Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Elevated lesions; contain fluid and often translucent in appearance

A

Blisterform

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2
Q

elevated lesions; contains fluid and often translucent in appearance; 5mm or less

A

vesicle

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3
Q

elevated lesions; contains fluid and often translucent in appearance; >5mm

A

bulla

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4
Q

elevated lesions; contains purulent exudate

A

pustule

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5
Q

5mm or less

A

vesicle

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6
Q

>5mm

A

bulla

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7
Q

5mm or less; single or multiple; multiple may coalesce

A

vesicle

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8
Q

5mm or less; single or multiple; multiple may coalesce

A

vesicle

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9
Q

5mm or less; single or multiple; multiple may coalesce

A

vesicle

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10
Q

>5mm; single or multiple

A

bullae

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11
Q

characterized by purulent exudate

A

pustule

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12
Q

characterized by purulent exudate

A

pustule

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13
Q

characterized by purulent exudate

A

pustule

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14
Q

elevated lesions; nonblisterform; solid lesions and firm to palpation; 5mm or less

A

papule

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15
Q

elevated lesions; nonblisterform; solid lesions and firm to palpation; >5mm

A

nodule

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16
Q

elevated lesions; nonblisterform; solid lesions and firm to palpation; >2cm

A

tumor

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17
Q

5mm or less

A

papule

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18
Q

>5mm

A

nodule

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19
Q

>5mm

A

nodule

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20
Q

>2cm

A

tumor

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21
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

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22
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

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23
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

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24
Q

slightly elevated flat-top lesion; large surface area

A

plaque

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25
Q

depressed lesion; complete loss of mucosa; 3 mm or less

A

superficial ulcer

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26
Q

depressed lesion; complete loss of mucosa; >3mm

A

deep ulcer

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27
Q

single or multiple; separate or coalescing

A

ulcer

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28
Q

single or multiple; separate or coalescing

A

ulcer

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29
Q

single or multiple; separate or coalescing

A

ulcer

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30
Q

ulcer with a _ margin

A

smooth

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31
Q

ulcer with a _ margin

A

raised

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32
Q
A

deep ulcer

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33
Q
A

fissure

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34
Q

abnormal color; circumscribed; usually small (<1cm)

A

macule

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35
Q

abnormal color; circumscribed; usually small (<1cm)

A

macule

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36
Q

color change; inflammation or trauma

A

red

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37
Q

color; normal oral mucosa

A

pink

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38
Q

color change; altered epithelium or lamina propria

A

white

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39
Q

color change; inflammation

A

red and white

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40
Q

color change; vascular lesions and cysts

A

blue

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41
Q

color change; foreign material in the tissue

A

grey

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42
Q

color change; pigment, pus, lymphoid tissue

A

yellow

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43
Q

color change; vascular lesions or blood pigments

A

purple

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44
Q

color change; foreign material

A

black

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45
Q

color change; melanin or hemosiderin

A

brown

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46
Q

color change; blisterform

A

translucent

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47
Q

biopsy fixation with _

A

10% buffered neutral formalin

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48
Q

have to use Michel’s solution for _

A

immunofluorescence

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49
Q

limited value; useful for diagnosing viral (herpes) or fungal (candidiasis) infections or for certain epithelial disorders (white sponge nevus) or vesiculobullous diseases (pemphigus vulgaris)

A

cytology

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50
Q

used to detect autoantibodies present in tissue specimens or serum

A

immunofluorescence

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51
Q

cleft lip with/without cleft palate; more common in which gender

A

males

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52
Q

cleft palate alone; more common in which gender

A

females

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53
Q

mildest expression of cleft palate

A

bifid uvula

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54
Q

cleft palate; madnibular micrognathia; glossoptosis (airway obstruction)

A

pierre robin sequence

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55
Q
A

pierre robin sequence

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56
Q

common developmental anomaly; often develop later in life

A

commissural lip pits

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57
Q

persistance of the lateral sulci; often associated with cleft lip and/or cleft palate (Van der Woude sydrome)

A

paramedian lip pits

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58
Q

redundant fold of tissue; congenital or acquired (Ascher syndrome)

A

double lip

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59
Q

edema of the eyelids

A

blepharochalasis

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60
Q

double lip; blepharochalasis; nontoxic thyroid enlargement

A

ascher syndrome

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61
Q

heterotropic sebaceous glands; seen >80% of patients; most frequently seen on the upper vermilion zone of the lip and the buccal mucosa; typically develop during puberty

A

fordyce granules

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62
Q

common mucosal condition most common in african americans; dimishes or disappears on stretching

A

leukoedema

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63
Q
A

leukoedema

64
Q

increased thickening of epithelium; parakeratosis; intracellular edema

A

leukoedema

65
Q

abnormally small tongue; unknown etiology; often associated with hypoplasia or the mandible and missing lower incisors

A

microglossia

66
Q

_ macroglossia: vascular malformations, down syndrome, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

congenital or hereditary

67
Q

_ macroglossia: amyloidosis, angioedema

A

acquired

68
Q

short lingual frenum resulting in limitation of tongue mobility; may range from mild to severe; “tongue tied”

A

ankyloglossia

69
Q

70% of patients only thyroid gland tissue; F>M; dysphagia, dysphonia, dyspnea

A

lingual thyroid

70
Q

verification that lingual mass is thyroid by its ability to trap _

A

iodine

71
Q

grooved, fissured dorsum of tongue; often associated with geographic tongue

A

fissured tongue

72
Q

fissured tongue; facial paralysis (bell’s palsy); orofacial granulomatosis

A

Melkersson-Rosenthal syndrome

73
Q

excess keratin accumulation; brown, black or yellow; associated factors: smoking, poor hygiene, debilitation; ususually asympotmatic; treated by superficial debridement

A

hairy tongue

74
Q

elongation and parakeratosis of the filiform papillae; abundant bacteria

A

hairy tongue

75
Q

abnormally dilated veins (varicosity); common over age 40; aysmptomatic, unless thrombosed

A

varix

76
Q

_ varicosities most common variant of varix

A

sublingual

77
Q

dilated vein, lines of Zahn, phlebolith

A

varix

78
Q
A

caliber persistant artery

79
Q

uncertain pathogenesis; often bilateral; most common on anterior tonsillar pillar

A

lateral soft palate fistula

80
Q

rare development anomaly of unknown pathogenesis; may result in limitation or deflection of movement; typically will worsen over years; M>F; unilateral or bilateral; treatment-surgical

A

coronoid hyperplasia

81
Q

localized benign bony protuberances arising from the cortical plate; include maxillary (palatal) and mandibular tori; probably a multifactorial etiology

A

exotoses

82
Q
A

buccal exotoses

83
Q
A

palatal exotoses

84
Q
A

reactive subpontine exotoses

85
Q

midline of hard palate; frequently lobular; may continue to grow; frequently asymptomatic

A

torus palatinus

86
Q

lingual aspect of mandible; typically bilateral; may be seen radiographically

A

torus mandibularis

87
Q

elongation of the styloid process or mineralization of the stylohyoid ligament; symptoms result from impingment or compression of adjacent nerves or blood vessels

A

eagel syndrome

88
Q

etiology: -fever -infection/trauma

A

enamel hypoplasia

89
Q
A

enamel hypoplasia

90
Q

solitary defect of hypoplasia; probably trauma related

A

Turner’s tooth

91
Q

bend of root or crown secondary to trauma

A

dilaceration

92
Q

lusterless white opacities with yellow to brown discolorations; hypomaturation with increased porosity; affected teeth while compromised esthetically are resistant to caries

A

dental fluorosis

93
Q

dental fluorosis secondary to greater than _

A

1 part per million

94
Q

hutchinson’s incisors and mulberry molars related to _

A

congenital syphilis

95
Q
A

hutchinson’s incisors

96
Q
A

mulberry molars

97
Q

_ developmental alterations: attrition, erosion, abrasion, abfraction

A

post

98
Q

secondary to tooth-tooth contact; typically physiologic, but may be pathologic

A

attrition

99
Q

secondary to external agent (toothbrush)

A

abrasion

100
Q

secondary to chemical (acids) contact

A

erosion

101
Q

erosion secondary to gastric secretions

A

perimolysis

102
Q

secondary to occlusal stresses

A

abfraction

103
Q

typically secondary to pulpal injury; cells within vital pulp act upon dentin

A

internal resoption

104
Q

resorption approacing clinical crown

A

pink tooth of mummery (internal resorption)

105
Q

numerous etiological agents; -pathology -excess force -adjacent impactions

A

external resorption

106
Q

secondary to exogenous pigment on tooth surface; multiple etiological agents: bacteria, tobacco/coffee/tea, hemorrhage, restorative agents, medications

A

extrinsic stains

107
Q

intrinsic stain

A

calcific metamorphosis

108
Q

red-brown stain: increased synthesis and metabolism of _

A

porphyrins

109
Q

yellow to green discoloration, often sharp demarcation; breakdown product of red blood cells

A

hyperbilirubinemia

110
Q

intrinsic staining associated with erythroblastosis fetalis and biliary atresia related to _

A

hyperbilirubinemia

111
Q

intrinsic staining related to _

A

tetracycline/minocycline

112
Q

3rd molars most common; frequently secondary to crowding/insufficient maxillofacial development

A

primary impactions

113
Q

cessation of eruption with fusion of root and bone; 1st 2 decades; most common- primary first molar; sharp solid sound on precussion; radiographs- loss of pdl

A

ankylosis

114
Q

total lack of development; rare: ex. hypohydrotic ectodermal dysplasia

A

anadontia

115
Q

lack of development of one or more teeth; absence of dental lamina; uncommon in deciduous dentition; 3rd molars most common;

A

hypodontia/oligodontia

116
Q

lack of development of 6 or more teeth

A

oligodontia

117
Q

increased number of teeth (supernumerary); excess of dental lamina

A

hyperdontia

118
Q
A

paramolars

119
Q
A

mesiodens

120
Q
A

distodens

121
Q

tooth present at birth

A

natal tooth

122
Q

tooth erupts within first 30 days of life

A

neonatal tooth

123
Q

traumatic ulceration of adjacent soft tissue associated with natal/neonatal tooth

A

Riga-Fede disease

124
Q

isolated microdontia

A

peg lateral

125
Q

hereditary congenital microdontia associated with _ and _

A

Down sydrome and pituitary dwarfism

126
Q

diffuse macrodontia associated with _, _, and _

A

pituitary gigantism, pineal hyperplasia, and hemifacial hyperplasia

127
Q

single enlarged or “double” tooth; normal tooth count; common root and/or canal; affects primary or permanent dentition

A

gemination

128
Q

single enlarged or “double” tooth; missing tooth; single or separate canals; affects primary or permanent dentition

A

fusion

129
Q

union of two adjacent teeth by cementum alone; developmental or post-inflammatory

A

concrescence

130
Q

up to 5% of population; additional cusp located primarily on the lingual cusp permanent anterior teeth; most contain pulpal extension; associated with odontomas, impactions, ped-shaped teeth, and dens invaginatus

A

talon cusp

131
Q

talon cusp seen in _ and _

A

Sturge-Weber and Rubinstein-Taybi syndromes

132
Q

cusp-like elevation of enamel; most often affects mandibular premolars; up to 15% of asian population; associated with shovel like incisors

A

dens evaginatus

133
Q

most common type of dens invaginatus; commonly affects permanent lateral incisors

A

coronel type

134
Q

rare; thought to arise secondary to proliferation of hertwig’s root sheath; invaginaton lined by enamel

A

radicular type dens invaginatus

135
Q

ectopic enamel

A

enamel pearl

136
Q

ectopic enamel

A

cervical enamel extension

137
Q

caused by cervical enamel extensions

A

buccal bifurcation cyst

138
Q

enlargement of the body and pulp chamber of multirooted teeth with apical displacement of the pulpal floor and root bifurcation

A

taurodontism

139
Q

taurodontism frequently associated with these syndromes: _. _. and _

A

klinefelter, down, and tricho-dento-osseous

140
Q

excessive deposition of cementum; local and systemic factors: trauma/inflammation, acromegaly, paget’s disease

A

hypercementosis

141
Q

most commonly affects permanent molars

A

supernumerary roots

142
Q

heterogeneous group of developmental alterations in enamel structure in the absence of a systemic disorder

A

amelogenesis imperfecta

143
Q

which amelogenesis imperfecta?: defect in secretory phase; inadequate deposition of enamel matrix -generalized pattern -localized pattern;

A

hypoplastic

144
Q

which amelogensis imperfecta?: defective maturation of enamel’s crystal structure; discolored soft enamel with chips; radiodensity similar to dentin

A

hypomaturation

145
Q

which amelogenesis imperfecta:? no significant mineralization of enamel matrix; enamel is soft and easily lost; usually most severe form

A

hypocalcified

146
Q

hereditary developmental disturbance or dentin; similar changes are seen with osteogenesis imperfecta; opalescent teeth; blue to brown discoloration with distinctive translucency; enamel separates easily from dentin; radiograph- bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, shortened and thin roots; with obliterated pulp; rarely enlarged pulp chambers

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

147
Q

no pulp chambers

A

dentinogenesis imperfecta

148
Q

autosomal dominant; radicular dentin loses organization; crescent-shaped pulp chambers with short roots and no canals; pulpal pathology

A

dentinal dysplasia type 1

149
Q
A

dentinal dysplasia type

150
Q

whirls of tubular dentin; “stream flowing around boulders” appearnce under polarized light

A

dentinal dysplasia type 1

151
Q

autosomal dominant, primary similar to dentinogenesis imperfecta, normal clinical appearance, “thistle tube” pulp chamber

A

dentinal dysplasia type 2

152
Q

radicular dentin is tubular, amorphous, and hypertrophic; pulp stones

A

dentinal dysplasia type 2

153
Q

localized developmental defect of enamel, dentin and pulp; most are idiopathic; both dentitions; most are maxillary; short roots with open apices; failure in eruption, or small irregular crowns with thin enamel; usually affects about 3 teeth in an area

A

regional odontodysplasia

154
Q

basophilic enameloid calcifications within follicular tissue

A

regional odontodysplasia

155
Q
A