Vet prep review cont. Flashcards
A premature foal presents for an exam and the owners would like to know if they can rule out angular limb deformity prior to selling, what diagnostic test is the most helpful in determining this information?
carpal and tarsal rads
A horse presents to you for evaluation of multiple larger abscesses in the ventral pectoral region and nowhere else. The horse appears to be systemically healthy. What is the likely etiology?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis (this is likely pigeon fever which is seen as swelling of the pectoral region of the horse and is contagious with pus-contact and the affected horse may also be lethargic, anorexic, have resp. distress, and abdominal pain)
why is it called pigeon fever and what bacterial agent is involved?
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis is the causative agent in pigeon fever, and the name is derived from the swelling that often occurs in the pectoral muscles, which resembles a pigeon’s breast
what is the most common cause of vagal indigestion?
metallic foreign body penetrating the reticulum (hardware disease)
You examine a 4 y/o Holstein dairy cow that was a high producer for the first 2 months of the current lactation but has suddenly developed poor appetite and a markedly decreased milk production. On PE, you find febrile p with no rumen motility, and feces are scant. The cow has a papple shape when viewed from the rear and has a slight “boink” hollow sound over the left flank. what is your diagnosis???
Vagal indigestion
We know it is likely not LDA because with LDA they are nonsymptomatic
a cat presents with a mass of the ear and you do an FNA and find numerous round cells with purple staining granules. What can you advise the owner?
The cat has MCT and REMEMEBR prognosis is good with surgical excision and CATS ARE NOTTTT DOGS 
The prognosis is good with surgical excision and have a low recurrence rate and met rate with MCT in cats
What are the temp, pulse, and resp. of a cow with a LDA most likely to be, assuming the cow has no other concurrent diseases?
normal
(just will have decreased appetite and mild production)
A horse presents for head shaking and rubbing of her ear. You find mites on skin scrape of the ear, what org. is most likely?
Psoroptes (Psoroptic mange is A REPORTABLE DISEASE and CS may or may not be present)
The anesthetic agent that is appropriate for use in horses when it is necessary to prolong the duration of anesthesia without increasing the duration of the recovery phase?
propofol
valium aka ____
Diazepam
what do we do in dogs just diagnosed with cushings disease
put them on trilostane (Vetoryl) and recheck multichem and ACTH stim test in 10-14 days and tell o to call if p showing signs of lethargy, inappetance, GI signs, etc. etc.
what do you tell an o with a puppy that has a hooded/aka recessed vulva?
let her have one heat cycle because often times the vulva will drop and the anatomy will correct itself but if not and p getting recurrent UTI’s and/or pyoderma, then needs sx correction (vulvoplasty)
Which anesthetic agent makes a dog’s myocardium more susceptible to catecholamine induced arrhythmias?
Halothane
Also avoid it with malignant hyperthermia
what disease of goats causes fever, swollen and painful joints, respiratory signs, and death?
Mycoplasma mycoides spp. mycoides
What % of the kidney function must be lost before a dog is unable to adequately concentrate urine?
65%
at ___% there is inability of p to properly concentrate urine in DOGS but ____% in cats, and at ___% there is a azotemia in dogs
65%; 75%; 75%
PAP testing for high mtn disease in cattle at elevations 6000 ft. or above on animals over 12 months old, what result of the PAP tells you the cattle DO NOT HAVE high mtn disease???
less than 40 mmHg
what atrial arrhythmia is least concerning in horses?
atrial premature complexes
what is the feline lungworm called and how is it tx?
it is called Aelurostrongylus abstrusus and is tx with ivermectin (+/- praziquantel but answer is mainly just ivermectin!!!)
ketamine causes what of the following side effects?
increase in muscle tone
what is impt when using a bain circuit anesthesia machine to be sure you are preventing re-breathing of carbon dioxide of the animal?
Maintain a high flow rate of O2 in the circuit
what is the most common slab fx in horses?
3rd carpal bone
what lesion is this characteristic of= CSF showing high cell count, protein count, and micro abscesses in the brain and SC
Listeria (tx with penicillin)
A bird with prolapsed cloacal tissue that is erythematous and proliferative. What is this lesion likely to be?
Cloacal papilloma which is the most common GI tumor of birds and is seen most commonly in amazon birds and macaws
A new bord owner wants to know what the name of the glandular stomach in the bird is, what is your answer?
the proventriculus (the ventriculus is the grinding stomach, and the croup is the outpouching of the esophagus responsible for storing food)
What factors do cats require in their diet?
Arachidonic acid and taurine
Active feline leukemia virus infections are least common in what age group?
> 10 years old
What is hepatocutaneous syndrome???
a necrotizing skin disorder that is usually assoc. with metabolic or vacuolar liver diseases (usually caused by phenobarb, copper hepatitis, mycotoxins, glucagon-secreting hepatic humors, etc).
skin biopsy and histo are ddx
A windswept foal will have which combo of angular limb deformity?
Valgus deformity of one limb and varus deformity of the contralateral limb
Theiler’s disease is associate with what in horses?
Administration of tetanus anti-toxin (or other equine biological products such as equine plasma)
Patients with extra-hepatic biliary obstruction may be predisposed to a coagulopathy. Which of the following mechanisms explains the cause of coagulopathy?
A decrease in bile will result in less absorption of Vitamin K which results in decreased availability of coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X (2, 7, 9, 10)
what are some examples of causes of extrahepatic biliary obstruction?
neoplasia, choleliths, pancreatitis
What drug can cause hypothyroidism and KCS in dogs with prolonged treatments?
Sulfa drugs (like TMS) esp. in Dobermans- usually from Type 1 or type 3 hypersensitivity rxns
A cow presents for wooden tongue aka ____ _____ infection, what is the tx?
Aka Actinobacillus lingieresii; tx is sodium iodide IV as a 10-20% solution, repeated after a 7-day interval
tx of hairy heel wart in cattle and what causes this (bacterial agent)?
corrective trimming, topical daily spray of oxytetracycline, well- managed foot baths; its caused by Treponema spirochete
what form of leukemia has small, mature lymphocytes?
chronic lymphocytic leukemia
___ stones are a result of animals being on dessert-like land
silicate
name the stone most common with each environment
1- dry lot on dessert-like land
2. feedlot animals with a lot of grain available
3- sheep grazing on pastures high in calcium and oxalate
1- silica
2- struvite (ammonium magnesium phosphate stones)
3- calcium carbonate stones
which of the following species is not affected by foot and mouth disease?
Horses
high grain feeding can cause ___ in sm ruminants
polio (bc def in thiamine)
what is the most common complication to a horse that has anterior enteritis and is doing well on medical management?
Laminitis
You diagnose a dog with mites. The owner wants to know if she or her other dogs can catch it. You tell her that this particular mite is not contagious to her or her other pets. Which of the following mites does her dog have?
Demodex species mite
they are a natural inhabitant of the skin and are not contagious to other animals nor humans and infection only occurs if immuno-compromised
do we want metaclopramide or cisapride for a cat with megacolon?
Cisapride
A cat that has a diaphragmatic hernia from trauma presents and it is fixed surgically, but what do you have to worry about post-operation during recovery?
be sure re-expansion pulmonary edema does not occur which is more common to occur post-op in cats than in dogs but unsure why
A farrowing house is encountering mild to moderate diarrhea in 5-day-old piglets. A diagnostic workup confirms Clostridium perfringens Type C infection. What should your next step be?
Vaccination of all sows pre-farrowing bc Colostral antibodies for Clostridium perfringens Type C is highly protective
Caries are not common in what species?
Horses
What age of horse is a higher risk for development of Rhodococcus equi infection?
2-6 months
What class of antibiotics is most effective against Potomac Horse Fever?
Tetracyclines
Active feline leukemia virus infections are least common in what age group??
Greater than 10 years old (an age resistance is seen with FeLV)
A dog has a mass in the cranial chest, what is it likely?
thymoma (and is prob associated with secondary myasthenia gravis)
What do you do with a ewe that has high BHB levels and is pregnant but the owners are mainly only concerned about saving her rather than the kid:
She has pregnancy toxemia, it typically occurs in goats and ewes during the last 2-4 weeks of gestation and tx is administer dexmethasone in this case (induction of parturition)
A 3 year-old FS mixed breed dog presents for lethargy and back pain. Survey radiographs show the vertebra of the spine with endplate lysis at C3-C4, C4-C5, and L6-L7. What is your next step?
Look for an occult infection somewhere else in the dog and perform blood cultures
(the p has discospondylitis which is usually caused by hematogenous spread of bacteria from a distant infected site)
what is the best pain management for disbudding?
Nerve block prior to ketoprofen before and after the disbudding procedure (can also do Meloxicam but for some reason Banamine does not work)
A client is worried about traveling with their Macaw to new york because the owner is afraid there are more mosquitos in New York, what do you advice for the owner?
The macaw should be vaccinated with WNV prior to leaving and should be kept in a mosquito free area during her visit
What is the TOC for infection of Ascaris suum (the roundworm of pigs)? What is their characteristic finding?
Fenbendazole; characteristic finding is creating “milk spots” on the liver when they migrate into the bile ducts and liver
An owner wishes to abort a fetus in his cow, which may be pregnant because it was bred by the neighbor’s bull that had jumped over fence 1 week previously. What is the best way to induce abortion?
Give PGF2-alpha
What is the appropriate method for evaluating a horse’s regenerative response to anemia?
Bone marrow examination
horses do not have ____ _____
circulating reticulocytes
What does trichobezoar mean?
hairballs
Hemorrhages at the renal cortex of several late- term piglets is what diagnosis?
Porcine circovirus disease
How to diagnose a cat with thrombus?
Infrared thermography, echo, rads, ECG
what is the difference between mobitz 1 (Wenckebach) and mobitz II 2nd degree AV Blocks?
Mobitz 1 block is normal in athletes with high vagal tone and is PR intervals gradually elongating until a P-wave is completely blocked. Mobitz 2 is where there are some PR intervals that are consistent but some P-waves do not conduct (so some P waves are left hanging out by themselves)
What is cyproheptadine for cats?
An appetite stimulant for cats
What is the most common indication for extirpation in bovids?
Neoplasia (usually SCC)
What is the best management practices for bovine leukemia viruses in a herd?
separate neg and pos cattle, biosecurity, use AI for breeding, feed negative colostrum to calves, and test all incoming animals before they arrive and isolate new individuals for 45-90 days
what role does vitamin D have with vitamin C?
Vitamin D levels increased causes increased calcium absorption
How does vitamin D help the absorption of calcium in the body?
Active vitamin D acts with PTH in the kidneys to increase calcium so less is lost in the urine (so more vitamin D means more Calcium)
Calcitonin vs. calcitriol
calcitriol helps increase blood calcium levels (active form of vit D and causes release of calcium from the bones and into the bloodstream)
and calcitonin helps decrease blood calcium levels (suppresses osteoclastic activity in the bones and increases amounts of calcium excreted in the urine)
what is the active form of Vitamin D?
Calcitriol (which causes release of calcium from the bones and into the bloodstream)
what is the test for hemophilia diagnosis?
Coagulation assays (APTT which is activated partial thromboplastin time) will be abnormal with hemophilia
What type of healing is characterized by visible granulation tissue, big scar and be open for longer which an increased risk of infection?
Secondary healing
what are characteristics of healing by tertiary intention?
leaving a wound open for a period of time and then suturing it or if it was left to heal by secondary intent but is now having complications and now needs apposition of wound edges after thorough debridement and cleaning
Tertiary intention wound healing is a combo of ____ and ____
primary and secondary wound healing
what blood work tells you there is kidney failure?
high BUN, creatinine, high blood phosphorus, and elevated SDMA
Beta lactam abx
bactericidal agents that interrupt bacterial cell-wall formation as a result of covalent binding to essential penicillin-binding proteins; penicillins and cephalosporins
aminoglycoside abx
examples are gentamicin, amikacin, tobramycin, neomycin, streptomycin
bactericidal abx for gram neg pathogens
what antibiotic class is best for cat bite abscesses
beta lactams (or cephalosporins and penicillins)
closure of a dog uterus c section—>
uterine wall closed in two layers using absorbable, monofilament suture (Monocryl or PDS) in a simple continuous pattern, sometimes followed by an inverting pattern such as Cushing or Lembert pattern
the #1 CS seen in horses with guttural pouch mycosis is…
epistaxis
A cat has facial muscle fasciculations after thyroidectomy procedure, what most likely is the cause of this?
hypoparathyroidism/hypocalcemia causing appetite loss, depression and weakness, twitching, muscle tremors, and facial itch and can progress to seizures
What is the procedure in boars where they are castrated but still able to tease sows? (like sidewinder bulls that are teaser bulls)
removal of the caudal epididymides at an early age so they can be teaser boars (sterile)
what does coonhound paralysis present as?
sudden inflammation of multiple nerve roots and peripheral nerves caused by an immune reaction to racoon saliva but can occur in other ways too
CS are GI or resp. signs with stiff legged gait that rapidly progresses to paralysis of all legs and symptoms progress over 4-10 days with decreased reflexes, muscle tone, and can lose muscle mass also
botulism in dogs
Inability to walk, inability to hold up the neck/head, facial paralysis and difficulty breathing with drooling or hypersalivation
antibiotics to use in a femur fracture in a cat
Cephalosporins pre, intra and post op
Amphotericin B is toxic to the ___ (organ)
kidneys
Why spay ferrets? Why spay rabbits?
Spay ferrets to prevent anemia from estrogen causing bone marrow suppression; spay rabbits to avoid uterine adenocarcinoma
Rotavirus affects what section of GI in calves
The vili of the SI are affected
what do you change for insulin in patient with cushing’s dog
the current insulin dose should be decreased by 25% ater tx of cushing’s because the cushing’s under control allows the body to respond better to insulin
Cheyletiella affects what species?
its a highly contagious skin parasite of dogs, cats, humans, and rabbits
What is heat detection rate is calculated as what?
The percentage of cows inseminated over 21-day period divided by the number of cows eligible to be bred over the 21 days
A foal with colic, ptyalism, bruxism likely has what?
Gastric or duodenal ulcerations (nonperforated)
How big does a heifer need to be before she is bred?
51-58% of mature bw (average cow is about 1,000-1,500 lbs)
so heifer should be more than 700 lbs
Labor stages in dogs
stage 1 is restlessness, vomiting, uterine contractions, panting, nesting, can be 6-12 hours possibly 24
stage 2 is strong abdominal contractions, clear vaginal discharge, expulsion of fetus is 12-24 hours but after first puppy it needs to be no more than 4 hours til next puppy (and make sure fetal HR is not under 150 bpm)
Stage 3 is expulsion of the placenta and needs to occur like 25-35 mins after all puppies are out
What diseases do prairie dogs transmit?
Intestinal parasite (that is also zoonotic) called Balisascaris procyonis (also plague)
what drug is most likely to cause kcs
sulfa drugs
what to do for a snake that has trouble shedding its skin?
you can try soaking the snake in a tub of warm water a few times a day
what is dysautonomia?
a disorder of autonomic nervous system (ANS) function. The ANS is charge of involuntary functions—things that happen without thinking—like breathing. Dysautonomia usually involves failure of the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the ANS
What is idiopathic polyneuropathy???
an illness where sensory and motor nerves of the peripheral nervous system are affected and no obvious underlying etiology is found
.
.
cat with unilateral facial palsy likely has what???
otitis media or interna; trauma; tumor in middle ear
What is ollulanis tricuspis?
GI nematode small worm in CAT and causes GI and tx is extra-label ivermectin or fenbendazole
What causes erythema migrans in humans
Lyme disease caused by Borellia burgdorferi
what to give a cow with frothy bloat?
Poloxalene which is a non-ionic surfactant that lowers the surface tension of the frothy mass so the bubble film is weakened and can no longer contain the gas
What other species of animal would you expect to find around horses that are showing signs of Haematobia irritans infestations?
Bovine
What test used to test a population of cats yields the most false negatives?
Whatever answer choice has the lowest sensitivity and highest specificity
What type of virus is the etiological agent for foot and mouth disease?
Picornavirus (side note– horses are not susceptible to this disease)
What might the cattle have if there are vesicles in the mouth, coronary bands, interdigital spaces and ulcerations resulting from the sores with the animals being unthrifty and in pain???
Foot and mouth disease (reportable) which is a picornavirus
Ceftiofur (a cephalosporin) and cephalexin are 1st generation bactericidal cephalosporins that are in the ___ class and do what for their MOA?
they are in the beta-lactam class and they inhibit cell wall synthesis resulting in the lysis of susceptible bacteria
What is not a primary cause of mitral regurgitation?
Aortic stenosis
what are primary causes of mitral regurgitation??
ruptured cordae tendinae, bacterial endocarditis, degenerative thickening
Polyoma virus infection in birds–
causes delayed feathering, diarrhea, GI stasis, ascites, and death
what is the estrous cycle length for a goat?
What about in sheep?
21 days; sheep estrous cycle is 17 days
What do you think about the diagnosis of an iguana with pliable mandible and maxilla on PE?
Metabolic bone disease
Which of the following bodies licenses vets to RX a drug to a patient in the US?
State veterinary board
Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation. Which one of the following choices is the most practical and effective control measure?
Active immunization with Clostridium novyi (aka Black disease) toxoid before the late summer is the most effective way to control and prevent infectious necrotic hepatitis (Black disease) in sheep
What nerve or nerves need to be blocked in order to dehorn cattle?
cornual nerve block (branch of the trigeminal- midway between eye and base of horn, just below temporal line)
A 15 year old cat is presented with a 3 week progression of wandering in circles to the left, standing in corners, and dull mentation. Conscious proprioceptive deficits (knuckling) can be elicited in the right thoracic and right pelvic limbs. There is a decreased menace response on the right, but pupillary light reflexes are normal in both eyes. The examination is otherwise normal. A brain tumor is suspected. Where is the most likely location of the lesion?
Left cerebrum.
Remember that conscious proprioception and visual perception are affected by lesions in the contralateral cerebral hemisphere. Circling direction is generally toward the side of the lesion.
What profile would you expect in a dog with hypervitaminosis D?
High calcium, high phosphorus
remember this for neuro deficits:
What signs make the lesion cerebral?
- Standing in corners (head pressing)
- Wandering in circles to the side of lesion
- Contralateral visual loss with normal palpebral and pupillary light reflexes
Lesions in the brainstem will have normal vision since vision pathways do not course through the brainstem
A canine coagulation profile indicates increased values for APTT, PT, TT and FDPs.
Thrombocytes=62,513 per microliter (normally greater than 211,000 per microliter). What is the typical prognosis for a dog with the condition suggested by this pattern?
Grave; DIC expected
A 4-year-old Standardbred mare is examined in the fall with a 5-day history of depression, left head tilt, facial paralysis and worsening gait. The horse is ataxic and knuckles on both forelegs, worse on the right. There is muscle atrophy of the left shoulder and right hindquarters and strips of localized spontaneous sweating over the left trunk. Which diagnostic test would best support the presumptive diagnosis?
Think of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) due to Sarcocystis neurona when you see ataxia and atrophy in horses, especially when neurologic signs are multifocal (ie:cranial (head tilt), spinal (foreleg ataxia). The muscular atrophy and localized strips of sweating are clues that EPM should be high on your DDX.
the 3 A’s of EPM: asymmetry, ataxia, atrophy
what do you tell an expecting mother who tested for toxoplasmosis and it came back as IgM negative and IgG positive?
Her and the baby are safe since IgM is negative (even tho IgG is positive)
What acid-base abnormality would be most likely in a dairy cow with a displaced abomasum?
respiratory alkalosis
Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?
A proximal paravertebral block is performed via placement of local anesthetic just off the midline and caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2 vertebrae
Which organism determines the minimum temperature needed to pasteurize milk in the United States?
Temperature of pasteurization is set by the toughest, most heat-resistant organism, which is Coxiella burnetii, the cause of Q fever. If the temperature is high enough, for long enough to kill Coxiella, it will also kill the other organisms.
For the last 10 years, your state has had a mandatory vaccination program against “pedunculated giblet disease” in fur-bearing turtles and the prevalence of this terrible disease has decreased markedly. How does this decrease in prevalence affect the predictive value positive (PVP) of the best serologic test for pedunculated giblet disease?
PPV decreases as prevalence decreases
In September, a 5-year-old Quarterhorse mare is presented with a 5-day history of left head tilt, facial paralysis, depression, and stumbling. The horse is ataxic and knuckles on both forelegs, worse on the left. There is muscle atrophy of the left pectorals and right hindquarters and strips of localized spontaneous sweating over the left trunk. The horse is immunoblot test-positive for Sarcocystis neurona. What prognosis is given to the owner if she elects to treat the horse?
at least 60% of the horses tx will respond (prognosis is guarded to fair with EPM)
A farmer comes to you with a new test for detection of mastitis in his heifers. He claims that both the sensitivity and specificity of his test is 90%. Mastitis has a prevalence of 5% in his herd. The negative predictive value (NPV) is approximately _________.
99%
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car. The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds. All four limbs have proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs. Where is the lesion?
C6-T2
The Animal Welfare Act is enforced by which U.S. government agency?
Department of Agriculture (USDA)
Fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones in horses are often associated with damage to which structure?
suspensory ligament
Which one of the following diseases is characterized by schistocytes on a complete blood count?
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, hemolytic-uremic syndrome, malfunctioning cardiac valves, hemangiosarcoma, and more
A 3-year old castrated male Doberman Pinscher presents for acute onset non-productive vomiting of 3 hours duration. On exam, the patient is extremely lethargic, tachycardic, has weak pulses and a distended abdomen. Following standard initial emergency treatment for suspected gastric dilation and volvulus, you would confirm the diagnosis with what imaging procedure?
Right lateral radiograph
A group of dairy calves were fed a home-made grain mix that had a high percentage of cottonseed. Cottonseed is a good source of protein. A few days after being started on this new grain mix, the calves began having problems including dyspnea and weakness, followed by death in several calves. What is the toxic principle acting here?
Gossypol
How does cervical spondylopathy present???
sporadic ataxia and paresis of all limbs and UMN of all limbs
You are practicing in the Pacific Northwest and submit a fecal sedimentation test on a cat that comes back positive for Paragonimus kellicotti. What of the following is true about his parasite?
It affects both dogs and cats (they are the DH) and it is a lung fluke and snails and crayfish are the IH
The systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) is commonly observed in critically ill animals and is associated with fever, tachycardia, and leukopenia (among other abnormal parameters). Which cytokine is most typically associated with SIRS?
Interleukin 1 (causes widespread inflammation of the inflammatory response)
You are looking at a diff-quick stained sample and see non-degenerate neutrophils accounting for 95% of the cell population and scattered small mononuclear cells (accounting for 5% of the cell population). How would you describe this joint fluid??
Suppurative, non-septic inflammation (a small number of mononuclear cells are normally present in joint fluid but neutrophils are not)
granulomatous described what cell type to predominate?
mononuclear cells (lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells)
what does “pyogranulomatous” mean as far as cell type?
mixed population of neutrophils and mononuclear cells
what do you think about joint tap in a dog showing mild increase in mononuclear cells with a few neutrophils?? What about if the sample of joint fluid has 95% nondegenerative neutrophils and 5% mononuclear cells?
osteoarthritis; immune-mediated polyarthritis and polyarthritis due to a rickettsial disease (tick-borne)
What enzymes in a horse are considered to be liver specific?
SDH and GGT
Restrictive environments in pigs are though to be a leading cause of which maladaptive behavior?
tail biting
What do you rec. to a poultry farmer to stop the spread of fowlpox disease once it is in his flock?
vaccination of all turkeys except those naturally infected bc the ones already infected will have natural immunity after they recover
What virus of has a latent period within the trigeminal ganglion of chickens allowing a clinically healthy chicken to carry this virus into a new poultry flock?
Infectious layngotracheitis virus (it is a herpesvirus that lays latent in neuronal tissue)
THC intoxication causes what CS?
urinary incont., GI signs, ataxia, tremors, neuro signs, and hypothermia
the minimum lethal THC dose in dogs is >3mg/kg
pulse ox reading 90% means what is the arterial pressure?
It means the arterial pressure is 60mmHg and oxygen saturation may drop precipitously (stepwise) if it decreases further
An oxygen saturation of 98-100% corresponds to…..
> 100mmHg oxygen in arterial blood
- An oxygen saturation of 95% corresponds to…..
- An oxygen saturation of 90% corresponds to…..
- An oxygen saturation of 50% corresponds to…..
- An oxygen saturation of 10% corresponds to…..
- 80mmHg
- 60mmHg
- 30mmHg
- 10mmHg
A herd is planning to go across state lines to be sold and they did a TB caudal tail fold test and one reacted to the protein derivative TB in the area it was injected. What do you do now?
Wait another 24 hours and read the TB tests again (the test is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction that occurs from a T-cell response)
how soon after the protein derived TB test do you have to read the TB folds?
The USDA APHIS says the bovine TB tests must be read at 72 +/- 6 hours (with 72 hours being optimal)
A diagnostic ratio is the ratio of income from diagnostic procedures relative to income from goods (like drugs). Which types of vets usually have the lowest diagnostic ratio?
Livestock vets
What do you try to maintain when minimizing intracranial pressures?
try to maintain high PaO2 and lowww PaCO2
What is the appropriate tx of a horse with a second degree AV block?
No tx necessary; it is normal for horses to have a slower HR esp. race horses, and not uncommon to observe a second degree AV block
What is the causative agent of blue eye in swine?
Paramyxovirus
A client comes in and you take rads of her dog, she pays for them, who does the radiographs belong to?
The practice (they are a part of the p medical records and belong to the practice where they were taken and must be kept for a period of time depending on the state laws)
What is the growth medium of choice for Mycoplasma bovis?
Hayflick’s agar in a microaerophilic environment
What is not primarily produced by the liver?
Trypsin
Albumin
Anti-thrombin II
Fibrinogen
Urea
Trypsin (it is primarily produced by the pancreas)
Approx. 80% of the equine ulcers are on the ____ region of the stomach
squamous (this is aka the non-glandular region and is not durable and does not produce any mucous)
You are revising your pre-anesthetic plan and want to give a pure mu agonist opioid as part of your tx plan. What is a side effect of mu agonist opioids in dogs?
Respiratory depression (full mu agonists are morphine, fentanyl, and hydromorphone) other SE include decreased GI motility, resp. depression, decreased body temperature, cough suppression, panting, and bradycardia
(they can cause hyperthermia in cats)
What causes reproductive failure in pigs by ascending infection of the reproductive tract?
E. coli
You have a dog that you did a dental sx on where you removed an oral mass next to the canine tooth and sent it out for histopathology and it came back as melanoma and they said you got clean margins, what do you do now?
LN aspirates and thoracic rads
malignant melanoma is the most common malignant oral tumor type in dogs and is highly metastatic
