Step Up to Med - Pulmonary Flashcards

1
Q

two types of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

chronic bronchitis

emphysema

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2
Q

clinical diagnosis of chronic bronchitis

A

chronic cough productive of sputum for at least 3 months per year for at least 2 consecutive years

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3
Q

permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles due to destruction of alveolar walls

A

emphysema

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4
Q

fourth leading cause of death in the US

A

COPD

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5
Q

two main risk factors for emphysema

A

tobacco smoke

alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

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6
Q

excess mucus production narrowing the airways with productive cough inflammation and scarring occurs with enlargement in mucous glands and smooth muscle hyperplasia leading to obstruction

A

chronic bronchitis

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7
Q

destruction of alveolar walls due to relative excess in proteases or relative deficiency of antiproteases in the lungs

A

emphysema

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8
Q

tobacco smoke and
number of activated PMNs and macrophages
alpha 1 antitrypsin
oxidative stress

A

increase
decrease
increase

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9
Q

definitive diagnostic test in COPD

A

pulmonary function testing (spirometry)

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10
Q

what are the critical spirometry findings in COPD

A

decrease FEV1/FVC ratio

increase TLC residual volume and FRC

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11
Q

GOLD staging is based on

A

FEV1

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12
Q

GOLD staging and FEV1

A

> 80% pred - mild
50-80 mod
30-50 sev
<30 very sev

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13
Q

CXR changes in COPD

A

hyperinflation
flattened diaphragm
enlarged retrosternal space

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14
Q

in what conditions is CXR useful in COPD

A

during acute exacerbation to R/O pulmonary causes such as PNA or PTX`

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15
Q

should be measured in patients with a personal or family historyt of premature emphysema less that 50 y.o

A

alpha 1 antitrypsin

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16
Q

the most important intervention for COPD’ers

A

smoking cessation

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17
Q

what is the effect of quitting smoking on the rate of decling of FEV1

A

decreases the RATE of decline to that of a normal person but WILL NOT reverse it

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18
Q

what are the three medications commonly employed in the treatment for COPD

A

ipratropium bromide
albuterol
corticosteroids

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19
Q

dhown to improve survival and QOL in patients with COPD AND chronic hypoxemia

A

oxygen therapy

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20
Q

requirements for home O2 (2)

A

PaO2 <55mHg on ABG
OR
O2 sat <88%

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21
Q

what two vaccinations are necessary for COPD’er

A

strep pneumo every 5-6 years, patients with severe disease before 65
anually get the flu vaccination

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22
Q

.increased dyspnea spuitum production and or cough in a patient with known COPD

A

acute exacerbation

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23
Q

where is the o2 saturation goal for a chronic COPD patient

A

90-93#

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24
Q

what type of steroids should be used for an acute COPD exacerbation

A

IV methylprednisone with prednisone taper once clinical improved

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25
Q

3 most common causes for acute exacerbations

A

infection
noncompliance
cardiac disease

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26
Q

what is one of the main long term complications of COPD

A

pulmonary HTN and cor pulmonale (long standing hypoxia in the pulmonary vasculature

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27
Q

airway inflammation
airway hyperresponsiveness
reversible airflow obstruction

A

asthma

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28
Q

T/F asthma can begin at any age

A

T

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29
Q

what is the typical clinical picture with extrinsic asthma

A

atopic, hay fever and eczema

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30
Q

asthma symptoms are typically worse at what time of the day

A

night

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31
Q

Sob wheezing tightness and cough

A

asthma

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32
Q

what testing is required for diagnosis of asthma

A

PFTs

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33
Q

what must be done in PFTs to confirm the diagnosis of asthma

A

administer PFTs before and after the administration of bronchodilators in order to show reversibility

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34
Q

increase of what magnitude following bronchodilators in PFTs regarding asthma diagnosis is considered reversible

A

12%

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35
Q

useful meassurement of airflow obstruction in asthma

A

peak flow

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36
Q

useful when asthma is suspected but PFTs are nondiagnostic

A

bronchoprovocation

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37
Q

what kind of medication is methacholine and what is it used for?

A

muscarinic agonist

bronchoprovocation in asthma

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38
Q

when is CXR helpful in asthma

A

severe cases to r/o other causes PNA PTX etc

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39
Q

when should ABGs be considered in a patient with asthma

A

severe respiratory distress

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40
Q

increasing levels of what on ABG are highly concerning for impending respiratory failure in an asthmatic

A

normal or elevated PaCO2

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41
Q

if PaCO2 is normal or increased in asthmatic

A

admit and consider intubation

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42
Q

acute asthma exacerbation first step

A

inhaled broncho dilators typically nebulized or MDI

monitor peak flows and clinically for improvement

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43
Q

what should be done in acute asthma exacerbation following trial on inhaled albuterol through nebulizer

A

IV steroids

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44
Q

third line agent in acute asthma exacerbation in the hospital

A

IV magnesium

reduces bronchospasm

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45
Q

what are the 3 adjunct therapies to consider on top of albuterol steroids and mag in an acute asthmatic

A

oxygen therapy
ABX
intubation if all else fails

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46
Q

permanent abnormal dilation and destruction of bronchial walls with chronic inflammation airway collapse and ciliary loss dysfunction leading to impaired clearance of secretions

A

bronchiectasis

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47
Q

airway obstruction
immunodeficiency
allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
mycobacterium infections recurrent should raise concern for

A

bronchiectasis

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48
Q

most common cause for bronchiectasis

A

CF

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49
Q

rare congenital cause for bronchiectasis

A

kartagener syndrome

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50
Q

chronic cough with large amounts of mucopurulent foul smelling sputum
dyspnea
hemoptysis
recurrent or persistent PNA

A

bronchiectasis

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51
Q

diagnostic study of choice in bronchiectasis

A

high resolution CT

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52
Q

acute exacerbation of bronchiectasis requires what initial treatment

A

ABX

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53
Q

bronchial hygeine steps in bronchiectasis

A

hydration
bronchodilators
chest physiotherapy

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54
Q

excessively thick viscous secretions in the respiratory tract, exocrine pancreas, sweat glands, intestines, genitourinary tract

A

CF

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55
Q

treatment for CF

A
pancreatic enzyme replacement
fat soluble vitamin supplements
chest physical therapy
vaccinations
treatment of infections
inhaled rhDNase (breaks down the DNA in respiratory mucus that clogs the airways)
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56
Q

most common lung cancer

A

Nonsmall cell lung cancers

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57
Q

biggest risk for lung CA

A

smoking

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58
Q

lowest association with smoking of all the lung cancers

A

adenocarcinoma

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59
Q

common in shipbuilding and construction industry, car mechanics, painting

increasing lung CA risk

A

asbestos

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60
Q

high levels found in basements

increase riskl for lung CA

A

radon

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61
Q
cough
hemoptysis
obstruction
wheezing
dyspnea
recurrent PNA

most associated with what lung CA

A

squamous cell CA

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62
Q

anorexia
weight loss
weakness

associated prognosis with lung CA

A

bad (progressive at this point)

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63
Q

SVC synbdrome most commonly occurs in what type of lung CA

A

SCLC

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64
Q

facial fullness
facial and arm edema
dilated veins over anterior chest arms and face
JVD

A

SVC syndrome

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65
Q

nerve that courses through the mediastinum and can be injured by lung cancer if destructive

A

phrenic nerve

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66
Q

hoarseness secondary to lung cancer

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve injury

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67
Q

Apical tumor involved C8 and T1-T2 nerve roots

causing shoulder pain radiating down the arm

A

superior sulcus tumors

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68
Q

superior sulcus tumors almost always of what type

A

squamous cell

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69
Q

what syndrome can be involved with superior sulcus tumors

A

horners syndrome

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70
Q

why is the prognosis so poor associated with malignant pleural effusion

A

equivalent to distant metastasis

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71
Q

SIADH occurs with what pulmonary cancers

A

small cell lung cancer

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72
Q

ectopic ACTH secretion occurs with what lung cancers

A

small cell lung cancers

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73
Q

PTH like hormone secreting lung cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

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74
Q

hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy occurs in what two types of lung cancer

A

adenocarcinoma and squamous cell

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75
Q

proximal muscle weakness fatigability diminished deep tendon reflexes paresthesias in lung cancer setting

A

lambert eaten syndrome

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76
Q

loss of normal angle between the fingernail and nail bed due to thickening of subungual soft tissue

A

digital clubbing

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77
Q

digital clubbing usually iindicates

A

lung ca

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78
Q

most important radiologic study for the diagnosis of lung cancer

A

CXR

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79
Q

CXR criteria associated with benign lung tumor

A

stable over a 2 year period

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80
Q

useful test for staging of lung carcinoma

A

CT scan

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81
Q

cytologic exam of sputum in lung cancer useful for what type

A

central tumors

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82
Q

useful for diagnosing central visualized tumors but not peripheral lesions

A

fiberoptic bronchoscopy

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83
Q

best management for NSCLC

A

Surgery

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84
Q

treatment used as an adjunct following surgery for NSCLC

A

radiation

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85
Q

what is the treatment for management for SCLC

A

radiation and chemotherapy

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86
Q

50% chance of malignancy for solitary nodule if the patient is over the age of ____

A

50

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87
Q

T/F smoking has no effect on the chance of malignancy of a solitary pulmonary nodule

A

F (smoking definitely increases malignancy chance)

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88
Q

cutoff for large malignancy of pulmonary nodule

A

2cm

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89
Q

borders indicative of malignancy

A

irregular

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90
Q

type of calcifcation that indicates malignancyu in solitary pulmonary nodule

A

asymmetric calcification

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91
Q

dense calcification suggests

A

benign pulm nodule

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92
Q

enlarging pulmonary nodule suggests

A

malignancy

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93
Q

follow up of pulm nodule on xray with no old xray or new nodule

A

CT

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94
Q

low probability nodules management in pulmonary nodules

A

serial CT scan

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95
Q

intermediate probability nodule 1 cm or larger

A

PET scan

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96
Q

PET scan positive in pulmonary nodule

A

biopsy

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97
Q

high probability nodule follow up

A

biopsy

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98
Q

most common cause of mediastinal mass in older patients

A

metastatic cancer

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99
Q

most common cause of anterior mediastinum

A
FOUR T's
thymoma
teratoma
thymoma
terrible lymphoma
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100
Q

middle mediastinum most common causes (5)

A
lung cancer
lymphoma
aneurysm
cysts
morgagni hernia
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101
Q

posterior mediastinum most common causes (5)

A
neurogenic tumors
esophageal masses
enteric cysts
aneurysms
bochdalek hernia
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102
Q

most common symptoms of mediastinal structures

A

compressive symptoms

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103
Q

what kind of pneumonia is common with mediastinal structure

A

postobstructive PNA

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104
Q

what are the three neuronal type injuries associated with mediastinal masses

A

hoarseness with recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
horner syndrome from sympathetic ganglia
diaphragmatic paralysis 2/2 phrenic nerve injury

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105
Q

what is the test of choice with mediastinal masses

A

CT scan

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106
Q

lights criteria (3)

A

Protein (pleural)/Protein (serum) >0.5\
LDH (p)/LDH(s) >0.6
LDH> two thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH

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107
Q

most common cause of pleural effusion

A

CHF

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108
Q

most common malignancy leading to pleural effusion

A

lung

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109
Q

Dullness to percussion
decreased breath sounds over the effusion
decreased tactile fremitus

A

pleural effusion

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110
Q

blunting of costophrenic angle

sign of what on CXR

A

pleural effusion

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111
Q

at least what volume of fluid can accumulate before pleural effusion can be detected

A

250ml

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112
Q

when is thoracentesis useful in pleural effusion

A

not obvious etiology

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113
Q

what is the complication associated with thoracentesis

A

PTX

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114
Q

treatment for transudative effusions

A

diuretics and sodium restriction

therapeutic thoracentesis

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115
Q

what is the treatment for exudative pleural effusions

A

treat underlying disease

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116
Q

uncomplicated parapneumonic effusions

A

ABX alone

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117
Q

complicated effusions parapneumonic

A

chest tube
intrapleural injection of thrombolytics if loculated
potential surgical lysis of adhesions

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118
Q

exudative pleural effusions if left untreated can lead to

A

empyema

119
Q

most cases of empyema occur secondary to

A

bacterial PNA

120
Q

two recommended tests for empyema

A

CXR and CT

121
Q

treatment for empyema

A

ABX and thoracentesis

122
Q

if empyema is severe and persistent regardless of drainage and ABX what can be done

A

rib resection and drainage open

123
Q

air in the normally airless pleural space

A

PTX

124
Q

two major categories of pneumothorax

A

spontaneous and traumatic pneumothoraces

125
Q

traumatic pneumothoraces are most commonly 2/2

A

iatrogenic

126
Q

primary spontaneous pneumothoraces are usually secondary to what cause

A

subpleural blebs in tall lean young men

127
Q

T/F primary spontaneous pneumothorax has a high recurrence

A

T

128
Q

secondary spontaneous pneumothorax is usually 2/2

A

COPD

or less commonly
asthma
ILD
neoplasms
CF
TB
129
Q
ipsilateral chest pain usually sudden
dyspnea
cough
decreased breath sounds
hyperresonance
decreased or absent tactile fremitus on affected side
mediastinal shift
A

pneumothorax

130
Q

small PTX and patient asymptomatic

A

observation (resolve spontaneously in ~10 days)

131
Q

PTX larger or patient is symptomatic

A

administer supplemental oxygen

needle aspiration or chest tube insertion

132
Q

what is the treatment of secondary spontaneous pneumothorax

A

chest tube drainage

133
Q

accumulation of air within the pleural space suich that tissues surrounding the opening into the pleural cavity act as valves allowing air to enter but not to escape

A

tension pneumothorax

134
Q

accumulation of air in the pleural space and shift of mediastinum to the contralateral side

A

tension PTX

135
Q

mechanical ventilation with barotrauma
CPR
trauma

lead to what type of PTX typically

A

tension PTX

136
Q
hypotension
distended neck veins
shift of trachea
decreased breath sounds on one side
hyperresonance to percussion
A

tension PTX

137
Q

what is the risk with tension PTX

A

hemodynamic compromise and shock

138
Q

what is the immediate treatment for tension PTX

A

needle decompression

139
Q

malignant mesothelioma usually secondary to what exposure

A

asbestos

140
Q

blood effusion common with what malignancy

A

malignant mesothelioma

141
Q

defined as an inflammatory process involving the alveolar wall that can lead to irreversible fibrosis, distortion of lung architecture and impaired gas exchange

A

ILD

142
Q

four environmental lung diseases

A

coal workers pneumoconiosis
silicosis
asbestosis
berylliosis

143
Q

what are the four ILDs associated with granulomas

A

sarcoidosis
histiocytosis X
wegener granulomatosis
churg strauss syndrome

144
Q

alveolar filling disease as ILD (3)

A

goodpastures
idiopathic pulmonary hemosiderosis
alveolar proteinosis

145
Q

ILD hypersensitivity lung diseases (2)

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis

eosinophilic pneumonitis

146
Q

drug induced ILD 2/2 (5)

A
amiodarone
nitrofurantoin
bleomycin
phenytoin
illicit drugs
147
Q

ILD associated with connective tissue disorders (4)

A

rheumatoid arthritis
scleroderma
SLE
mixed connective tissue disease

148
Q

what are the 3 random ILDs

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
cryptogenic organizing pneumonia
radiation pneumonitis

149
Q

digital clubbing is common with what type of ILD

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

150
Q

rales at the base
signf of pulmonary HTN and cyanosis in advanced disease
fatigue
dyspnea cough

A

ILD

151
Q

which diagnostic test shows the extent of fibrosis in ILD better than other tests

A

CT

152
Q

FEV1/FVC ratio
FEV1
FVC
DLCO

in ILD

A

increased
decreased
decreased
decreased

153
Q

if the CT is not diagnostic for ILD what should be done

A

biopsy

154
Q

what are the two disease in ILD that benefit from UA

A

goodpastures and wegeners granulomatosis

155
Q

chronic systemic granulomatous disease characterized by noncaseating granulomas often involving multiple organ systems
african american female
<40years old

A

sarcoidosis

156
Q

erythema nodosum
plaques subcutaneous nodules maculopapular eruptions

in what ILD

A

sarcoidosis

157
Q

anterior uveitis common with what ILD

A

sarcoidosis

158
Q

what are the two main disturbances of the heart associated with sarcoidosis

A

arrhythmias

conduction disturbances such as heart block

159
Q

bell palsy can be seen with what ILD

A

sarcoidosis

160
Q

bilateral hilar adenopathy is the hallmark of this disease

A

sarcoidosis

161
Q

elevated in serum in about 50% to 80% of sarcoidosis patients

A

ACE enzyme

162
Q

hypercalciuria and hypercalcemia are common in what ILD

A

sarcoidosis

163
Q

definitive diagnosis in sarcoidosis

A

transbronchial biopsy

164
Q

what can be found in transbronchial biopsy diagnostic for sarcoidosis

A

noncaseating granulomas

165
Q

what is the least favorable CXR presentation of sarcoidosis

A

diffuse parenchymal infiltrates without hilar adenopathy

166
Q

what is the most common disease course for sarcoidosis

A

resolve within 2 years

167
Q

what is the treatment of choice for sarcoidosis

A

systemic corticosteroids

168
Q
symptomatic patients
active lung disease
pulmonary function deterioration
conduction disturbances
severe skin or eye involvement 

in sarcoidosis

A

systemic corticosteroids

169
Q

used in sarcoidosis with patients that are refractory to systemic corticosteroids

A

methotrexate

170
Q

chronic insterstitial poneumonia caused by abnormal proliferation of histiocytes

A

histiocytosis X

171
Q

what are the three forms of histiocytosis X

A

eosinophilic granulomas
letterer Siwe
Hand Shuller Christian syndrome

172
Q
sponstaneous pneumothorax
lytic bone lesions
diabetes insipidus
CXR shjowing honeycomb appearance
CT scan shows cystic lesions
A

histiocytosis X

173
Q

what is the treatment for histiocytosis X

A

corticosteroids

lung transplant may be necessary

174
Q

characterized as a ILD with necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis

A

wegener granulomatosis

175
Q

lungs
kidneys
upper airway
sometimes other organs with ILD

A

wegener granulomatosis

176
Q

gold standard for diagnosis of wegener granulomatosis

A

tissue biopsy

177
Q

ILD with biopsy positive c-antineutrophilic cytoplasmic antibodies

A

wegener granulomatosis

178
Q

treatment for granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

immunosuppressive agents and glucocorticoids

179
Q

granulomatous vasculitis is seen in patients with asthma

A

churg strauss syndrome

180
Q
pulmonary infiltrates
rash
eosinophilia
systemic vasculitis skin muscle nerve lesions
significant blood eosinophilia
P ANCA +
A

churg strauss

181
Q

what is the treatment for churg strauss

A

systemic glucocorticoids

182
Q

some patients may develop complicated pneumoconiosis characterized by fibrosis 2/2 carbon and silica

A

coal workers pneumoconiosis

183
Q

diffuse interstitial fibrosis of the lung caused by inhalation of asbestos fibers

A

asberstosis

184
Q

increased risk of bronchogenic carcinoma and malignant mesothelioma

A

asbestos

185
Q

CXR showing hazy infilktrates with bilateral linear opacitis and may show pleural plaques

A

asbestosis

186
Q

localized and nodular peribronchial fibrosis

can be acute or chronic

A

silicosis

187
Q

ILD associated with increased risk of TB

mining stone cutting and glass manufacturin

A

silicosis

188
Q
acute disease is a diffuse pneumonitis caused by massive exposure 
lymphocyte proliferation test is usefulk
granulomas
skin lesions
hgypercalcemia
A

berylliosis

189
Q

ILD with presence of serum IgG and IgA to the inhaled antigen is a halmmark finding
acute form has flu like features
CXR during the acute phase shows pulmonary infiltrates

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis

190
Q

fever and peripheral eosinophilia are features
eosinophilic pneumonia may be acute or chronic
CXR showing peripheral pulmonary infiltrates

A

eosinophilic pneumonia

191
Q

autoimmune disease caused by IgG antibodies directed against glomerular and alveolar basement membranes

A

goodpasture syndrome

192
Q

hemorrhagic pneumonitis and glomerulonephritis
ultimate renal failure is a complication of proliferative glomerulonephritis
hemoptysis and dyspnea

A

goodpasture

193
Q

serologic evidence of antiglomerular basement mambrane antibodies

A

goodpastures

194
Q

three treatments for goodpastures

A

corticosteroids
cyclophosphamide
plasmapharesis

195
Q

accumulation of surfactant like protein and phospholipids in the alveoli

A

pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

196
Q

CXR of ground glass appearance with bilateral alveolar infiltrates that resemble bat shape
patients at increased risk of infection and should not be given corticosteroids

A

alveolar proteinosis

197
Q

what are the two treatments for alveolar proteinosis

A

lung lavage and GCSF

198
Q

what tests must be down for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

CXR
open lung biopsy
exclude other ILDs

199
Q

treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

supplemental oxygen
corticosteroids
lung transplant

200
Q

inflammatory lung disease with similar clinical and radiographic features to infectious pneumonia
associated with viral infections medications connective tissue disease but most cases are idiopathic
bilateral patchy infiltrates on CXR

A

cryptogenic organizing pneumonitis

201
Q

what is the treatment for cryptogenic organizing pneumonitis

A

steroids

202
Q
occurs in 5 to 15% of patients who undergo thoracic treatment for lung cancer breast cancer lymphoma or thymoma
low grade fever
cough
chest fullness
dyspnea
pleuritic chest pain
hemoptysis
acute respiratory distress
normal CXR
CT with diffuse infiltrates
A

radiation pneumonitis

203
Q

what is the treatment of choice for radiation pneumonitis

A

corticosteroids

204
Q

CNS causes for respiratory failure

A

drug overdose
stroke
trauma

205
Q

neuromuscular disease associated with respiratory failure

A

MS
GBS
ALS

206
Q

upper airway causes for respiratory failure

A

obstruction
stenosis
spasms
paraylsis

207
Q

thorax and pleura causes for respiratory failure

A

kyphoscoliosis
flail chest
hemothorax

208
Q

cardiovascular system and blood

causes for respiratory failrue

A

CHF
valvular diseases
PE
anemia

209
Q

lower airways and alveoli causes for respiratory failure

A

asthma
copd
PNA
acute respiratory distress syndrome

210
Q

hypoxemic respiratory failure
O2 sat
FiO2

A

<90% despite 60% FiO2

211
Q

what is the major pathophysiologic cause for hypoxemic respiratory failure

A

VQ mismatch

intrapulmonary shunting

212
Q

hypercapnic respiratory failure is 2/2 what two causes

A

decrease in minute ventilation or increase in physiologic dead space

213
Q

caused by a defect in either alveolar ventilation or perfusion
typically leads to hypoxia without hypercapnia
most common mechanism of hypoxemia
responsive to supplemental oxygen

A

V/Q mismatch

214
Q

little or no ventilation in perfused areas
venous blood is shunted into the arterial circulation without being oxygenated represents one end of the spectrum in V/Q mismatch

A

shunting

215
Q

atelectasis or fluid buildup in alveoli, direct right to left intracardiac blood flow in congenital heart diseases
type of respiratory failure

A

shunting

216
Q

sepsis
DKA
hyperthermia
results in what type of respiratory failure

A

hypercapnia

217
Q

this type of lung disease causes hypoxemia without hypercapnia

A

diffusion impairment

218
Q
inability to speak in complete sentences use of accessory muscles of respiration
tachypnea
tachycardia
cyanosis
impaired mentation
A

respiratory failure

219
Q

3 main causes for hypoxemia

A

V/Q mismatch
intrapulmonary shunting
hypoventilation

220
Q

main cause for hypercapnia

A

hypoventilation

221
Q

acid base disturbance with hypercapnia

A

respiratory acidosis

222
Q

why should the lowest concentration of oxygen that provides sufficient oxygentation be used

A

to avoid oxygen toxicity 2/2 oxygen free radicals

223
Q

what is the problem of using O2 in patients with COPD patients

A

can lead to V/Q mismatch, the haldane effect and loss of respiratory drive

224
Q

should be given to a patient that is conscious and has possible impending respiratory failure with administration of oxygen

A

NPPV

225
Q

diffuse inflammatory process involving both lungs

neutrophil activation in the systemic of pulmonary circulations is the primary mechanism

A

ARDS

226
Q

acute onset
bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging
pulmonary edema not explained by fluid overload or CHD
PaO2/FiO2<300

A

ARDS

227
Q

key pathophysiologic event in ARDS

A

massive intrapulmonary shunting of blood

228
Q

why is high PEEP required in ARDS

A

prop open the airways

229
Q

what is the difference between ARDS and severe cardiogenic pulmonary edema

A

cause for edema
in ARDS it is an increase of pulmonary capillary permeability
in cardiogenic pulmonary edema the increase in pulmonary hydrostatic pressure

230
Q

what is the most common risk factor for ARDS

A

sepsis

231
Q

GI risk for ARDS

A

aspiration of GERD

232
Q

dyspnea
tachypnea
tachycardia increased work of breathing
progressive hypoxemia

A

ARDS

233
Q

most useful parameter in differentiating ARDS from cardiogenic pulmonary edema

A

PCWP

234
Q

if PCWP is low and there is an enormous pulmonary infiltrate

A

ARDS

235
Q

if PCWP is greater tyhan 18 and massive pulmonary infiltrates

A

cardiogenic pulmonary edema

236
Q

O2 saturation should be kept above what level in treatment of ARDS

A

90%

237
Q

most important aspect of ARDSnet parameters for ventilatory settings in the setting of ARDS

A

high PEEP

low TV

238
Q

what is the goal CVP in ARDS

A

4 to 6

239
Q

what type of feeding is preferred to treat ARDS

A

tube feedings

240
Q

what are the two main complications associated with mechanical ventilation

A

barotrauma

nosocomial

241
Q

what are the two main goals of mechanical ventilation in respiratory failure

A

maintain alveolar ventilation

restore hypoxemia

242
Q

test to assess response to initiation of mechanical ventilation

A

ABG

243
Q

initial mode used in most patient with respiratory failure

A

AC

244
Q

use for pressure support

A

weaning trials

245
Q

settings of ventilation that affect minute ventilation

A

RR and TV

246
Q

initial tidal volume typically used in most cases

A

4-8mL/kg

247
Q

normal initial rate set in mech vent

A

10 to 12

248
Q

settings that affect PaO2

A

FiO2

PEEP

249
Q

initial FiO2 setting

A

100 and quickly titrate down

250
Q

what is the normal PEEP

A

5cm H2O

251
Q

all mechanically ventilated patients should be on what medication

A

PPI

252
Q

mean pulmonary arterial pressure greater than 25 mm Hg at rest

A

Pulmonary HTN

253
Q

what are the 5 main reasons for pulmonary HTN

A

passive due to overflow from left heart disease
hyperkinetic due to left to right shunting
obstruction (PE and Pulmonary artery stenosis)
pulmonary vascular obliteration from collagen vascular disease
pulmonary vasoconstriction

254
Q

pulmonary HTN in young woman
thickening of pulmonary arteriolar walls
familial or idiopathic veno occlyussive

A

pulmonary arterial hypertension

255
Q
dyspnea on exertion
fatigue
chest pain
syncope
loud pulmonic component of the second heart sound and subtle lift of sternum,
signs of right heart failure
A

pulmonary artery hypertension

256
Q

ECG in PAH

A

right axis deviation

257
Q

CXR showing enlarged pulmonary artyeries with or without clear lung fields based on the cause of pulmonary hypertension

A

PAH

258
Q

echocardiogram showing dilated pulmonary artery
dilation/hypertrophy of RA and RV
abnormal movement of IV septum

A

PAH

259
Q

Right heart catheterization results of PAH

A

increased pulmonary artery pressure

260
Q

sildenafil
oral CCBs
prostacyclins (epoprostenol)
endothelin receptor antagonists (bosentan)

used in what group of PAH

A

group 1

261
Q

right ventricular hypertrophy with eventual RV failure resulting from pulmonary HTN secondary to pulmonary disease

A

cor pulmonale

262
Q

cor pulmonale most commonly secondary to

A

COPD

263
Q

decrease in execise tolerance
cyanosis and digital clubbing
signs of right ventricular failure hepatomegaly edema JVD
parasternal lift

A

cor pulmonale

264
Q

most common DVTs that embolize to the lungs

A

iliofemoral

265
Q

if a severe acute PE occurred what could occur as a result

A

cor pulmonale

266
Q

what type of pathophysiology leads to the tachypnea associated with PE

A

increase in dead space in increase in hypoxemia and hypercarbia

267
Q

recurrent small sub clinical PE’s can lead to

A

pulmonary arterial hypertension

268
Q

most common symptoms of PE

A

dyspnea

269
Q

most common sign of PE

A

tachypnea

270
Q

T/F ABG levels are diagnostic for PE

A

F (not)

271
Q

what are the CXR levels normally in PE

A

normal

272
Q

what are the two CXR signs that are rarely seen with PE

A

hamptom hymp

westermark sign

273
Q

positive venous duplex warrants what treatment in PE

A

anticoagulation

274
Q

test of choice now in PE

A

CT angiography

275
Q

test that is useful if there is contraindication to CTA

A

VQ scan

276
Q

high probability VQ scan treatment

A

heparin

277
Q

major contraindication for CTA

A

renal insufficiency

278
Q

consider this test when risk of anticoagulation is high testing is equivocal or if the patient is hemodynamically unstable and embolectomy may be required

A

pulmonary angiography

279
Q

when should patients be given anticoagulation if the clinical suspicion is high for PE

A

before testing

280
Q

contraindications to heparin treatment

A

active bleeding
uncontrolled HTN
recent stroke
HIT

281
Q

how long should anticoagulation be continued following acute treatment in PE

A

3-6 months

282
Q

patients with massive PE and hemodynamic instability

A

thrombolytics

283
Q

most common lung involved due to aspiration

A

RIght due to anatomy

284
Q

predisposing factors for aspiration

A
reduced consciousness
alcoholism
extubation
excessive vomiting
tube feeding
anesthesia surgery
neuromuscular disease
esophageal disorders
285
Q

what is the difference mainly between aspiration pneumonia and aspiration pneumonitis

A

aspiration PNA takes days to develop

286
Q

what organisms should be covered in aspiration PNA

A

anaerobics

287
Q

low pulse ox

hypercarbia suspected or to evaluate for acid base abnormalities

A

ABG

288
Q

five top diagnoses that cause hemoptysis

A
bronchitis
lung cancer
TB
bronchiectasis
pneumonia
289
Q

fever night sweats weight loss and hemoptysis

A

TB

290
Q

fevers and chills and history of HIV and hemoptysis

A

PNA or TB

291
Q

risk factors for coagulation and hemoptysis

A

PE

292
Q

acute renal failure or hematuria and hemoptysis

A

goodpasture

293
Q

CXR is normal if there is a significant clinical suspicion for lung carcinoma

A

fiberoptic bronchoscopy