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Oral Pathology > Viral Infections > Flashcards

Viral Infections Flashcards

1
Q

DNA virus in the herpesvirus family; HHV-1 (oral) and HHV-2 (genital)

A

herpes simplex virus

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2
Q

children, sometimes adults; diffuse painful shallow ulcers; fever malaise; lymphadenopathy; one episode- 10 to 14 days; virus remains dormant in sensory or autonomic ganglia

A

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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3
Q

punched out areas at gingival margins

A

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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4
Q
A

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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5
Q
A

primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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6
Q

reactivation of virus; asymptomatic shedding vs. symptomatic; can be stimulated by UV light, trauma, stress

A

recurrent herpes labialis

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7
Q
A

recurrent herpes labialis

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8
Q

perioral skin or vermilion; prodromal itching or tingling; cluster of vesicles; heal with crusting- 7 to 10 days

A

recurrent herpes labialis

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9
Q
A

recurrent herpes labialis

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10
Q

recurrence on thumbs or fingers; less common with universal use of gloves

A

herpetic whitlow

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11
Q
A

herpetic whitlow

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12
Q

relatively uncommon; usually few symptoms; cluster of shallow ulcer- intact vesicles rare; mucosa bound to periosteum (Hard palate and attached gingiva); heal within one week

A

recurrent intraoral herpes

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13
Q
A

recurrent intraoral herpes

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14
Q

reactivation of virus; any oral mucosal surface; large shallow ulcers; scalloped, elevated borders; antiviral meds indicated; may co-infect with CMV

A

Herpes in the Immunocompromised host

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15
Q
A

hepes in the immunocompromised pt

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16
Q

acantholysis and ulceration of the epithelium; epithelial cells at margin of ulcer show ballooning degeneration and multiple anglulated nuclei; Tzanck cells- Acantholytic epithelial cells; mixed inflammatory infiltrate

A

herpesvirus infection

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17
Q

ballooning degeneration

A

herpesvirus infection

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18
Q

Primary herpes treatment: antiviral meds if recongnized early (1st _ hrs)

A

72

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19
Q

primary varicella-zoster infection; upon resolution, the virus will remain dormant in sensory nerve ganglia; reactivation- shingles

A

chicken pox

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20
Q

fever, malaise, rhinitis; cutaneous lesions-pruritic vesicles (dew drops on rose petals); patients are contagious until all lesions crusted

A

varicella

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21
Q
A

varicella

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22
Q

varicella: few, diffuse, 1-2 mm oral ulcers; typically affect the _ and _

A

palate and buccal mucosa

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23
Q

varicella treatment: typically symptomatic in children; antiviral meds are helpful if administered within the first _ hrs of the exantham

A

24

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24
Q

reactivation of VZV; typically occurs in elderly; single recurrence only; associated with immunosuppression, trauma like dental treatment

A

Herpes zoster (shingles)

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25
Q

prodrome pain, sometimes accompanied be fever, malaise, and headache, painful vesicles, which crust in 7-10 days; usually on trunk, sometimes head and neck; vesicles affect cutaneous zone of innervation to midline

A

herpes zoster

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26
Q
A

herpes zoster (shingles)

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27
Q
A

herpes zoster

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28
Q

post-herpetic neuralgia; Ramsey Hunt syndrome

A

herpes zoster

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29
Q

disease caused by exposure to EBV; typically spread through contact; following exposure, EBV remains in the host for life

A

infectious mononucleosis

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30
Q

children are typically symptomatic; classic presentation (Young adult): fatigue, malaise, tender cervical lymphadenopathy, fever; oral- tonsillar enlargement, palatal petechiae; patients may also develop NUG

A

infectious mononucleosis

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31
Q

cervical lymphadenopathy associated with

A

infectious mono

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32
Q

tonsillar enlargement associated with

A

infectious mono

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33
Q

palatal petechiae associated with

A

infectious mono

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34
Q

diagnosis of infectious mono: _ antibody test

A

paul-bunnell

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35
Q

treatement of infectious mono with _ can trigger a polyclonal B cell proliferation

A

corticosteroids

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36
Q

group of viruses including poliovirus, coxsackievirus and echovirus; at least 30 are known to cause sympomatic infections with rashes; transmission typically through fecal-oral route, saliva or respriratory droplets

A

enteroviruses

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37
Q

caused by infection with one of a number of coxsackieviruses most commonly coxsackievirus A; typically asymptomatic; sore throat, fever, headache

A

herpangina

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38
Q
A

herpangina

39
Q

1-2 mm ulcers on soft palate; healing occurs in 7-10 days

A

herpangina

40
Q

caused by several strains of consackievirus, most commonly coxsackievirus A; sore throat, fever; cutaneous and oral lesions

A

hand, foot,and mouth disease

41
Q

oral lesions- 1-2 mm ulcerations, diffusely distributed on oral mucosa; cutaneous lesions-erythematous macules with central vesicles

A

hand foot and mouth

42
Q

herpangina or hand foot and mouth

A

hand foot and mouth

43
Q

caused by coxsackievirus A10; rare condition with few reported cases

A

actue lymphonodular pharyngitis

44
Q

sore throat, fever; yellow to dark pink nodules dispersed over the soft palate

A

acute lymphonodular pharyngitis

45
Q

infection by a paramyxovirus; 1980s: increased incidence due to lack of vaccine or vaccine failure; droplet transmission

A

rubeola (measles)

46
Q

fever, malaise, coryza, conjunctivitis and cough; classic maculopapular rash; much more serious in the immunocompromised

A

rubeola

47
Q

Koplick’s sports, may effect developing dentition; NUG

A

rubeola

48
Q

Rubeola- _ giant cells

A

Warthin-Finkleday

49
Q

MMR vaccination includes

A

measles, mumps, rubella

50
Q

togavirus infection; significance lies in the capacity to infect the developing fetus; droplet transmission

A

rubella

51
Q

typically symptomatic; symptoms are more likely in adolescents and adults; flu-like symptoms with characteristic exanthematous rash

A

rubella

52
Q

rash begins on face and spreads to rest of the body; macules evolve to papules and flaky desquemation

A

rubella

53
Q

oral lesions: Forchheimer’s sign (small, dark red papules on soft and posterior hard palate); palatal petechiae

A

rubella

54
Q

deafness, heart disease, cataracts; may include encephalopathy, mental retardation, diabetes mellitus; thyroid disorders

A

congenital rubella syndrome

55
Q

paramyxovirus infection; typically an infection of the salivary glands with the parotid being the most common; droplet, saliva, urine transmission

A

mumps (endemic parotitis)

56
Q

often asymptomatic (30%); flu-like prodrome; swelling and pain of the affected gland; epididymoorchitis

A

mumps

57
Q
A

mumps

58
Q

oral manifestations; redness and enlargement of the salivary duct orifices (Stensen’s); sublingual swelling if sublingual glands are affected

A

mumps

59
Q

RNA retrovirus first reported in 1981; previously near 100% fatal, but with recent treatment regimens, patients are controlling the disease for much longer periods; virus has been found in most bodily fluids

A

HIV

60
Q

3 most frequent transmission methods of HIV

A

sexual contact, parenteral exposure to blood, maternal/fetal

61
Q

cells with _ receptors (primarity the T helper lymphocyte) are the target cell of HIV; Viral DNA is permanently integrated into host DNA via _

A

CD4; reverse transcription

62
Q

Clinical course of HIV: acute, self limited response (similar to _); _ to _ year asymptomatic stage; symptomatic stage(_/AIDS)

A

infectious mono, 8 to 10; AIDS-related complex

63
Q

endpoint of HIV; 5 yrs after infection-18% have it; 13 yrs after infection-65% have it, 20% have symptoms, and 15% have no symptoms

A

AIDS

64
Q

Fever, weight loss, diarrhea, candidiasis, herpes zoster, hairy leukoplakia

A

ARC

65
Q

increased infections in AIDS includes

A

CMV, herpes simplex, toxoplasmosis

66
Q

pulmonary presenting sign in AIDS in 50% of pts

A

pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

67
Q

oral manifestation of HIV: lymphadenopathy present for longer than 3 months; 2 or more extrainguinal sites; common sites: cervical, submandibular, axillary

A

persistant generalized lymphadenopathy

68
Q

fungal infections associated with HIV:

A

candidiasis; histoplasmosis; cryptococcosis; aspergillosis

69
Q

most common HIV associated deep fungal infection; oral lesions common; chronic, indurated ulcer with raised border; may be single or multiple

A

histoplasmosis

70
Q

in HIV: reactivation of virus; may affect any mucosal site surface; painful, diffuse ulcers; treatment -Acyclovir, Valtrex

A

HSV

71
Q

in HIV patient

A

HSV

72
Q

more severe than in immunocompetent; treatment - IV acyclovir

A

VZV

73
Q

oral hairy leukoplakia; presence strongly suggestive of HIV; indication of advanced disease

A

EBV

74
Q

condyloma acuminatum; most common types 6 and 11; unusual morphology; often unusual types; usually multiple lesions

A

HPV

75
Q
A

HPV

76
Q
A

mulluscum contagiosum

77
Q

HIV associated perio: linear band of erythema involving the free margin; may represent an unusual pattern of candidiasis; most resolve with improved hygiene

A

linear gingival erythema

78
Q
A

linear gingival erythema

79
Q

HIV associated perio: blunted or “punched out” papillae; fetid odor; pain; spontaneous hemorrhage; necrotic debris

A

NUG

80
Q
A

NUG

81
Q

HIV associated perio: gingival ulceration; rapidly progressive loss of attachment; edema, pain, spontaneous hemorrhage

A

necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis

82
Q
A

necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis

83
Q

HIV associated perio: severe pain; extensive bone and soft tissue destruction

A

necrotizing stomatitis

84
Q
A

necrotizing stomatitis

85
Q

HIV associated malignancy: usually in homosexual men; decreasing in frequency; palate, gingiva most common sites

A

Karposi’s sarcoma

86
Q
A

karposi’s sarcoma

87
Q
A

Karposi’s sarcoma

88
Q

HIV associated malignancy: not as common as KS; often extranodal; clinically may resemble KS; very poor prognosis

A

AIDS-related lymphoma

89
Q

HIV associated malignancy: typical risk factors, presentation, and distribution; tend to occur at a younger age; development may be accelerated by HIV

A

squamous cell carcinoma

90
Q

HIV miscellaneous lesion/condition

A

HIV associated salivary gland disease

91
Q

HIV miscellaneous lesion/condition

A

aphthous ulceration

92
Q

HIV miscellaneous lesion/condition

A

HIV associated melanosis

93
Q
A

Oral Pathology (11 decks)

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