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Step 2 CK > Uworld Set 4 > Flashcards

Uworld Set 4 Flashcards

1
Q

days that atalectasis is common postop

A

2-5d

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2
Q

most common organism in spinal epidural abscess

A

staph aureus

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3
Q

what is the cancer risk with pernicious anemia

A

gastric carcinoma

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4
Q

initial study of choice in patients with a type A aortic dissection that are hemodynamically stable with no renal involvement

A

CT angiography

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5
Q

study of choice in patients with a type A aortic dissection that hemodynamically unstable or have renal involvement

A

TTE

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6
Q

what contraceptives should be avoided in patients with breast cancer

A

hormone containing (prog or estrog, can proliferate breast tissue)

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7
Q

A baby that remains in transverse or breech lie at 37

A

ECV

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8
Q

type of C section that is a contraindication to TOL

A

classic (vertical) C section

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9
Q

4 major causes of cirrhosis in the USA

A

viral (B and C (C is more))
chronic etoh
nonalc fatty liver disease
hemochromatosis

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10
Q

patients with difficulty adhering to dietary restrictions with warfarin and difficulty with INR monitoring post DVT who represent with a DVT

A

direct Xa inhibitors (riviroxaban, apixaban etc)

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11
Q

thrombolytic therapy reserved for what setting in DVT

A

massive PE with hemodynamic instability

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12
Q

3 demographics that are at increased risk for legionella pneumophila

A

chronic lung disease
smokers
immunosuppresed

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13
Q

child
abdominla pain
fatigue
decreased urination

following blood diarrheal illness

A

HUS

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14
Q

classic triad of HUS

A

MAHA
thrombocytopenia
kidney injury

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15
Q

MAHA thrombocytopenia and increased PT

consistent with

A

DIC

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16
Q

direct coombs testing is positive if the patients have what etiology for anemia

A

autoimmune destruction

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17
Q

following the histologic confirmation of adenocarcinoma of the stomach what is the next best step in management

A

CT scan for evaluation of the extent of disease

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18
Q

removal of H pylori is curative for patients with what gastric carcinoma

A

MALToma

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19
Q

the purpose of hepatic uridine diphosphogluconurate flucuronosyltransferase

A

conjugated bilirubin

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20
Q

T/F Asian infants have even further decreased levels of UGT compared to other babies

A

T

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21
Q

conjugated bili greater than 2 in an infant

c/w

A

biliary atresia

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22
Q

at what age does the anemia of beta thalessemia and jaundice begin to appear

A

after 6 months

until that time infants still have fetal Hgb

23
Q

gold standard for rapidly rising hyperbilirubinemia to prevent kernicterus

A

phototherapy

24
Q

what is a very common procedural cause for polycythemia in newborns

A

delayed cord clamping resulting in excess blood transferred to the fetus from the placental

25
Q

asymptomatic polycythemia infants treatment

A

fluids

26
Q

symptomatic polycythemia infants treatment

A

partial exchange transfusion (blood is replaced by NS)

27
Q

increased pulmonary vascular markings or fluid in the fissurs on CXR in an infant with resp distress

A

TTN

28
Q

ABX of choice for bacillary angiomatosis

A

erythromycin

29
Q

two medications that are used to decrease serum ammonia in patients with hepatic encephalopathy

A

lactulose and rifaximin

30
Q 
Drugs such as sedatives narcotics
hypovolemia
electrolyte changes (hypokalemia)
increase nitrogen load (bleeding)
infection
TIPS

increase the risk for

A

hepatic encephalopathy

31
Q

what sort of diet should TIPS patients be put on

A

low protein (decrease nitrogen load)`

32
Q

when is neomycin used in HE

A

if lactulose doesnt work and cannot tolerate rifaximin

33
Q

ascites not responsive to medical therapy or variceal bleeding non-responsive to endoscopic therapy

A

TIPS

34
Q

weight increase and height increase by 12 months

A

triple weight and 50% increase in height

35
Q 
hypogonadism
impaired wound healing
impaired taste
immune dysfucntion
alopecia
rash
A

Zinc

36
Q

fragile hair skin depigmentation
neurologic dysfunction
sideroblastic anemia

A

copper

37
Q 
soft 
irregular
increases with standing
increases with valsalva
tortuous bad in the scrotum
A

varicocele (pampiniform plexus)

38
Q

why are varicoceles more common on the left side

A

drains to the left renal vein which passes under the SMA and can be compressed

39
Q

how can varicocele and spermatocele be differentiated

A

spermatocele is a cyst that will not increase in size with standing or valsalva

40
Q

viral infection inhalation and associated with rheumatologic disease
presents with wheezing
proliferative narrowing of medium and small bronchioles

A

bronchiolitis obliterans

41
Q

T/F diffuse cutanous SS more commonly involves internal organs

A

T

42
Q

anti scl 70

anti RNA polymerase III antibodies

A

diffuse cutaneous SS

43
Q

development of empyema following lung surgery with air on CXR

A

bronchopleural fistula

44
Q

prolonged QRS >100msec in TCA overdose

A

sodium bicarb

45
Q

seizures caused by TCAs should be treated with

A

benzodiazepines

46
Q

utility of small bowel follow through in obstructed patient

A

stable that does not respond to initial conservative management

47
Q

severe pain in cancer patient

A

short acting opiate

48
Q

mild to mod pain in cancer patient

A

non-opiod

49
Q

topical capsaicin is useful for

A

mild neuropathic pain (postherpic for ex)

50
Q

surgery for myasthenia gravis

A

thymectomy

51
Q

patient with MS given pyridostigmine that doesnt respond

A

immunosuppressants
corticosteroids
mycoohenolate mofetil
azathioprine

52
Q

two Musc agonists for glaucoma

A

pilocarpine

carbachol

53
Q

indication for IVIG and plasmapharesis for MS

A

MS crisis

Step 2 CK (10 decks)

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