Vet prep and Zuku Flashcards
1
Q
an older cat presents for dropping food, and drooling from only one side of his mouth. He has no hx of trauma but recently has had a thick ocular discharge from her eye and you perform a neuro exam and find when you introduce a Q-tip through one nostril the contralateral eye closes. What do you tell the owners?
A
the other side may start to show the same signs within the next few weeks to months. This is classic finding of unilateral facial nerve paralysis and is it most commonly idiopathic and prognosis for recovery is guarded
2
Q
in dogs, facial paralysis has been seen with _____
A
hypothyroidism
3
Q
what is the tx for pseudorabies in piglets?
A
there is no tx, depopulation
4
Q
an adult ferret presents for acute onset of ataxia, salivation, and lethargy. What do you do first?
A
Blood glucose (likely hypoglycemic)
5
Q
Taurine deficiency in dogs =
A
DCM and vision impairment
6
Q
Tx for VPCs
A
lidocaine CRI or Mexiletine which is an oral class I anti-arrhythmic
7
Q
which disease in chickens has the best prognosis for recovery?
A
Infectious coryza (bc it is caused by a bacteria so tx with abx is successful)
8
Q
how to test swine for porcine respiratory reproductive syndrome (PRRS)
A
test aborted sows via serum PCR
9
Q
Why would a boa constrictor be presenting to you for weight loss, vomiting, hemorrhagic diarrhea, and anorexia? The snake is also housed with turtles…
A
Entamoeba species (protozoal organism that causes severe GI signs and death in snakes and turtles are the carriers)
10
Q
What are the most commonly reported organism to be recovered in animals with endocarditis? (there are 6 of them)
A
Bartonella, staph aureus, strep, corynebacterium, pseudomonas, erysipelothrix
11
Q
How do you treat the ich in fish (causes small white dots and is diagnosed with skin scrape or gill biopsy showing large, rolling cilates with a horseshoe-shaped macronucleus.
A
Increase treatment frequency at high temperature
12
Q
Use of oral ampicillin in a rabbit is most likely to precipitate which of the following?
A
Clostridial enterotoxemia
13
Q
what is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus?
A
hardbag (CAEV is a retroviruses and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with udder with agalactiae
tx is CULLLLLL
14
Q
ingestion of bracken fern (Pteridium aquilinum) causes which of these signs in sheep?
A
hematuria (it causes hemorrhagic cystitis that progresses to neoplastic changes of the cells within the bladder)
15
Q
Q fever can be acquired by humans from sheep, In humans, it can cause fever, headache, fatigue, premature delivery or abortion. what organism causes Q fever?
A
coxiella burnetii
16
Q
What does Q fever cause in humans?
A
fever, headache, fatigue, premature delivery or abortion
17
Q
A large 5 year old iguana presents on ER for an acute onset of not doing well, on PE there is episcleral injection, swelling of the pharyngeal region, and pain on palpation of the abdomen. What is most likely the diagnostics?
A
renal failure
18
Q
Hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) in horses is caused by what autosomal dominant trait?
A
Defect in voltage dependent sodium channels
19
Q
What is not a CS of hypovitaminosis A in box turtles?
A
Posterior paresis
20
Q
hypovitaminosis A CS
A
edema of the eyelids, chronic respiratory disease, renal disease, secondary infections to the eyes, skin, and respiratory system
21
Q
what Tx is C/I in p with choke
A
mineral oil (in the lungs by accident= death)
22
Q
CS of chickens being diarrhea, incoordination, prostration and vent picking with swollen cloacal bursa that is edematous and yellow with hemorrhage, what is most likely the disease?
A
Infectious bursal disease
23
Q
hydrops allantois is a disorder of the _____ and prognosis for life of the fetus and fertility of the cow is ______
A
placenta; poor
24
Q
A cow that has a rounded appearance, is in the last trimester, decreased rumen motility, dehydrated, sick, and weak likely has what? What is her prognosis?
A
Likely has hydrops aka hydroallantois and the prognosis for the fetus is guarded and cow will likely be infertile even with tx
25
what is hydramnois? what is hydroallantois?
Hydramnios is the disorder of the fetus but the placenta is normal and hydroallantois is the opposite
26
hydramnios CS
Papple shaped cow, fetus and placentomas are palpated (unlike in hydroallantois), usually clinically well and cow has fair to good prognosis for fertility and fetus is usually born but underweight/deformed
27
placentomes are able to be palpated with _______ but not _______
hydramnios but not hydroallanois
28
which infectious agent causes the CS in pigs most similar to that of Haemophilus parasuis (glasser's disease)?
Streptococcus suis (both cause polyarthritis and polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets as well as fibrinopurulent inflammation and meningitis/convulsions)
29
elephants can often be seen in zoos engaging in repetitive non-productive behavior like swaying back and fourth, these behaviors as known as....
stereotypes (which are abnormally frequent, repetitive, non-productive behaviors and can be indicative of poor welfare conditions)
30
which disease of chickens causes progressive paresis and can lead to paralysis of one or more extremtities???
Marek's Disease (can affect the sciatic nerve and can cause vasogenic brain edema which contributes to CS described)
31
what tumor in birds can cause unilateral paresis of a limb?
renal tumor
32
what CS do you see right away in a p with overdose of lidocaine CRI?
Muscle tremors and seizures
33
you diagnose a mice colony with lymphocytic choriomeningitis, what do you do next?
Depopulation
34
Heparin is commonly used as an anti-coagulant in vet med, its MOA is related to....
binds to anti-thrombin which causes acceleration of interaction between anti-thrombin and activated factor X is related to common pathway of the coagulation cascade, whereas thrombin is necessary to convert fibrinogen to fibrin
35
heparin inactivates ______ and ______ thus halting the coag. cascade
Factor X and thrombin
36
tricuspid dysplasia results in what?
enlarged right heart, and murmur would be heard more intensely on R side of the dog
37
aortic stenosis causes ___ ______ of the ____ heart
concentric hypertrophy of the left heart
38
.
.
39
animal welfare science often employs which type of test below to determine what animals select under different conditions?
Preference testing
40
which of the following conditions are almost always diagnosed in chickens and turkeys that are over 10 weeks of age?
Pasteurella and Erysipelothrix infections
41
tx salt poisoning in pigs with what fluid?
Normosol R IV slowly to decrease the blood sodium concentration
42
what is the E. coli associated with edema disease in swine?
F18
43
which of the following organisms has been associated with spirochaetal colitis in swine?
Brachyspira pilosicoli
44
what is the causative organism for swine dysentery?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
45
what is the best tx for porcine mange?
Avermectins
46
a client brings in a pig with pruritus and skin lesions, and the o has similar lesions. What is the diagnosis and tx?
Porcine mange and tx is Avermectins
47
mammary carcinomas in cats has poor prognosis because many of them metastasize T/F
True!!!
48
mammary tumors in dogs vs cats
dogs- 50% malignant and only 50% of the malignant ones will even mets
cats- very malignant and mets, poor prognosis
49
Enzootic pneumonia and gangrenous mastitis in sheep (blue bag) can both be caused by....
Mannheimia hemolytica
50
presence of dysphonia (abnormal voice) may indicate a lesion where???
CN X (vagus nerve)
51
there is atrophy of the masticatory muscles and inability to close the mouth, what nerve is affected?
CN V (trigeminal nerve)
52
what condition is most likely to cause an elevated level of serum bilirubin in a 7 y/o horse?
hemolytic anemia
53
what drug is used to tx subaortic stenosis
atenolol
54
CS of subaortic stenosis
systolic murmur at the left heart base, thoracic rads showing mild left-sided cardiomegaly with left atrial enlargement and segmental enlargement of ascending aorta (prognosis guarded)
55
what does it mean if a horse presents for colic and on abdominal U/S, you see a structure on the L side and absent left kidney on U/S, what is the diagnosis?
Nephrosplenic entrapement; kidneys is obscured bc left dorsal displacement of the large colon over the nephrosplenic ligament
56
what abx is C/I in foals and why? what abx in foals causes C. diff in the dam?
Enrofloxacin because it is a fluoroquinolone and causes arthrotoxicity and erosion of the cartilage; Rifampin causes C. diff in adults
57
what eggs are rectangular or triangular in fecal float of cattle?
tapeworm (Moniezia eggs) which are found in young cattle and life cycle involves mites that live in the soil
58
what is bone spavin in horses?
Tarsocrural OCD
59
what is an example of ancillary benefits?
professional membership dues paid
60
what is the cause of a horse coming in with muscle atrophy, and both lateral thighs have atrophy as well as gluteal muscles, spasmotic hyperflexion when backing the horse up is also noted and there is a high-stepping gait. What is the likely diagnosis?
Stringhalt is the diagnosis
can be from chronic sweet pea and/or flatweed (mycotoxins) ingestion
61
red maple intoxication causes ? in horses
hemolytic anemia
62
what intoxication is associated with liver disease after chronic exposure?
Senecio or groundsel
63
castor bean intoxication is associated with ?
severe GI issues and hemorrhagic diarrhea
64
what do you do in a ferret that was attacked by a wild animal and is not vaccinated?
euth and submit for testing OR vax immediately and quarantine for 6 months
65
what is the usual route of transmission for mycoplasma pneumonia in sheep?
Aerosol (from older to younger animals usually)
66
testing for classical swine fever can be complicated by the presence of what viruses in swine?
BVDV (does not usually cause disease in pigs but are both Flavirvidae family viruses)
67
A 2 y/o dog presents for exercise intolerance and syncopal episodes, cardiac auscultation reveals a grade 4/6 left systolic murmur and chest rads show mildly enlarged left ventricle and left atrium, and segmental enlargement of the ascending aorta
aortic stenosis
68
which larvae is known to migrate through the portal vein and into the liver in horses????
strongylus edentatus and strongylus equinus
69
____ slows the heart by inhibiting the influx of calcium into the myocardial cells
Diltiazem (it is a calcium channel blocker used to tx supraventricular tachycardia, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and hypertension)
70
what document reports on the financial performance over a period of time?
Profit and loss statement
71
what is another name of equity or the difference between assets and liabilities?
net book value
72
what is a cash flow statement
reports sources of cash and uses of cash, purchases for inventory, paying of debt
73
what is a balance sheet
a report on the financial condition of the company at a specific point in time
74
several anechoic regions in a horse tendon on U/S means what?
Acute tendonitis (the anechoic regions are hemorrhage and loss of tendon fibers)
75
what is "scratches" in horses?
chronic seborrheic dermatitis in horses on the plantar/palmar aspect of the pastern aka "greasy heel" or "dermatitis verrucosa" or "dew poisoning" or "mud fever"
76
what viruses are more resistant to cleaning?
non-enveloped viruses
77
several turkeys moves to new housing which previously housed chickens and now the turkeys are dead. One is brought to you for necropsy and you find marked inflammatory changes, cecal wall thickening and ulcerations. There is also rounded necrotic lesions present on the liver. What is most likely your diagnosis?
Histomonas melegridis
78
what causes theiler's disease?
Tetanus antitoxin can as well as blood reactions
79
what infection is not a differential for lameness in young pigs?
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
80
what best describes the effects of an auriculopalpebral nerve block in horses?
Disrupts motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi (motor block only)
81
two mares present for crusting dermal lesions on their dorsums and pasterns, the lesions are "paintbrush" like and have purulent material exudating from them. A direct smear of the lesion shows branching, filamentous, gram positive bacteria. What is likely your diagnosis?
Dermatophilosis
82
left ventricular hypertrophy is normally associated with what comorbidities?
hypertension, hyperthyroidism, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
83
what is the rabbit fur mite?
cheyletiella (can also infected dogs, cats, and humas!!!)
84
what is the rabbit ear mite?
Psoroptes cuniculi
85
what is the test used to diagnose a Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection with internal abscesses in horses?
Synergistic hemolysis inhibition tests
86
A beef cow presents with blepharospasm and chemosis. You perform a fluorescein stain and see a centrally located ulceration of the cornea, what is NOT a tx option?
Choramphenicol (bc food animal)
87
a bird with a hx of being fluffed at the bottom of the cage with hyporexia, tissues protruding from the vent, and housed with a male is likely from what deficiency?
Calcium
88
an 8 week old kitten has presented for its paw being crushed and the cat is otherwise healthy. Rads show fx of metacarpal II and IV and both fractures have about 50% overlap with their respective fragments. What is the best tx option for this kitten?
Spoon splint bandage with bandage changes every 5 days for a total of 2 weeks
89
What is it called when rams get that edema of the head and neck with serohemorrhagic exudate and local tissue necrosis?
Clostridium novyi type A aka big head
90
how to decrease the load of bot flies in horses (Gasterophilus species)?
Administer ivermectin twice annually, once in early summer and again in the fall
91
what are the genotypes of male and female birds???
Male is ZZ And female is ZW
92
Chronic intermittent hematuria in beef grazing a western US pasture has been noted by the owner, you also diagnose hemorrhagic cystitis, what is the most likely causative agent???
Bracken fern (Pteridium aquilinum)
93
what is the causative agent of turkey coryza?
Bordetella avium
94
what is the TOC for Psittacosis (Chlamydophilia psittaci)???
Doxycycline (or any tetracyclines for at least 45 days!!!!!)!!!
95
how many milliliters of 50% dextrose should you use to make 1 liter of 5% dextrose?
50mg/mL x 1000mL = 50,000 total desired in 1 liter
50,000 mg/500mg/mL = 100 mL of 50% dextrose
96
what happens if you give PGF2-alpha to a cow in anestrus?
nothing
97
what is the causative agent for feline infectious anemia?
Mycoplasma haemofelis
98
a dwarf rabbit presents for right sided head tilt and hx of circling to the right, which of the following is likely a diagnosis?
Encephalitozoon cuniculi
99
lameness in sheep and goats can be due to footrot from what orgs?
Dichelobacter nodosus
100
use what test to screen for BLV?
ELISA to detect antibodies
101
BVDV can result in _____ ______ (a CS)
oral ulcerations and bilateral enophthalmos (sucken in eyes)
102
thiamine deficiency aka _____ is often seen in lambs being fed high concentrates or molasses such as in horse fed
polioencephalomalacia
103
several sheep in a flock are showing signs of depression, head pressing, opisthotonos, diarrhea, and blindness. As you check out the flock, you notice the farmer has been mistakenly giving them horse feed. What disease do they likely have?
Polioencephalomalacia
104
what is the significance of xanthochromia on CSF tap (it is yellowish coloring to the fluid)?
evidence of prior hemorrhage
105
enlarged sciatic nerve in chickens is seen with what disease
Marek Disease
106
what is not a possible cause of icterus in horses?
Oleander ingestion (it is a cardiac glycoside that causes death)
107
what worm migrates through the liver and into the lungs in pigs causing pneumonia?
Ascaris suum aka porcine roundworm
NOT responsive to abx and do significant lung damage
108
what method of transportation is a welfare concern with sheep and goats?
Boat transport
109
what AV block is seen in normal athletic horses?
2nd degree AV block
110
ECG showing increase in the P-R interval followed by occasional P waves that are NOT followed by a QRS-T complex.
2nd degree AV block (normal in athletic horses).
111
five goats on a ranch with 125 meat goats have developed large submandibular and prescapular abscesses. what is your next course of action??
Isolate affected animals (suspected caseous lymphadenitis aka Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis)
112
A cow presents in her 3rd lactation after calving normally 95 days ago and she does not seem to be in estrus and has not been since calving. What would happen if you gave her PGF2-alpha?
it will lyse her CL and increase uterine motility and evacuate her uterus and bring her into estrus
113
polioencephalomalacia causes destruction of what in the brain?
causes destruction of the gray matter in the cerebrum
114
what is most likely to predispose a cow to metritis?
dystocia (within the previous 2 weeks)
115
what is the common venereal disease in horses causing metritis?
Taylorella equigenitalis
116
pH low with HCO3- low with PCO2 low and respiratory rate hgih means metabolic _____ with _____ compensation
metabolic acidemia with respiratory compensation
117
what is true of mammary tumors in cats vs dogs
usually more malignant in cats
118
what is true about mammary tumors in mice?
they can be found basically anywhere, even on their dorsum and are malignant unlike in rats which are usually benign
119
what do you recommend to a cattle farmer whose calves have coccidiosis?
clean everything, biosecurity is impt, and lasalocid or monensin or amprolium or decoquinate or toltrazuril to calves for 2 months when they are moved to group pens
120
what is the tx for dogs diagnosed with isospora?
albon aka sulfadimethoxine
121
a horse with a peeling red muzzle and alopecia presents to you, what toxin is primarily responsible do you think??
St. Johns wort
122
A 2 year old Arabian gelding presents for acute cutaneous lesions and restlessness after coming in from the pasture. The cutaneous lesions are elevated, flat topped and range in size. The lesions are scattered throughout multifocally all over the horse, what is the most appropriate tx at this time?
Parental dexamethasone (the horse has urticaria/hives)
123
Onchocerca cervicalis causes what CS?
patchy to diffuse alopecia and erythema, scaling, non-pruritic and some present as a "bull's eye" and can cause ventral midline dermatitis as well and uveitis if they migrate into the ocular tissues
124
____ are bot fly larval that live in the stomach as a stomach bot and do not usually cause any CS
Gasterophilus
125
the green bird is male or female? What about the red bird?
green is male and red is female
126
how do you tx for a pig herd with Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae and some pigs are dying at a rapid rate?
Inject all pigs with enrofloxacin
127
Fowlpox vax is usually given in chickens via what routes?
wing web injections
128
what are osselets?
inflammation of the periosteum on the dorsal distal epiphyseal surface of the third metacarpal bone and fetlock joint and usually always bilateral and usually from chronic stress and concussive forces
129
a club foot in a horse is result of _______ ___________ ___ ____ __
deep digital flexor tendon contracture
130
a 1 year old TB presents for PPE and on PE you find a mild gait abn at the start of exercise which is then diminished. You note the horse was very well muscled and decide to perform an electromyographic exam and obtain a crescendo-decrescendo signal of high frequency repetitive bursts with a characteristic "dive bomber" sound. What is the diagnosis??
Myotonia (genetic component suspected)
131
how do you manage/tx osselets in horses?
rest, phenylbutazone, and intra-articular injections of sodium hyaluronate
132
what is a complete heart block usually from?
degenerative fibrosis of the cardiac conductive system
133
where does the low 4 point nerve block block?
aka low palmar, blocks metacarpophalangeal (fetlock) joint and below
134
PLE can be treated with ______ which is a what kind of drug?
protein losing enteropathy can be treated with enalapril which is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that is used as a vasodilator, anti-hypertensive agent, and used for heart failure patients. It =s effects of dilation on the efferent arterioles of the glomeruli helps PLE
135
What breeds if cats are predisposed to having Type B blood types unlike other cats who have type A
cornish rex, british short hair, devon rex
136
what is the most common cause of bacterial conjunctivitis in cats?
Chlamydophila felis and cannot be distinguished from feline herpesvirus-1 (but can ddx by seeing elementary bodies or a positive FA test - both on conjunctivital scraping)
137
what is the tx for cats with Chlamydophila felis causing conjunctivitis?
tetracycline 4x/day for one week post resolution of CS
138
a cat that chews and eats fabric and has bad behavior overall may need a SSRI like ______
fluoxetine
139
a cat has unilateral blepharospasm, conjunctival hyperemia and epiphora of the right eye. You perform a stain and it shows dendritic corneal ulcer. What is most likely the cause?
herpesvirus infection
140
HCM is commonly associated with what comorbidity/mortality?
saddle thrombus (aortic thromboembolism)
141
estrus in cats lasts about ___ days and INTERestrus is about ____-___ days and cats are induced ovulators. What causes pseudopregnancy in cats?
estrus lasts about 7 days; interestrus lasts about 7-21 days; pseudopregnancy occurs after a queen ovulates but does not become pregnant and the CL develops and secretes progesterone like she is pregnant and it prevents return to estrus for like 45-50 days.... she will usually not show CS
142
Use acid fast stain to ddx what bacterial organisms?
Nocardia (WILL Stain with acid-fast) and Actinobacillus (IS NOT acid fast stained)
143
what stain is used for amyloid? what stain is used for fungi like dermatophytes???
Congo red stain; KOH stain
144
how to tx prolapsed uterus in a cat:
OVHE and removal of the external portion as well
145
on rads, cardiac sil being tall suggests what?
left ventricular enlargement
146
cat with tall cardiac sil on rads and alveolar pattern likely has what disease?
left-sided CHF
147
rubiosis iridis (where the sclera is diffusely pinpoint hyperemic) means what usually in cats?
anterior uveitis
148
what is true about center venous pressure????
it is a direct measure of blood pressure in the cranial vena cava
149
sesamoiditis is usually caused by what in horses?
tearing the ligamentous attachments to the sesamoids (tx is rest and NSAIDS but prognosis is poor)
150
what is a tapeworm that is NOT found in horses at all?
Dipylidium species
151
at what age during gestation is a fetus most likely to become PI with BVDV?
before 125 days gestation (b/t 45-125 days usually)
152
what is the approx. daily water requirement for a rabbit?
120mL/kg
153
.
.
154
closure with coil vs ligation of PDA in young dogs
closure with coil- if PDA is funnel-shaped
Ligation of the PDA can be done if it is cylinder shaped
make sure to do medical management of PDA if p is also in heart failure before surgery (do diuretics and heart drugs)
155
avocados are toxic to ___
parrots
156
what disorder of goats can be controlled with genetic testing?
Beta mannosidosis which is a disorder causing fatal neurological symptoms in newborns and is an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
157
cattle warble is called _____, when do you tx with ivermectin to prevent
Hypoderma; treat with ivermectin in the early fall
158
dog/cat warble is _____ whereas cattle warble is called _____
cuterebra; hypoderma
159
what is the cause of alpha-Mannosidosis?
Genetic (autosomal recessive)
160
types of hypersensitivity reactions-
Type 1- aka immediate, occurs when re-exposure of an antigen results in an allergic reaction IgE
Type 2- aka cytotoxic, occurs when an antigen on a cell surface binds with an antibody and is then recognized as being foreign
Type 3- aka immune complex- when there are more antigens than there are antibodies and form an immune-complex
Type 4- delayed type of hypersensitivity where it takes several days and is usually cell-mediated
161
a mare with an inability to blink and corneal ulceration indicates a lesion to what crania nerve?
facial nerve
162
a cow is severely dehydrated, what fluids to do give?
metabolic acidosis so give 4 L of IV fluids containing glucose, sodium, bicarbonate, and lesser amounts of potassium
163
how does a pig get infected with Trichinella spiralis?
ingestion of encysted larva in the muscle
164
what salmonella causes subQ petechial hemorrhage and heavy, wet red lungs?
Salmonella dublin
165
what labwork elevations in a horse suggests hyperlipemia and hepatic lipidosis???
Elevations in triglycerides, GGT and sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)
166
what is the parasitic cause of uveitis in horses most commonly?
Onchocerca cervicalis which undergoes aberrant migration of the microfilariae
167
Alveolar macrophages are the primary target for what disease in pigs?
Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) which has a high affinity for macrophages esp. those in the lung.
168
what cyst found in dogs can cause hydatid cysts in humans and can be fatal?
Echinococcus granulosus (tx praziquantel, dogs get it from eating raw sheep meat infected with the cysts)
169
what is the diagnosis test of bluecomb in turkeys?
Direct fluorescent antibody for viral antigens in the intestines
170
what is impt about the pork tapeworm, Taenia solium???
ingestion by humans can cause cysticercosis
171
fog fever aka ABPEE involves what chemical responsible?
3-Methylindole which is a breakdown component of tryptophan and is toxic to the lungs
172
what is the chemical involved with moldy sweet potatoes and looks similar to fog fever aka ABPEE?
4-ipomeanol
173
what is the unique condition in birds that cayuses excessive lipid deposition in the skin and is a macrophagic inflammatory response with cholesterol cells on cytology?
Cutaneous xanthomatosis
174
what is the tx in birds with Chlamydophilia psittaci?
Doxycycline
175
what causes acute ileitis in pigs?
Lawsonia intracellularis
176
what can you use for rapid detection of FPT in a foal?
ELISA (SNAP) test (RID is most accurate but takes 24 hrs)
177
in this type of arrhythmia, the P-R interval progressively gets larger and there is a dropped QRS complex (P wave without a QRS complex)
second degree Mobitz type 1 heart block
178
trying to abort a cow in 5-8 months of gestation, use what???
PGF2-alpha and dexamethasone
179
.
.
180
what plant causes liver toxiciation when ingested by horses?
Fiddleneck
181
what stimulates ADH secretion in horses?
hyperosmolality and decreased blood volume (osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect these changes within the body)
182
what is the underlying cause of diabetes insipidus
animal unable to concentrate their urine because the kidneys are unable to respond to ADH and so ADH secretion does not happen and the patient will be very pu/pd, and have veryyy dilute urine
183
on preg check of a cow, you feel crepitus material on palpation of the uterus in a cow but no viable fetus. What is your diagnosis?
macerated fetus (not to be confused with a mummified fetus where the fluids are all dried out and the fetus is firm and tary in palpation)
184
anemia , think ____ in like all species lol
Mycoplasma
185
CRF in horses commonly results in CS such as weight loss, inappetence, pu/pd and azotemia, what else do you likely see on serum biochem of a horse with chronic renal failure??
hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia with hyperkalemia and hyponatremia (not the same as cats who have low K+)
186
what are the most common urinary stones in dogs and cats?
struvite and calcium oxalate
187
What is an example of an osmotic diuretic? What about a loop diuretic? A aldosterone antagonist diuretic?
osmotic diuretic- mannitol
loop diuretic- furosemide
aldosterone antagonist diuretic- Spironolactone
188
what is acetazolamide??
a diuretic that treats swelling caused by heart disease and works by being a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
189
best tx for TCC (which likes the trigone of the bladder but need FNA/biopsy to confirm)
NSAID and chemotherapy
190
nerve innervation to the bladder:
Hypogastric nerve is sympathetic innervation
Pudendal nerve is SOMATIC innervation (somatic meaning body)
Pelvic nerve is the parasympathetic innervation
191
what tx is commonly used for protein losing nephropathies (PLN) - like glomerulonephritis and amyloidosis?
Angiotensin converting enzyme (inhibitors (ACE inhibitors) which reduce proteinuria by causing dilation of the efferent arterioles of the nephrons
192
why do we avoid enrofloxacin (Baytril) in dogs under 8 months old? Why do we avoid tetracyclines in growing dogs?
enrofloxacin- causes bubble like changes to the growing articular cartilage
tetracyclines- causes enamel hypoplasia and teeth staining
193
why suture do you use for closing the bladder after a cystotomy??
PDS* or monocryl
194
trying to treat dalmatian with uric acid stones with Allopurinol but did not tell owners to decrease protein diet +/- had patient on too high of a dose so now it has....
Xanthine stones
195
what do we sometimes recommend in a patient with calcium phosphate stones and why??
low salt diet because high sodium intake increases urinary calcium
196
other name for struvite stones is
magnesium ammonium phosphate
197
explain the anatomy of the round ligament of the bladder and umbilical a/v
The urachus becomes the middle ligament of the bladder and the umbilical vein becomes the falciform ligament
Umbilical arteries go caudal in the body and the umbilical veins are more cranial in the body
198
when placing a intraosseous catheter in a bird , what bones are the most appropriate to use?
ulna or the tibiotarsus bones
199
what is the tx for PRAA?
Resection of the ligamentum arteriosum
200
Coonhound paralysis-
describes a sudden inflammation of multiple nerve roots and peripheral nerves in dogs, and occasionally cats. It can be caused by an immune reaction to raccoon saliva, vaccinations, systemic illness
201
Two dogs who are apparently healthy went camping with their owners and suddenly both dogs were unable to walk, and needed to be carried and they started showing signs of weakness in the HL toward the end of the trip and the o just assumed they were both vary tired. The dogs also had trouble eating and are non-painful, tetra-plegic, hyper-reflexive in all four limbs all have decreased tongue tone but are able to wag their tails and have bloodwork WNL.
Botulism
202
what drugs are adrenergic vasopressor in dogs (used to tx hypotension in anesthesia)??
Dopamine, dobutamine, phenylephrine, norepinephrine
203
What drug is a vasodilator that is used to tx hypertension?
Hydralazine
204
diagnosis of listeria is....
CSF tap showing increased protein and mild pleocytosis
205
A cow has been fed a lot of grain for 3 months and is now bleeding from the nose, you examine the cow and note she is febrile and suspect what?
She has a liver abscess from the extra grain she has been fed causing rumen acidosis and her vena cava became infected by the liver and thrombi broke off and caused vena caval thrombosis and metastatic pneumonia
206
what is the most common dermatophyte in the cat?
microsporum canis
207
what do you do if a horse comes up positive for EIA?
The positive and all exposed to the positive must be quarantined at least 200 yards apart
208
a rad showing consolidation and air bronchograms, what radiographic pattern is this???
alveolar (see a lot with feline asthma) looks like classic "trees in fog appearance"
209
first thing to do when a cat presents for pyrethrin toxicity:
IV methocarbamol
210
what are the 3 A's with EPM? what is the tx?
3 A's are asymmetry, ataxia, and atrophy and the tx is Ponazuril
211
how would you evaluate whether or not the mandibular branch of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is functionally intact in a dog?
look for symmetry and tone of the muscles of mastication
212
how to tell when there is acute vs chronic facial nerve paralysis??
acute- deviation of the nose away from the lesion
chronic- deviation of the nose toward the side of the lesion due to contracture of the muscles on that side
213
stringhalt can be seen with ____ intoxication
sweet pea
214
There is a dead pig that has pale mm before it died and dark feces, and clotted blood in the stomach and duodenum on necropsy, what is suspected?
Gastric ulcer
215
a cat has bad IBD, what drug can you use to help?
Budesonide (which is a steroid that concentrates its effects on the GI tract)
216
A rabbit presents for a right sided head tilt and hx of circling to the right, what is the most likely diagnosis???
Encephalitozoon cuniculi
217
What can a vitamin A def look like in pigs???
head tilt, incoordination, mental dullness, reduced weight gains and weak HL
218
A herd of pigs presents to you for 1-2 cm round papules, pustules, and vesicles and scabs on their ventral abdomen. Young and growing pigs are affected, what is most likely the diagnosis?
Swine pox
219
at what age are pigs normally weaned in North American swine farms?
16-21 days of age
220
A cat who is an outside cat comes to you for wounds, lethargy, fever, and low PCV and anorexia. What are you thinking for diagnosis if FIV/FeLV is negative and what is the diagnosis?
PCR for Mycoplasma
221
What is the morbidity and mortality rates for an outbreak of swine influenza in a herd of pigs???
High morbidity and low mortality
222
What is it called when a corporate industry wants to buy your previously independent feline veterinary practice and will be gaining control of that practice??
Acquisition
223
what drug will slow conduction to the heart and decrease HR and will increase vagal tone to the AV node
Digoxin
224
what drugs are used to tx A-fib??
Beta-blockers, like "olol" drugs
225
ketamine causes what SE in dogs?
increased muscle tone
226
A sheep presents to you for sitting position and normal FL but HL are hyperflexed, what do you localize the lesion to?
T3-L3 myelopathy
227
The MLV for equine viral arteritis is safe and effective for which of the following?
stallions and non-pregnant mares only
228
what breeds should ivermectin's be avoided in and why?
Old English sheepdogs, collies, aussies, Samoyeds, westies and shepherds because of their p-glycoprotein pump mutation/MRDR-1 mutation
229
what is the least common site of OCD in large animals?
Elbow
230
When reading a bacterial culture and sensitivity report, which antibiotic is used to indicate methicillin resistence?
Oxacillin
231
Which of the following can be caused by the aberrant migration of microfilaria in horses with Onchocerciasis?
Uveitis
Onchocerciasis also causes greyish non pruritic non seasonal lesions on the horse, diamond shaped lesion on the forehead and some lesions on the neck in Q
232
what is the ear mite of horses?
Psoroptes
233
A dairyman's favorite cow was bred by anew bull a few weeks ago and now his cow has pyometra. What agent is most likely responsible for causing the cow's pyometra?
Tritrichomonas foetus
it commonly causes post- coital pyometra in addition to EED
234
what agent causes pyometra +/- EED in cattle? What just causes EED? What about late term abortion? what about mid to late gestation abortions and not post-coital pyometras?
Tritrichomonas feotus causes EED and pyometra; campylobacter causes EED without pyometra; brucella will results in late term abortion; lepto is a cause of mid- to late gestation abortions and not post- coital pyometras
235
A horse with a recent onset of exercise intolerance has short of breath with exercise and a normal temp before exercise but elevated after exercise with normal PE but decreased sweating?
Response to an intradermal injection of terbutaline sulfate
terbutaline is a beta 2 adrenergic agonist that stimulates sweat production (horses that have anhidrosis will not sweat at any dilution with terbutaline)
236
A litter of 3-week piglets presented for shifting leg lameness and they have warm and swollen joints in all legs, a fever, and are dyspneic. Necropsy of one of the dead ones reveals fibrinopurulent pleuritis and peritonitis. What is most likely the diagnosis?
Haemophilus parasuis
237
___ _______ causes Glasser's disease which is usually characterized by sudden death but can often also lead to painful joints, pneumonia, and occasionally neuro signs. Lesions show fibrinopurulent pleuritis, pericarditis, and peritonitis.
Haemophilus parasuis
238
Haemophilus parasuis causes what CS? The disease most commonly affects piglets ages ____ to _____ and morbidity rate can be up to 75% and mortality rate up to 10%
CS- causes Glasser's disease which is usually characterized by sudden death but can often also lead to painful joints, pneumonia, and occasionally neuro signs. Lesions show fibrinopurulent pleuritis, pericarditis, and peritonitis
affects piglets from ages 2 weeks to 4 months
morbidity can reach up to 75% and mortality can reach up to 10%
239
how is avian (fowl) pox transmitted? What are the CS???
spread via mosquitos; can also vaccinate with single vax, causes diphtheritic membrane in the mouth and pharynx and nodules and scabs and are most prominent on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent.
240
One of the beef ranchers on a poor volcanic soil asks you to check out two steers that are hhaving diarrhea and resp. signs and is unresponsive to abx. you also note achromotrichia, and temperature elevation and you do a TTW and it comes back as Pasteurella multocida, what is your diagnosis?
copper deficiency (will have diarrhea, increased rates of bone fx, secondary resp. infections, ill thrift, and anemia and loss of hair color)
241
What do you do if a cow is postpartum and has a uterine prolapse?
administer an epidural, remove attached fetal membranes and clean and lubricate the uterus and replace it in a normal position and administer oxytocin and calcium gluconate
242
feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions are most likely to occur in what teeth?
307 and 407
243
what is true of trichuris suis (pig whipworm)
it causes mucohemorrhagic diarrhea in pigs of allll ages but pigs < 6 weeks old are affected worse and older pigs may be asymptomatic
244
mini horses are more prone to what type of colic?
SMALL COLON IMPACTION COLIC
245
a cat with renal failure, cardiomyopathy and DM and insulinoma needs to be tx with what first?
CRI glucagone
246
what does glucagon do?
used in insulinoma p, it stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis (glucocorticoids can also be used to stimulate gluconeogenesis and antagonize insulin effects)
**It increases BG rather than decreasing it like Insulin does**
247
GFR is most reliable assessed by what test???
serum creatinine which is proportional to GFR (increase in creatinine equals the same amount but a DECREASE in GFR)
248
when to send a diarrhea horse to isolation for suspected Salmonellosis? what parameters?
Diarrhea, fever, neutropenia (any 2 of the 3)
249
what is a common cause of meningitis in goat kids?
mycoplasma mycoides
250
Cattle with E. coli infection usually do not have symptoms T/F
True!!!
251
A canine p has blasto, what is a med that beings working fast since the p has blasto spreading rapidly?
Amphotericin B (also use with itraconazole)
252
presence of dysphonia may indicate a lesion in _____
CN X
253
you have a 6 y/o FS cocker spaniel with IMHA and you would like to start her on azathioprine and prednisone, which of the following is NOT a reported possible SE of azathioprine?
Nephrotoxicity; it is not a reported SE of azathioprine
254
what does panhypoproteinemia mean??
indicates protein losing nephropathy; this disorder causes loss of both albumin and globulin through the damaged intestinal wall
255
what is lymphangiectasia and what does it cause????
Lymphangiectasia is a classic example of PLE and is characterized by dilation and dysfunction of intestinal lymphatics and leakage of protein-rich lymph into the intestinal lumen, as a result you will have low albumin or vit D and calcium malabsorption
256
why give B12 in dogs with GI issues?
low B12 can cause GI signs so it is a way of ruling that out also with GI issues, may have decreased absorption of B12 (like with IBD patients)
257
what is the gold standard tx for salivary mucocele in dogs?
sx removal of the mandibular and sublingual salivary glands is gold standard and they are removed together bc the duct of the mandibular gland travels through the sublingual gland and removal of the one gland would just make the other one worse and cause issues with it if it is not removed
258
what age do dogs usually develop histiocytoma BUT HAVE SEEN IN IN OTHER AGES BESIDES THIS ONE
less than 3 y/o
259
____ has poor absorption and is painful given IM and is highly lipid-soluble
Diazepam
260
what benzo in cats is part of your pre-med plan and can be given IM bc has good absorption and does not hurt IM like ____ doses bc it is lipid-soluble
Midazolam; Diazepam
261
what urolith is most common in ferrets
struvites
262
what is a neuromuscular blocker when given to a dog???
Atracurium
263
The presence of yellow-white nodules (granulomas) containing acid-fast staining bacilli on the intestine, liver, and spleen of aged chickens is typical of what agent?
Mycobacterium avium subspecies avium
264
What inhalant agent is partially metabolized by the liver?
Halothane
265
Frontline is registered by which US gov't agency?
EPA
266
Salmonella typhimurium is a ________
gram neg facultative anaerobe
267
what vesicular disease can affect swine and is currently found in the US?
Vesicular stomatitis
268
In treating a dehydrated 24- year stallion paint horse with renal disease, what abx would be the most C/I????
Gentamicin
269
Which of the following causes primarily EED and infertility but can also cause sporadic abortions in cattle???
Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis
270
what is a parasite that causes disease in chickens from turkeys?
Histomonas melegridis
271
a group of sheep have become infected with Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis, what is the factor that makes this organism difficult to tx?
C. pseudotuberculosis is an intracellular bacterium and causes abscess wall
272
for neonatal isoerythrolysis, which of these pairs must mate??
Stallion positive for Qa and mare negative for Qa
273
An abn electroretinogram localizes a lesion to where?
retina
274
what is rec. for initial tx of a calf born with moderate flexural deformities of the distal forelimb?
posterior half cast from just below the carpus to the ground
275
what is the most common slab fx for horses?
3rd carpal bone
276
what is the most common site for chip fx in horses?
radial carpal bone
277
in what species is Osteochondritis least common in ?
cattle
278
what is likely the cause of dyspnea in a cat with LSA (lymphosarcoma)?
Mediastinal LN compressing the trachea
279
animals with a lesion of CN VI will have.....
medial strabismus on the ipsilateral (same) side
280
What causes multisystemic vasculitis in sheep with lameness and white streaks of skeletal muscle and edema of the ears, face, and oral mucosa with hemorrhages in the LN and spleen (may not have all of these CS!!!)???
Blue tongue
281
a hole in the intraventricular septum is one of the most common causes of congenital defects in hearts of horses and is aka...
VSD
282
what do you do if doxorubicin goes outside of the vein? What do you do if it is vincristine outside of the vein?
cold compresses to contain the spread of the drug (is most extravasation costly by being a worse vesicant)
doxorubicin is worse
vincristine outside of the vein- do a warm compress to disperse the drug and enhance systemic absorption
283
in cattle, phosphorus levels less than ____ mg/dL will most likely result in what?
2mg/dL and will result in hemolysis
284
what is the tx for right PRAA?
resection of the ligamentum arteriosum
285
What is the most common dermatophyte infecting the cat?
Microsporum canis
286
what is true about OCD in dogs?
OCD of the shoulder is commonly bilateral and OCD of the shoulder is the most common location and they usually occur in young, larger breed dogs and are painful.
