?

A

Closest to VDJ segment

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114
Q

Where does somatic hypermutation happen?

A

In lymph node

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115
Q

What enzymes deaminates cytosine to uracil?

A

Activation Induced Cytosine Deaminase

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116
Q

Which enzymes drives isotype switching?

A

AID

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117
Q

Which Ig is secreted into the gut to protect mucous membranes?

A

IgA

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118
Q

What is the structure of IgM?

A

A pentamer

119
Q

Which cells express FCgammaRIII?

A

NK, neutrophils, eosinophils, phagocytes

120
Q

What is the affinity of the FCgammaRIII receptor?

A

Low

121
Q

What does the FcgammaRIII receptor detect?

A

Antibody/antigen complexes

122
Q

What does IgE bind to on the eosinophil?

A

FcERI (high affinity)

123
Q

Which Ig receptors do mast cells and basphils have?

A

FcERI and FcgammaRIII

124
Q

Which Igs protect mucosal surfaces?

A

IgA and IgM

125
Q

Which Ig can cross the mucosal surface?

A

IgA

126
Q

Which chain of the IgA does its receptor recognise?

A

J chain

127
Q

What does IgA in the milk do?

A

Remains in the infant gut and prevents bacteria/toxins attaching to gut epithelia

128
Q

Which Ig travels across the placenta to pretect against pathogens in the birth environment?

A

IgG

129
Q

What acts as a negative signal to terminate B cell response?

A

B cells, immune complexes, BCR and FcgammaRIIB

130
Q

What is the avidity and affinity of IgM antibodies?

A

Low affinity, high avidity

131
Q

Which chromosome is the MHC locus on?

A

6

132
Q

How are the class 1 alpha chain and beta2-microglobulin linked?

A

Non-covalently

133
Q

Which extracellular domain does the Class 1 alpha chain have?

A

Alpha1,2,3

134
Q

Which alpha extracellular domains form the peptide binding groove in Class 1 MHC?

A

Alpha 1 and alpha 2

135
Q

How many peptides can the class 1 MHC fit?

A

8-9

136
Q

What has the base of the class 1 groove got?

A

B pleated sheet and two alpha helices

137
Q

Which chains has the class 2 MHC got?

A

Alpha and beta

138
Q

What is the structure of the peptide binding groove in MHC class 2?

A

Formed by alpha1 and beta1 domains, supported by alpha2 and beta2 domains

139
Q

How many types of MHC class II are there?

A

6

140
Q

How does class I groove restrict peptide chain length?

A

Has pockets to interact with carboxy terminus

141
Q

Which loci encode class I?

A

HLA-A,B and C

142
Q

Which loci encode class II?

A

HLA-DP,DQ,DR

143
Q

How are class I peptides moved to the ER?

A

TAP

144
Q

In the endocytic pathway, what small peptide is found in the peptide binding groove?

A

CLIP

145
Q

What is the compartment called where the CLIP is removed?

A

MIIC

146
Q

Which enzymes cause recombination in T cells?

A

RAG1 and RAG2

147
Q

What is the B7 receptor?

A

CD28

148
Q

Which costimulatory molecules does the APC express?

A

B7.1 and B7.2

149
Q

Which cells do Th1 cells activate?

A

Macrophages, NK cells and CTL

150
Q

What do Th17 cells defend against?

A

Extracellular bacteria and some fungi

151
Q

Which cytokines switches off production of Th2 cells?

A

IFN gamma

152
Q

Which cytokine dampens macrophage activation?

A

IL-10

153
Q

Which chain is the surrogate in the T cell?

A

Surrogate alpha chain

154
Q

Where are double positive T cells found?

A

Thymus

155
Q

Which complex is required for TCR alpha/beta chain expression?

A

CD3

156
Q

Which complex transduces the signal in the BCR?

A

CD79

157
Q

What expresses the peripheral antigens?

A

AIRE

158
Q

What do AIRE mutations cause?

A

APECED

159
Q

Which transcription factor do Tregs express?

A

Fox3p

160
Q

What do people without Fox3p get?

A

IPEX syndrome

161
Q

Which are the placental immunosuppressive factors?

A

alpha-fetal protein and IDO

162
Q

What is IDO

A

A tryptophan catalysing enzymes

163
Q

Which kind of autoimmunity is IgE mediated?

A

None

164
Q

What kind of autoimmunity is analogous to type II hypersensitivity?

A

Direct antibody mediated effects

165
Q

What causes direct antibody-mediated autoimmunity?

A

Autoantibodies in serum

166
Q

What kind of autoimmunity is analogous to type III hypersensitivity?

A

Immune complex medaited effects

167
Q

In SLE what are the autoantibodies against?

A

Cytoplasm and nucleus

168
Q

Which complement molecules are depleted in SLE?

A

C1, 2, 4

169
Q

Which kind of autoimmunity is analogous to type IV hypersensitivity?

A

T cell mediated

170
Q

What is the autoantigen in Goodpasture’s syndrome?

A

Type IV collagen

171
Q

Which mutation affects diabetes susceptibility?

A

Position 57 of DQB chain changed to not aspartate

172
Q

What is type I hypersensitivity caused by?

A

IgE mast cells

173
Q

What is type II hypersensitivity mediated by?

A

IgM/IgG binding to cells

174
Q

What is type III hypersensitivity mediated by?

A

Immune complexes

175
Q

What is type IV hypersensitivity mediated by?

A

T cells (delayed type)

176
Q

What is atopy?

A

A predisposed state to type 1 hypersensitivity, with higher IgE levels

177
Q

In type I hypersensitivity, which mast cell receptor does the IgE bind to?

A

FcERI

178
Q

What response does a low dose of allergen cause?

A

IL4 producing Th2 response

179
Q

Which kind of responses are ABO and rhesus?

A

II

180
Q

What is the core of the ABO molecule?

A

H antigen

181
Q

What is the modification of the A molecule?

A

Terminal N-acetylgalactosamine

182
Q

What is the modification of the B molecule?

A

Terminal galactose

183
Q

Which antibody is produced in HDN?

A

Anti-RhD IgG

184
Q

How are HDN complexes cleaved?

A

No complement so maternal Abs coat and are cleared by spleen Fc receptors

185
Q

Which receptor do type III complexes bind to on the mast cell?

A

FcgammaRIII

186
Q

What is the Arthus reaction?

A

Bump rather than wheal and flare

187
Q

Which kind of T cells trigger type IV hypersensitivity?

A

TH1

188
Q

Which mutations cause abacavir sensitivity?

A

HLA-B*57

189
Q

Which kind of rejection is like type II hypersensitivity?

A

Hyperacute

190
Q

Which proteins regulate damage to self tissues and don’t work across species?

A

DAF

191
Q

In transplantation, which MHCs are matched and which are removed?

A

I matched, II removed

192
Q

What causes acute rejection?

A

T cell recognition

193
Q

What is direct acute rejection?

A

Donor APCs activate host T cells

194
Q

What is indirect acute rejection?

A

Donor tissue H antigens are presented to host T cells

195
Q

What is indirect allorecognition?

A

Indirect recognition of minor H antigens

196
Q

What is is minor/H antigen?

A

non-MHC protein which differs between host and recipient

197
Q

What kind of rejection is like type III hypersensitivity?

A

Chronic

198
Q

What is used to mobilise pluripotent stem cells?

A

GM-CSF

199
Q

Which + stem cells are selected?

A

CD34

200
Q

What is GM-CSF?

A

Granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor

201
Q

How are HLA matches tested?

A

Using a microtoxicity test

202
Q

What do macrophages secrete?

A

Leukotrienes, histamine, prostaglandin

203
Q

Which systems activate the vascular endothelium?

A

Fibrinolytic, clotting and kinin

204
Q

Deficiency of what causes pyogenic infection?

A

C3, factor I and H

205
Q

What does IgM do?

A

Activates complement

206
Q

What does IgG/A do?

A

Neutralise

207
Q

What does IgG1 do?

A

Opsonise

208
Q

Which cytokines promote ECM reconstruction?

A

IL4 and 13

209
Q

What is CD19?

A

B cell marker

210
Q

What activates TLR4?

A

LPS from gram -ve

211
Q

What does TLR3 detect?

A

dsRNA from viruses

212
Q

What does NLR detect?

A

PG from gram +ve/-ve

213
Q

What is the host protein that chelates iron?

A

Lactoferrin

214
Q

Which complement does lipid A activate?

A

Lectin

215
Q

What is the ETEC toxin type?

A

ADP-ribosylating enzymes

216
Q

What is the Shiga toxin enzyme?

A

Glycosidase

217
Q

What is the tetatnus toxin enzyme?

A

neurotoxin

218
Q

What is the clostridial alpha toxin enzyme?

A

Phospholipase

219
Q

What is the streptolysin O enzyme?

A

Pore former

220
Q

Are endotoxins or exotoxin more heat stable?

A

Endotoxin

221
Q

Which T cell response drives isotype switching?

A

Th2

222
Q

What do chloramphenicol and aminoglycosides inhibit?

A

Peptide elongation

223
Q

How much lower is malarial risk in HbAS?

A

10x

224
Q

What do defensins do?

A

Intercalate into and disrupt membranes

225
Q

When do antibody responses peak?

A

8-10 days after infection

226
Q

Which Ig does mucosal infections need?

A

IgM

227
Q

Which Ig binds C1q?

A

IgM

228
Q

Why does IgM not opsonise?

A

Pentamer - Fc not available

229
Q

Which diseases is HLA-B27 defect associated with?

A

Psoriasis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Inflammatory bowel disease, and Reactive arthritis.

230
Q

What do Th17 cells do?

A

Enhance the neutrophil response - particularly for bacteria colonising the epithelium

231
Q

What are M2 macrophages?

A

Alternatively activated macrophages

232
Q

What activates AAMs?

A

Il-4 (as in a Th2 response)

233
Q

How do AAMs cause tissue repair?

A

secrete growths factors to stimulate healthy cells to divide and replace lost cells, and to stimulate fibroblasts to secrete collagen to rebuild lost connective tissue

234
Q

Is AAM innate or adaptive?

A

Innate

235
Q

Which cells release IL-4?

A

Mast cells and activated B cells

236
Q

How do parasites activate AAM?

A

IgE activates mast cells to make IL-4 which activates AAMs

237
Q

Which lineage is NK cells?

A

Lymphoid

238
Q

Which deficiencies predispose to Neisseria infections?

A

C5,6,7,8, properdin, factor D

239
Q

Which deficiencies cause pyogenic infections?

A

C3, factor I and H

240
Q

Which cells generate defensins?

A

Epithelial

241
Q

What does NALP3 recognise?

A

Cholesterol crystals, uric acid, DNA, ATP, toxins, dsRNA, paramyxovirus

242
Q

How does factor H affect the alternative pathway?

A

Inhibits

243
Q

Which kind of tolerance allows the existence of autoreactive B cells?

A

Split tolerance

244
Q

What do lymphocytes enter lymph node through?

A

High endothelial venules

245
Q

Which thymus region does negative selection occur in?

A

Medullary

246
Q

WHich cell dirves isotype switching?

A

Tfh

247
Q

What stimulates dendritic cell migration?

A

TNF-a

248
Q

Which enzyme generates point mutations during somatic hypermutation?

A

Activation induced cytidine deaminase

249
Q

Are HLAs alleles?

A

No, isotypes

250
Q

Why don’t inflammasome cause apoptosis?

A

Different caspases

251
Q

WHich b doesn’t have a thioester bond?

A

C5b

252
Q

Which complement pathway does factor XII activate?

A

Classical

253
Q

Which complement things does thrombin cleave?

A

C3 and C5

254
Q

What happens if second signal is absent?

A

Anergy

255
Q

What is pleiotropism?

A

One cytokine can have multiple effects

256
Q

What is the structure of FAS?

A

Trimer

257
Q

What is the structure of perforin?

A

Monomer

258
Q

Which complement component is Perforin similar to?

A

C9

259
Q

How many TLRs are there is humans?

A

10

260
Q

Which PRRs have LRR domains?

A

TLRs

261
Q

Which domains do TLRs signal through?

A

TIR

262
Q

How many NLRs are there in humans?

A

22

263
Q

WHich adaptor do DNA receptors in the cytoplasm work through?

A

STING

264
Q

What does AIM2 interact with the make the inflammasome?

A

ASC and caspase 1

265
Q

Which enzyme produces the leukotrienes?

A

5-lipoxygenase

266
Q

Where is properdin made and stored?

A

neutrophils

267
Q

Which protease does CR1 recruit?

A

Serine protease factor I

268
Q

How many variable gene segments does the human heavy chain locus encode?

A

38-46

269
Q

What accounts for CDR1/2 variation?

A

V gene segments

270
Q

What account for CD3 variation?

A

DJ and junctional segments

271
Q

How many heavy chains do B cells have?

A

1

272
Q

How many diversity segments do light chains have?

A

None

273
Q

Which light chain is rearranged first?

A

K

274
Q

Which sequences do recombinases recognise?

A

COnserved heptamer and nonomer

275
Q

Which enzymes do junctional diversity?

A

Terminal deoxynucleotide transferase

276
Q

Which enzyme changes C to U during somatic hypermutation?

A

AID

277
Q

How are soluble or membrane bound Igs produced?

A

Different polyA sites

278
Q

What do low affinity FcRs bind?

A

Multivalent antigen/antibody complexes (not monovalent)

279
Q

Which are the low affinity FcRs?

A

FcgammaRII and III

280
Q

Which is the high affinity FcR?

A

FcgammaRI

281
Q

Which cells express FcgammaRs?

A

Macrophages and neutrophils

282
Q

Which cells express FcgammaRIII?

A

NK, neutrophils, eosinophils, phagocytes

283
Q

Which animals get IgG post-natally using an IgG-receptor in the gut?

A

Ruminants and rodents

284
Q

What is MHC alpha chain non-covalently linked to?

A

Beta-2 microglobulin

285
Q

How many peptides can the MHC class II accommodate?

A

13-25

286
Q

How many peptide-MHC molecules per cell?

A

Mean 100

287
Q

What do MHC class II molecules associate with to prevent binding peptides in the ER?

A

Invariant chain

288
Q

Do T cells or B cells have somatic hypermutation?

A

B cells only

289
Q

Which cells mediate positive selection?

A

Cortical epithelial cells

290
Q

Defining feature of pAPC?

A

Co-stim molecules

291
Q

What are fungal spores coated with the avoid the immune system?

A

Hydrophobin

292
Q

Which cancer is associated with immunosuppression?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma in HIV

293
Q

What is contact hypersensitivity?

A

Cutaneous response to hapten (Th1 cells activate macrophages)

294
Q

What is a hapten?

A

Forms stable complex with host protein

BOD (7 decks)

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