Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Elevated lesions; contain fluid and often translucent in appearance

A

Blisterform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

elevated lesions; contains fluid and often translucent in appearance; 5mm or less

A

vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

elevated lesions; contains fluid and often translucent in appearance; >5mm

A

bulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

elevated lesions; contains purulent exudate

A

pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5mm or less

A

vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

>5mm

A

bulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

5mm or less; single or multiple; multiple may coalesce

A

vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

5mm or less; single or multiple; multiple may coalesce

A

vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

5mm or less; single or multiple; multiple may coalesce

A

vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

>5mm; single or multiple

A

bullae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

characterized by purulent exudate

A

pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

characterized by purulent exudate

A

pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

characterized by purulent exudate

A

pustule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

elevated lesions; nonblisterform; solid lesions and firm to palpation; 5mm or less

A

papule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

elevated lesions; nonblisterform; solid lesions and firm to palpation; >5mm

A

nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

elevated lesions; nonblisterform; solid lesions and firm to palpation; >2cm

A

tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

5mm or less

A

papule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

>5mm

A

nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

>5mm

A

nodule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

>2cm

A

tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
depressed lesion; complete loss of mucosa; 3 mm or less
superficial ulcer
26
depressed lesion; complete loss of mucosa; \>3mm
deep ulcer
27
single or multiple; separate or coalescing
ulcer
28
single or multiple; separate or coalescing
ulcer
29
single or multiple; separate or coalescing
ulcer
30
ulcer with a _ margin
smooth
31
ulcer with a _ margin
raised
32
deep ulcer
33
fissure
34
abnormal color; circumscribed; usually small (\<1cm)
macule
35
abnormal color; circumscribed; usually small (\<1cm)
macule
36
color change; inflammation or trauma
red
37
color; normal oral mucosa
pink
38
color change; altered epithelium or lamina propria
white
39
color change; inflammation
red and white
40
color change; vascular lesions and cysts
blue
41
color change; foreign material in the tissue
grey
42
color change; pigment, pus, lymphoid tissue
yellow
43
color change; vascular lesions or blood pigments
purple
44
color change; foreign material
black
45
color change; melanin or hemosiderin
brown
46
color change; blisterform
translucent
47
biopsy fixation with \_
10% buffered neutral formalin
48
have to use Michel's solution for \_
immunofluorescence
49
limited value; useful for diagnosing viral (herpes) or fungal (candidiasis) infections or for certain epithelial disorders (white sponge nevus) or vesiculobullous diseases (pemphigus vulgaris)
cytology
50
used to detect autoantibodies present in tissue specimens or serum
immunofluorescence
51
cleft lip with/without cleft palate; more common in which gender
males
52
cleft palate alone; more common in which gender
females
53
mildest expression of cleft palate
bifid uvula
54
cleft palate; madnibular micrognathia; glossoptosis (airway obstruction)
pierre robin sequence
55
pierre robin sequence
56
common developmental anomaly; often develop later in life
commissural lip pits
57
persistance of the lateral sulci; often associated with cleft lip and/or cleft palate (Van der Woude sydrome)
paramedian lip pits
58
redundant fold of tissue; congenital or acquired (Ascher syndrome)
double lip
59
edema of the eyelids
blepharochalasis
60
double lip; blepharochalasis; nontoxic thyroid enlargement
ascher syndrome
61
heterotropic sebaceous glands; seen \>80% of patients; most frequently seen on the upper vermilion zone of the lip and the buccal mucosa; typically develop during puberty
fordyce granules
62
common mucosal condition most common in african americans; dimishes or disappears on stretching
leukoedema
63
leukoedema
64
increased thickening of epithelium; parakeratosis; intracellular edema
leukoedema
65
abnormally small tongue; unknown etiology; often associated with hypoplasia or the mandible and missing lower incisors
microglossia
66
\_ macroglossia: vascular malformations, down syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
congenital or hereditary
67
\_ macroglossia: amyloidosis, angioedema
acquired
68
short lingual frenum resulting in limitation of tongue mobility; may range from mild to severe; "tongue tied"
ankyloglossia
69
70% of patients only thyroid gland tissue; F\>M; dysphagia, dysphonia, dyspnea
lingual thyroid
70
verification that lingual mass is thyroid by its ability to trap \_
iodine
71
grooved, fissured dorsum of tongue; often associated with geographic tongue
fissured tongue
72
fissured tongue; facial paralysis (bell's palsy); orofacial granulomatosis
Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome
73
excess keratin accumulation; brown, black or yellow; associated factors: smoking, poor hygiene, debilitation; ususually asympotmatic; treated by superficial debridement
hairy tongue
74
elongation and parakeratosis of the filiform papillae; abundant bacteria
hairy tongue
75
abnormally dilated veins (varicosity); common over age 40; aysmptomatic, unless thrombosed
varix
76
\_ varicosities most common variant of varix
sublingual
77
dilated vein, lines of Zahn, phlebolith
varix
78
caliber persistant artery
79
uncertain pathogenesis; often bilateral; most common on anterior tonsillar pillar
lateral soft palate fistula
80
rare development anomaly of unknown pathogenesis; may result in limitation or deflection of movement; typically will worsen over years; M\>F; unilateral or bilateral; treatment-surgical
coronoid hyperplasia
81
localized benign bony protuberances arising from the cortical plate; include maxillary (palatal) and mandibular tori; probably a multifactorial etiology
exotoses
82
buccal exotoses
83
palatal exotoses
84
reactive subpontine exotoses
85
midline of hard palate; frequently lobular; may continue to grow; frequently asymptomatic
torus palatinus
86
lingual aspect of mandible; typically bilateral; may be seen radiographically
torus mandibularis
87
elongation of the styloid process or mineralization of the stylohyoid ligament; symptoms result from impingment or compression of adjacent nerves or blood vessels
eagel syndrome
88
etiology: -fever -infection/trauma
enamel hypoplasia
89
enamel hypoplasia
90
solitary defect of hypoplasia; probably trauma related
Turner's tooth
91
bend of root or crown secondary to trauma
dilaceration
92
lusterless white opacities with yellow to brown discolorations; hypomaturation with increased porosity; affected teeth while compromised esthetically are resistant to caries
dental fluorosis
93
dental fluorosis secondary to greater than \_
1 part per million
94
hutchinson's incisors and mulberry molars related to \_
congenital syphilis
95
hutchinson's incisors
96
mulberry molars
97
\_ developmental alterations: attrition, erosion, abrasion, abfraction
post
98
secondary to tooth-tooth contact; typically physiologic, but may be pathologic
attrition
99
secondary to external agent (toothbrush)
abrasion
100
secondary to chemical (acids) contact
erosion
101
erosion secondary to gastric secretions
perimolysis
102
secondary to occlusal stresses
abfraction
103
typically secondary to pulpal injury; cells within vital pulp act upon dentin
internal resoption
104
resorption approacing clinical crown
pink tooth of mummery (internal resorption)
105
numerous etiological agents; -pathology -excess force -adjacent impactions
external resorption
106
secondary to exogenous pigment on tooth surface; multiple etiological agents: bacteria, tobacco/coffee/tea, hemorrhage, restorative agents, medications
extrinsic stains
107
intrinsic stain
calcific metamorphosis
108
red-brown stain: increased synthesis and metabolism of \_
porphyrins
109
yellow to green discoloration, often sharp demarcation; breakdown product of red blood cells
hyperbilirubinemia
110
intrinsic staining associated with erythroblastosis fetalis and biliary atresia related to \_
hyperbilirubinemia
111
intrinsic staining related to \_
tetracycline/minocycline
112
3rd molars most common; frequently secondary to crowding/insufficient maxillofacial development
primary impactions
113
cessation of eruption with fusion of root and bone; 1st 2 decades; most common- primary first molar; sharp solid sound on precussion; radiographs- loss of pdl
ankylosis
114
total lack of development; rare: ex. hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia
anadontia
115
lack of development of one or more teeth; absence of dental lamina; uncommon in deciduous dentition; 3rd molars most common;
hypodontia/oligodontia
116
lack of development of 6 or more teeth
oligodontia
117
increased number of teeth (supernumerary); excess of dental lamina
hyperdontia
118
paramolars
119
mesiodens
120
distodens
121
tooth present at birth
natal tooth
122
tooth erupts within first 30 days of life
neonatal tooth
123
traumatic ulceration of adjacent soft tissue associated with natal/neonatal tooth
Riga-Fede disease
124
isolated microdontia
peg lateral
125
hereditary congenital microdontia associated with _ and \_
Down sydrome and pituitary dwarfism
126
diffuse macrodontia associated with \_, \_, and \_
pituitary gigantism, pineal hyperplasia, and hemifacial hyperplasia
127
single enlarged or "double" tooth; normal tooth count; common root and/or canal; affects primary or permanent dentition
gemination
128
single enlarged or "double" tooth; missing tooth; single or separate canals; affects primary or permanent dentition
fusion
129
union of two adjacent teeth by cementum alone; developmental or post-inflammatory
concrescence
130
up to 5% of population; additional cusp located primarily on the lingual cusp permanent anterior teeth; most contain pulpal extension; associated with odontomas, impactions, ped-shaped teeth, and dens invaginatus
talon cusp
131
talon cusp seen in _ and \_
Sturge-Weber and Rubinstein-Taybi syndromes
132
cusp-like elevation of enamel; most often affects mandibular premolars; up to 15% of asian population; associated with shovel like incisors
dens evaginatus
133
most common type of dens invaginatus; commonly affects permanent lateral incisors
coronel type
134
rare; thought to arise secondary to proliferation of hertwig's root sheath; invaginaton lined by enamel
radicular type dens invaginatus
135
ectopic enamel
enamel pearl
136
ectopic enamel
cervical enamel extension
137
caused by cervical enamel extensions
buccal bifurcation cyst
138
enlargement of the body and pulp chamber of multirooted teeth with apical displacement of the pulpal floor and root bifurcation
taurodontism
139
taurodontism frequently associated with these syndromes: \_. \_. and \_
klinefelter, down, and tricho-dento-osseous
140
excessive deposition of cementum; local and systemic factors: trauma/inflammation, acromegaly, paget's disease
hypercementosis
141
most commonly affects permanent molars
supernumerary roots
142
heterogeneous group of developmental alterations in enamel structure in the absence of a systemic disorder
amelogenesis imperfecta
143
which amelogenesis imperfecta?: defect in secretory phase; inadequate deposition of enamel matrix -generalized pattern -localized pattern;
hypoplastic
144
which amelogensis imperfecta?: defective maturation of enamel's crystal structure; discolored soft enamel with chips; radiodensity similar to dentin
hypomaturation
145
which amelogenesis imperfecta:? no significant mineralization of enamel matrix; enamel is soft and easily lost; usually most severe form
hypocalcified
146
hereditary developmental disturbance or dentin; similar changes are seen with osteogenesis imperfecta; opalescent teeth; blue to brown discoloration with distinctive translucency; enamel separates easily from dentin; radiograph- bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, shortened and thin roots; with obliterated pulp; rarely enlarged pulp chambers
dentinogenesis imperfecta
147
no pulp chambers
dentinogenesis imperfecta
148
autosomal dominant; radicular dentin loses organization; crescent-shaped pulp chambers with short roots and no canals; pulpal pathology
dentinal dysplasia type 1
149
dentinal dysplasia type
150
whirls of tubular dentin; "stream flowing around boulders" appearnce under polarized light
dentinal dysplasia type 1
151
autosomal dominant, primary similar to dentinogenesis imperfecta, normal clinical appearance, "thistle tube" pulp chamber
dentinal dysplasia type 2
152
radicular dentin is tubular, amorphous, and hypertrophic; pulp stones
dentinal dysplasia type 2
153
localized developmental defect of enamel, dentin and pulp; most are idiopathic; both dentitions; most are maxillary; short roots with open apices; failure in eruption, or small irregular crowns with thin enamel; usually affects about 3 teeth in an area
regional odontodysplasia
154
basophilic enameloid calcifications within follicular tissue
regional odontodysplasia
155