Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE Step 2 CK > Uworld Pass 2 > Flashcards

Uworld Pass 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

ECG signs of hyperkalemia? Treatment?

A

Peaked t waves, PR prolongation and QRS widening, sine wave pattern

Treatment: Calcium infusion, (stabilize the cardiac myocyte)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Infectious mononucleosis complications?

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia due to cross-reactivity of EBV induced antibodies against RBCs and platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fever, headache, increased intracranial pressure in HIV patient? CD4+ count? Exposure risk?

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

CD4+ < 100

Exposure: invasive fungal infection acquired by the inhalation of spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Treatment for condylomata acuminata?

A

Trichloroacetic acid, podophyllin resin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

systolic murmur over the left sternal border that increases with inspiration

A

Tricuspid regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cause of the s4 heart sound?

A

Chronic HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fractional excretion of sodium in prerenal acute kdiney injury?

A

<1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a child has more than 3 episodes of acute otitis media in 6 months, or 4 in 12 months, what actions should be considered?

A

myringotomy with tympanostomy tube placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What areas produce AFP?

A

Fetal yolk sac, liver, GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Diagnostic test for restrictive pericarditis?

A

Echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TTP cause? Treatment?

A

Cause: uncleaved vWF multimers 0< platelet trapping and activation

Tx: plasma exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Role of B12 in cell metabolism?

A

involved in DNA synthesis

deficiency -> defective DNA synthesis -> megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stridor with inspiration and expiration that imrpves with neck extension?

A

Vascular ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Biofeedback purpose

A

Control over physiological reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Thalamus blood supple?

A

Posterior cerebral artery via the thalamogeniculate branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Adenosine uses?

A

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Signs of pheochromocytoma?

A

History of HTN, frequent headaches, severe increase after induction in BO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

uremic pericarditis?

A

BUN > 60, pericardial driction rub, sharp and pleuritic chest pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Signs of Pons infarct

A

Deep coma, total paralysis withinin minutes, pinpoint reactive pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Active marijuana use in breas feeding causes?

A

decreased muscle tone, poor suckling, desation

Long-term - delayed motor development at 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Middle medullary syndrome

A

branch occlusion of thee vertebral and/or anterior spinal artery

contralateral paralysis of the arm and let, contralateral loss of position sense, tongue deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Findings in benign nephrosclerosis? Causes?

A

arteriosclerotic lesions of afferent and efferent renal arterioles, glomerular capillary tufts

Cause: HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Target cells

A

Alpha or beta thalassemia with hypochromic, microcytic RBCs with abnormal morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Neotrophilic pleocytosis

A

bacterial CNS infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cause of anemia of prematurity?

A

Decrease EPO production, short RBC life span, Iatrogenic blood sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What causes diastolic and continuous murmurs?

A

Pathological causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Anti-double stranded DNA

A

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Signs of medial meniscus injury?

A

small joint effusion, crepitus, locking, or catching with ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Post-concussive syndrome

A

headache, confusion, amnesia, difficulty concentrating or with multitasking, vertifo, mood alteration, sleep disturbance, anxiert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

OCD treatment?

A

SSRI, CBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How to correct sodium?

A

measured sodium (mEq/L + 2 mEq/L for every 100mg glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which pregnant woman should receive Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccination?

A

High risk (HIV, sickle cell, prior splenectomy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Strong risk factor for vasospastic angina?

A

Smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Breath holding spell

A

6 months to 6 years

Often occur after some event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Problem is Graves’ disease?

A

Anti-TSH antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most comon cause of warts on the skin?

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Methotrexate MoA

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Costovertebral pain and hematuria post trauma? Work-up?

A

Blunt genitourinary trauma, CT scan of abdomen/pelvis

Work-up: Urinalysis, CT scan (if stable), IV pyelography (if unstable) prior to surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

McCune-Albright Syndrome

A

cafef au lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dusplasia and auonomous endocrine hyperfunction (gonadotropin-independent puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

phenylketouria diagnosis?

A

Newborn screenin (tandem mass spectrometry)

Quantitative amino acid analysis (increased phenylalanine levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Treatment for Bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Doxycycline, erythromycin

Then, initiate retrovirals 2-4 weeks later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

intraductal papilloma

A

Unilateral nipple discharge, no associated mass of lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?

A

helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

First step addressing a patients non-adherence?

A

Empathize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Abx for tooth abscess?

A

Ampillin-sulbactam and clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Most sensitive finding for aortic injury?

A

X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Causes of minimal change disease in adults?

A

NSAIDS< lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Infant contraindications to breast feeding?

A

Galactosemia, inpaired falactose metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Soft, tender uterus?

A

Adenomyosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Effects of craniopharyngioma?

A

Bitemporal vision loss, calcified mass on imaging

Pituitary stalk compression -> diabetes insipidus, growth hormone deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does Mallory hyaline in the liver indicate?

A

Liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Affect of nitrates on the heart

A

systemic vasodilation -> decreases cardiac preload -> reduction in left ventricular end-diastolic and end-systolic volume -> reduction in left centricular systolic wall stress -> angina relief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Clopidogrel MoA

A

antiplatelet agent that prevent platelet activation by blocking adenosine diphophate receptors in platelet surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Causes of medication-induced prolonation of QT interval?

A

fluconazole, moxifloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Complication of heraprin usage?

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

Type 1-presents within 2 days, caused by direct effect of heparin on platelet activation

Type 2- antibodies to platelet factor 3 complexed with herparin (presents 5-10 days post initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

More sensitive test for avascular necrosis?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Fibular foot drop signs?

A

Unilateral foot drop, impaired ankle dorsiflexion, preserved plantar flexion, numbness over dorsal foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

CGG’ expansion disease?

A

Fragile X syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Early-morning cortisol levels is used to deterct?

A

Primary adrenal insuficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Pruritic, ertythematous rash with vesicles and small bullae at the site of exposure

A

type IV hypersensitivity, allergic contact dermatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

digital clubbing and body swelling, associated with pulmonary diseases (CF, malignancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cause of blueberry muffin spots?

A

extramedullary hemotopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who should receive screening for AAA

A

Men 65-75, who have smokes cigarettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency physcial characteristics? Lab findings?

A

Physical exam: doll-like face with rounded cheeks, thin extremities, short stature, and protuberant abdomen

Lab values: hypoglycemia (seizures), lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, hyperlipidemia

AKA- type glycogen storage disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Limited sclerosis antibody?

A

Anticentromere antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Sciatic pain?

A

Radiation to the calf and foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Family history of colonic polyps and osteomas should suspect?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Uveitis is assocated with what HLA?

A

B27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Diagnoing mitral stenosis?

A

X-ray- pulmonary blood flor redistribution to upper lones, dilated pulmonary vessels, flattened left heart border

ECG: “P matrale” broad and notched P waves, atrial tachyarrhythmias, right ventricle hypertrophy

TTE: mitral valve thickening/calcification, decreased mobility, coexisting mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

First steps in managing suspected vericeal hemorrhage?

A

Place 2 large-bore IVs, IV octreotide, Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Treatment for cystic teratoma?

A

Excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

sympathetic ganglion cell tumor, abdominal mass

A

neuroblastomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Intramuscular epinephrine has failed, next step?

A

Intravenous epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Poor prognostic factors in systolic heart failure

A

Resting tachycardia, s3 gallop, low blood pressure, hyponatremia, elevated pro-BNP, renal insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Treatment for Tricyclinc overdose? MoA?

A

intravenous sodium bicarbonate -> sodium load will alleviate depressant action of myocardial sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How does the C. difficile toxin cause diarrhea?

A

penetrate colonic epithelial cells, resulting in apoptosis and the loss of tight junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

How does flattening of the diaphragm cause increased work of breathing?

A

decreasing intrathorasic pressure during inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Initial treatment for meningitis?

A

Ceftriaxone, vancomycin, dexamethoason (+ ampicillin is over 50, immunocompromised)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Most sensitive test to measure B12 deficiency?

A

Methylmalonic acid levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How do nitrates affect coronary blood flow in coronary stenosis?

A

Decrease it due to dilating other vessels (angina)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Risk associated with positive pressure mechanical ventilation in a patient with a flail chest?

A

Lung puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Causes og guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

Campylobacter jejuni, herpes viruses, H. influenza, mycoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Complications from acute otitis media?

A

Conductive hearing loss, mastoiditis, meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Signs of parvo virus in adults?

A

Erythema infectiosum (slappe cheek, fever, nausea)m acute, symmetric arthralgia/arthritis (hands, wrists, knees, feet), transient pure red cell aplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Best treatment for allergic rhinitis?

A

Intranasal corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

First step in management of hyperthyroidism?

A

Beta-blocker (propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Signs of Osteoarthritis?

A

chronic pain, stiffness, bony enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

When should HPV vaccinations be offered?

A

Up until age 26, regardless of sexual activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Treatment for necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Surgical debridement and broad spectrum antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

When does an S4 rount occur in most patients?

A

Acute phase of myocaridla ingarction due to ishcemia induced myocardial dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Dfective collagen production is associated with what disease?

A

Ehler-Danlos syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Lab findings in kawasaki disease

A

Elevated CRP, ESR

leukocytosis with neutrophilia (compared to lymphocytosis in viral infections)

Reactive thrombocytosis

Sterile pyuria on urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Treatment for uremic pericarditis?

A

dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Antidote for opiod intoxication?

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Common causes of necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes (group A strep)

Staphylococcus aureus

Clostridium perfringens

polymicrobial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What monitoring should be done on Beckwith Wiedermann sydrome patients?

A

alpha-fetal protein, serial abdominal ultrasounds every 3 months from birth to four years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Afect of look diuretics on calcium?

A

Increased excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Appearance of hemorrhagic stroke on CT?

A

white, hyperdense regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Management of NSTEMI?

A

Anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Recommendations for sun protection

A

SPF 13-30 or higher, reapplied at least every 2 hours, sun avoidance is best, apply first layer 15-30 minutes prior to exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

When to use palivizumab for infants?

A

Preterm birth <29 weeks

Chronic lung disease of prematurity

hemodynamically significant congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Affect of potassium by furiosemide?

A

enhanced potassium excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Signs of carcinoid

A

Diarrhea (watery), dizziness, flushing ,wheezing (bronchospasm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Fevers associated with malaria?

A

Cyclic in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Pyridoxine deficiency?`

A

Vitamine B6- irratibility, depresion, dermatitis, stomatitis, elevated homocysteine concentration -> venous thromboembolic disease and atherosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How to diffentiate cushing from PCOS?

A

Cushings has increased bruisability, skin atrophy, muscle wasting,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Conditions associated with Fragile X disoder?

A

ADHD, Autism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Insulin in secreted from what cell?

A

Beta cell of the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Defect in marfan syndrome?

A

Fibrillin-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Hemolytic anemia with schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, renal insufficiency, neurologic changes, fever

A

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (ADAMTS13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Klumpke palse

A

claw hand

  • extended wrist, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints, flexed interphalageal joints, absent grasp reflex
  • horner synfrome
  • intact moro and bicepts reflex
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Lab studies for iron defiency?

A

decreased MCV, IRON, Ferritin, iron/TIBC (transferrin)

Increased TIBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How does left-sided colon cancer present?

A

bowel obstruction, constipation, abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Putamen infarct sign?

A

contralateral hemiparesis, hemianesthesia, conjugate gaze deviation (towards lesion)

AKA- Thalamus eyes deviate towards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

torticollis?

A

dystonia of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

bone pain that increases pain that worsens at night, relieved by NSAIDs? Managment?

A

Osteoid osteoma

Managment: NSAIDS (symptomatic) and serial examinations and x-rays every 4-5 months

Refractory cases is surgical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Anterior uveitis signs?

A

Redness around iris, most conjunctiva spared

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Treatment for avascular necrosis?

A

NSAIDs, decreased weight bearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

dark urine after UTI and prussian blue staining on urinalysis?

A

G6PD deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Hirschsprung vs meconium ileus

A

Hirschsprung- Associated with down syndrome, positive squirt sign

Meconium ileus- associated with CG, obstruction is at the ileus, inspissated consistency, negative squirt sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

When do you start rabies prophylaxis?

A

If the animal is unable to be quarantined if a pet or shows signs within 10 days

High risk wild animals- if unable to test, immeidately, if able, pending test results

Livestock, or farm animal- contact public health department

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Lab findings in splenc sequestration crisis in SS patients?

A

Increased retic count, decrease platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Emphysematous cholecystilit

A

gallbladder wall infection due to gas-producing bacteria. Characterized by right upper quadrant pain -> cause ileus (decreased, absent bowel sounds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Fibular neuropathy diagnosis?

A

Electromyography and nerve conduction studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What type of tumor causes acromegaly?

A

somatotroph adenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Gaucher disease

A

Glycocerebroside accumunates in macrophages of the liver, spleen, bone marrow causing pain and cytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Complications associated iwth Beckwith-Wiedenmann syndrome

A

Wilms tumor, Hepatoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Marfans vs homocystinuria?

A

Marfan-aortic root dilation, upward lens dislocation

Homocystinurea-intellectual disability, thrombosis, fair complexion, downward lens dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Cause of atypical glandular cells on Pap

A

cervical or endometrial adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Tital volume?

A

6mL/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Most common pathogens in acute otitis media

A

Strep. pneumoniae

nontypeable H. influenza

Moraxella catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

First step in the management of a immigrant with upper lobe lung opacisty and coughing blood?

A

Isolation, suspected TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Strawberry vs. Cherry Hemangioma?

A

Strawberry- infants

Cherry- increased frequency with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

A

Hyperviscosity syndrome, neuropathy, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, increased IgM, rouleaux formations, >10% cloncal B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Diagnosis for toxic megacolon?

A

Three of the following: fever (>100.4), pulse (120), WBC > 10,500/u:, anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

hypopyon, keratic precipitates “mutton fat”, iris modules

A

anterior uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Direct renin inhibors, effects?

A

natriuses, decreases serum angiotensin II, decreases aldosterone production

eg: aliskiren

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Treatment for tourette disorder?

A

Antipsychotics, alpha-2-adrenergic receptor agonist, behavioral therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Treatment for toxic megacolon?

A

antibiotics, intravenous steroids (IBD-induced)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Defects associated with increased AFP?

A

Open neural tube defects, ventral wall defects, multiple gestations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Amiodarone is used for…

A

Stable and unstable vertricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Signs of selective IgA deficiency?

A

recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infections, normally asymptomatic, anaphylaxis during transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

fever 104-106, teachycarida, hypertension, agitation, lid lag? Treatment?

A

Thyroid storm

Treatment: beta blocker and TSH level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Choanal atresia- diagnosis?

A

failure to pass catheter through nares into oropharynx, confirmed by CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

When is alpha fetal protein measured?

A

15-20 weeks (16-18) ideally, elevations warrant US follow-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What joints does rheumatiod arthritis involve?

A

metacarpophalangeal joints (MCP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

How to antithrobin deficiency normal occuring?

A

DIC, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Contraindicated imaging modalities during pregnancy include

A

CT, intravenous pyelogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

When is chlamydia and gonorrhea routinely screened?

A

All sexually active woman under 25 should be screened annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Clincal findings of mitral stenosis?

A

Dyspnea, orhopnea, hemoptysis, voice horseness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Risks associated with coarctation of the aorta?

A

Heart failure, if the PDA is allowed to close, shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Hemihyperplasia? Associated with?

A

Overgrowth of one side of the body

Associated with Beckwith-Wiedeman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Trimethoprin MoA

A

inhibits dihydrofolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Bulimia nervosa

A

Recurrent episodes of binge eating with compensatory behaviors (vomiting, exercise, etc), with normal body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome

A

Degeneration of the anterior horn cells and cranial motor nuclei

causes “floppy baby”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Effects of DES exposure in utero

A

Clear cell adendocarcinoma of the uterus and cervix

Structural abnormalities of the reproductive tracter (T-shaped uterus, hooded cervix, baginal septae)

pregnancy problems (ectopic pregnancies, pre-term delivery)

Infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Signs of orbital cellulitis?

A

Unilateral, associated with paranasal infection

present with fever, proptosis, restriction of extraocular movements, swollen, red eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Cause of lacunar infarct?

A

Microatheroma formation and lipohyalinosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

paradoxial splitting of S2

A

delayed relaxation of myocardial cells and delayed closure of aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Truncus aateriosus Examination, R-ray findings?

A

Single s2, systolic ejection murmur (increased flow through truncal valve)

Increased pulmonary blood flor, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Vaccinations for patients with HIV

A

Hepatitis B (unless documented immunity)

PCV13, followed 8 weeks later by PPSV23 (again 5 years later and at 65), varicella (CD4+>200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

seronegative spondyloarthritis, aka?

A

Anklyosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Akathesia?

A

sensatio of restlessness that causes frequent movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Neuroblastoma vs wilms tumor

A

Neuroblastoma crosses midline and has systemic symptoms within the first year of life

Wilms does not cross midline, 2-5 years of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Benzotropine treatment? MoA?

A

MoA anticholinergic

Use: extrapryamidal side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Congenital clubfoot findings?

A

Ridit positioning, medial/upward deviation of forefoot and hindfoot, hyper-plantar flexion of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Diagnostic requirements to diagnose acute liver failure

A

Severe acute liver injury, signs of hepatic encephalopathy, synthetic liver dysfunction (INR >/= 1,5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Most common inherited thrombophilias in white people? MoA

A

Factor V leiden, activated protein C resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Leflunomide side effects

A

Hepatotoxicity, cytopenias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

dissociative identity disorder?

A

2 or more distinct personalities that alternately assume control of the person’s behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

pale follicles, conjuncativitis, tarsal inflammation?

A

Trachoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

When to use adenosine

A

supraventricular tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Signs of MEN2B?

A

medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, marfanoid habitus, mucosal neuromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Focal of CBT?

A

Challenges maladaptive throughts, targets avoidance with behavioral techniques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Management of central precocious puberty?

A

Brain imaging (CT/MRI) and GnRH analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Orbital cellulitis? Most common predisposing factor?

A

Pain with eye movements, proptosis, opthalmoplegia, diplopia

Cause: Bacterial sinusitis (prevalence and location)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Recent period, lower abdominal pain, rebound tenderness in female

A

Ruptured ovarian cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Sign of avascular necrosis in imaging?

A

Cresent sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

First line pharmacotherapy for fibromyalgia?

A

Tricyclic antidepressents

Alternatives are SSRI/SNRI, pregabalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Medial deviation of the forefoot with neutral hindfoot? Treatment?

A

Reassurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Asthma PFT results

A

FEV1 < 80%, FEV1/FVC > 70%, FVC < 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Diagnosis of fibromyalgia, Treatment

A

normal examin, except for trigger point tenderness, lab tests are noraml

Treatment: exercise regimin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Medial medullary syndrome

A

alternative hypflossal hemiplegia, contralateral paralysis or arm and leg, plus deviation of tongue towards lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

WAGR syndrome

A

Wilms tmor, aniridia, geritourinary anomalies, interectualy disability (retardation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Common risk factors for C difficile infections?

A

Recent Abx, advanced age, gastric acid suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Congenital associations with ventricular septal defects?

A

Trisomy 13, 18, 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

LH and FSH in premature ovarian failure

A

FSH > 40, LH >25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How does pernicious anemia lead to increased risk of gastric cancer?

A

antiantibodies decrease functional instrinsic factor -> chronic atrophis gastritis -> increased risk of gastric and carcinoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

supratentorial brain tumor with cystic structures and calcification on imaging

A

craniopharyngiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Binge-eating disorder?

A

recurrent episodes of binge eating without inappropriate compensatory behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Contraindiciation to carboprost?

A

Asthma, causes bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Specificity

A

True negative over true negative plus false positive

identified people without the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Signs of uncomplicated lumbar strain?

A

radiation of pain to the buttocks or posterior thign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Different neurological complaints spaced out in time? CSF findings?

A

MS

CSF- oligoclonal bands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

neonatal tetanus

A

trimus (lockjaw, feeding difficulty), spasms of muscles of mastication, respitatory failure, hypertonicity

**high risk in unvaccinated populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Acute onset of abdominal pain, fever, hematuria, in the setting of nephrotic syndrome

A

Suspect renal vein thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Laboratoy findings in intravascular hemolytic anemia?

A

elevated reticulocyte count, increased LDH, decrease Haptoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Norepinephrine-psychiatric condition?

A

Anxiety, altertness, learning, memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Vaccines safe during pregnancy?

A

Tdap, Rho(d), inactived influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Requirements for EPO therapy?

A

chronic renal failure and hematocrit <30%, after iron deficiency has been rules out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Atropine is used to treat?

A

Sinus bradycardia, AV nodal block

202
Q

well-defined cyst with eggshell calcifications

A

Echinococcus granulosus -> transmitted by dogs

hydatid cysts

203
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis findings?

A

diffuse intracerebral calcifications, severe chorioretinitis

204
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis? Laboratory findings?

A

Symmetric arthritis for at least 6 weeks, (poly >5, oligo <5_

Laboratory findings: elevated inflammatory markers (ESR, CRP), hyperferritemia, hypergammaglobulinemia, thrombocytosis, anemia (most common)

205
Q

Most common cause of prmary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Autoimmune adrenalitis

206
Q

Complications from orbital cellulitis?

A

blindness, subperiosteal abscesses, vacernous sinus thrombosis, intracranial infection, death

207
Q

What happens in megaloblastic anemia if you supplement folate

A

Megaloblastosis regresses, even in the presence of B12 deficiency

208
Q

What is lung compliance?

A

Change in volume per change in pressure and is the inverse of elasticity

209
Q

Most common cause of B12 deficiency? Increased risk for?

A

Pernicious anemia, increased risk of developing gastric cancer

210
Q

Signs of methanol poisoning?

A

headache, nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, vision loss, coma

211
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangitis- Diagnosis

A

ANCA: PR3,

Biopsy: skin- leukocytoclastic vasculitis

kidney- pauci-immune GN

lung- franulomatous vasculitis

212
Q

Most common pathogen in people less than 20? Treatment?

A

S. Aureus

Treatment: First time cefepime

Recurrent infections, hospitalization etc: Vancomycin (methcillin resistance)

213
Q

Total anamalous pulmonary venous return with obstruction: Examination, X-ray

A

severe cyanosis, respiratory distress

Pulmonary edema, “snowstorm” sign (enlarged supracardiac veins & SVC

214
Q

Features of glucagonoma?

A

neccrolytic migratory erythema (erythematous papules/plaques on face, perineum, extremtiies -> lesions enlarge over 7-14 days and develop central clearing and blistering, crusting, scaling @ borders

DM-mild, controlled with diet and oral agents (no insulin normally)

weight loss,

neuropsychiatric

Associated with venous thrombosis

215
Q

What type of stones are Chron’s disease patients at increased risk for developing?

A

Oxalate, due to decreased calcium binding (preference for fat binding)

216
Q

Most common primary immune deficiency?

A

IgA

217
Q

Deficiency seen in carcinoid tumor?

A

Niacin (carcinoid cell use the tryptophan, instead of being used to produce niacin)

Late stages will see tryptophan deficiency

218
Q

What does the p-value measure?

A

Random risk, not bias

219
Q

When should an x-ray be ordered for back paiin? MRI? bone scan?

A

X-ray-osteoporosis/compression fractures, malignancy, anklyosing spondylitis

MRI: sensory/motor deficit, Cauda equina syndrome, epidural abscess/infection

Bone scan: needs MRI, but unable to get MRI

220
Q

Initial management for torsades de pointes? AKA?

A

AKA: polymorphic centricular tachycardia

Tx: immediate defibrillation in hemodynamically unstable patients

intraveneous magnesium in conscious, stable patients

221
Q

neurocysticercosis?

A

Taenua solium -> cysts in the brain and muscle

222
Q

Signs of TCA overside?

A

QRS > 100 msex, hyperthermia, dilated pupils, interstinal ileus, urinary retention

223
Q

Signs of infiltrating ductal carcinoma?

A

Breast mass, lymphadenopathy, patholigcal nipple discharge

224
Q

Psychodynamic psychotherapy purpose?

A

Target how past experiences shapes presents situations

225
Q

anti-cardiolipin detects?

A

antiphospholipid syndrome

226
Q

How long after joint replacement do staph and pseudomonas typically present? Signs?

A

3 months

acute pain, fever, leukocytosis, erythema purulent drainage

227
Q

Signs of osteomalacia?

A

bone pain, muscle weakness, muscle cramps, difficulty walking, waddling gain

228
Q

ESRD is a contraindications for what type of anticoagulations?

A

Low molecular weight heparin (enoxaperin) and reiaxoaban -> metabolized by the kidney

229
Q

Treatment for polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Steroids

230
Q

Workup for suspected SLE?

A

Anti-ana

if positive (anti-ds DNA, anti-Smith, anti-U1 rubonucleprotein)

231
Q

Pathological findings of sjogren syndrome? Antibodies?

A

salivary gland biopsy with focal lymphocytic sialoadenitis

Antibodies: anti-Ro (SSA) and anti-La (SSB)

232
Q

Signs of niacine deficiency?

A

Diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia

233
Q

Arachnodactyly is associated with

A

Marfan syndrome

234
Q

Aortic dissection- workup?

A

Initial CT angiography, if hemodynamincally stable (will show intimal flap separating the true and false lumens()

MR angiogrphy-time consuming, requires normal kidney function

Transesophageal echocariography: (Diagnostic in unstable patients)

235
Q

Physical exam findings in necrotizing fasciitis?

A

erythema, swelling, pain out of proportion to physical exam findings

236
Q

Contraindication ot the use of methylergonovine?

A

Hypertension

237
Q

Treatment for “eggshell calcified cyst” ?

A

surgical resection under the cover of albendazole

238
Q

Pathogenesis of exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?

A

mast cell degranulation triggered by the passage of high volumes of dry, cold air

239
Q

Most common cause of neck pain and stiffness?

A

Cervical spondylosis

240
Q

cysticercosis?

A

cysts in the brain and muscle associated with Taenia solium

241
Q

Medication causes of SIADH

A

Carbamazapine, SSRI, NSAIDs

242
Q

What movements increase murmur in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Valsalve (straining phase), abrupt standing, nitroglycerine

243
Q

Most common behavioral risk factor for TB?

A

substance abuse

244
Q

VIPoma findings? Related syndrome?

A

watery diarrhea, hypokalemia

Order abdomainl CT or MRI to locate

Related syndrome: MEN

245
Q

Stool pH in lactase deficiency?

A

Acidic

246
Q

Normal age for urinary incontinence to regress?

A

less than or equal to 5

247
Q

OCP vs OCPD

A

OCPD=preocculation with orderliness and perfectionism and control

OCD-obsessions that cause anciety and result in ritualistic behavior performed to decrease it

248
Q

Most common cyanotic heart disease in the neonatal period? Management?

A

Transposition of the great vessels

Management: Prostaglandins (maintain PDA), and atrial septostomy (if no blood mixing)

249
Q

Tricuspid atresia Examination? X-ray?

A

Single S2, VSD murmur

minimal pulmonary blood flow

250
Q

in a patient with likely PE, what is the first step in managment?

A

Anticoagulation

251
Q

Most sensitive test for gallstones?

A

Ultrasound

252
Q

Non-beta cell tumor findings? Lab findings?

A

hypoglycemia independent of insulin -> produce IGF-II

Supressed insulin, C-peptide

253
Q

Pneumonia vaccination schedule in adults

A

PPS (pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine)23 along: under 65 with chronic cardiac, pulmonary, hepatic disease, diabetes, current smokers, alcoholics

PPS23 and PCV13 *pneumococcal conjugate vaccine” (very high risks)- CSF leaks, cochlear implants, sickle cell disease, asplenia, immunocompromised, chronic kidney disease

>65- PPS13 following by 26 1 year later

254
Q

hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

development of clubbinf and sudden-onset joint arthropathy in a chronic smoker

255
Q

hyperviscosity syndrome

A

diplopia, tinnitus, headdache, dilated/segmented funduscopic exam

256
Q

Fatique, weakness, sclerodactyly, raynaud phenomenon? Antibody?

A

Systemic sclerosis

Antibody- anti-topoisomerase I (SCL-70) abd anti-RNA polymerase III *more specific)

257
Q

Affect of anabolic steroid use and androgens on FSH, LH?

A

Negative feedback

258
Q

Anemia of chronic diseases - lab findings?

A

Normal/decreased MCV, Transferrin

Decreased iron, TIBC

Normal/increased ferritin

259
Q

Norcardia? Treatment?

A

nodular, cavitary lesions in the upper lung lobes, characterized as filamentous gram-positive rods weakly acid-fast

Treamtnet: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

260
Q

Highest association with strokes?

A

Hypertension, both hemorrhagic and ischemic

261
Q

Glomerulosclerosis

A

progressive loss of flomerular capillary surface area with flomerular and peritubular fibrosis

262
Q

Rathke cleft cysts, calcification?

A

No association

263
Q

Iron studies in thalassemia?

A

Markedly decreased MCV

Decreased TIBC

Increased Iron, ferrin

Markedly increased transferrin

264
Q

What is the treatment for Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Methotrexate

if persistent for >6 months either add sulfasalazine or hydroxychloroquine) or replace with TNF inhibitor

NSAIDS are for symptomatic relief

265
Q

Sulfasalazine side effects

A

hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, hemolytic anemia

266
Q

Dacryocystitis

A

iinfection of the lacrimal sac

267
Q

Widened mediastinum of chest radiograph with pericardial effusion, history of hypertension, syncopy, neck pain?

A

Acute aortic dissection (especially ascending aorta)

268
Q

Is serum alkaline phosphatase specific for anything?

A

No

269
Q

Sympathomimetic toxcity

A

Hypertension, hyperthermia, mydriasis

270
Q

Comorbidities associated with muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchenne- Cardiomyopathy, scoliosis

Becker- Cardiomyopathy

Myotonic- Arrhythmias, cataracts, balding, testicular atrophy/infertility

271
Q

HIV patient with multiple ring-enhancing, spherical lesions in the basal ganglia? Treatment?

A

Toxoplasmosis, Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

272
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes associated with Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung?

A

parathyroid hormone-related protein (PTHrP

273
Q

Atrial fibrillation after CABG

A

A fib is common within a few days post CABG. Treat with beta blockers or amiodarone. Should be self limited to less than 24 hours

If longer than 24 hours anticoagulation and elecric cardioversion

274
Q

Diabetes mellitus nephropathy findings?

A

increased extracellular matrix, basement membrane thickening, mesangial expansion, fibrosis

275
Q

Renal disease associated with solid tumors?

A

membranous glomerulopathy

276
Q

Porcelain gallbladder, increased risk for?

A

gallbladder adenocarcinoma

277
Q

Signs of ethylene glycol poisoning?

A

Anion gap acidosis, increased osmolar gap

278
Q

acute onset psychosis, arthralgia, thrombocytopenia, hematuria, proteinuria in female

A

SLE

279
Q

How to manage vasovagal syncopy?

A

reassurance, avoidance of triggers, counter pressure techniques (legs raised, lay down)

280
Q

Screening with familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

yearly colonoscopies and regular screenig for upper GI tract tumors

281
Q

Amiodarone uses?

A

atrial and ventricular tachycardia

282
Q

Pharmacotherapy for monsymptomatic enuresis?

A

Desmopressin, tricyclics (imipramine, amitriptyline desipramine) are second-line

283
Q

Treatment for acute aortic dissection?

A

Pain control (morphine)

Intravenous beta blckers (esmolol)

Sodium nitroprusside (if SBP > 120)

Uregent surgical repair for ascending dissection

284
Q

MRI findings in progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy?

A

None, no mass effects

285
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot: Examination? X-ray

A

Harsh pulmonic stenosis murmur, VDS

x-ray “boot-shaped” heart (right ventricular hypertrophy)

286
Q

inheritance of sickle cell disease?

A

Autosomal recessive

287
Q

What factors decrease murmur in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

sustained hand grip, squatting, passive leg raises

288
Q

WHen to perform pericardiocentesis?

A

Pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade with hemodynamic instability or cardiogenic shock

289
Q

Chromosomal abnormality associated with Beckwith-Wiedermann syndrome

A

11p15, include insulin-like growth factor 2 (similar to insulin)

290
Q

Substernal chest pain in an HIV patient with oral thrust management?

A

3-5 days oral fluconazole
If unresponsive perform esophagoscopy with biopsy, cytology, culture

291
Q

hordeolum

A

abscess located over the upper or lower eyelid

292
Q

What other lab findings can cause hypocalcemia?

A

hypomagnesia, hypoalbuminemia, drugs (bisphosphonates, calcium chelators, phenytoin

293
Q

How to treat uric acid stones?

A

Potassium citrate (alkanization of the urine)

294
Q

Treatment for thyrotoxicosis in infants?

A

Beta-blockers and methimazole

295
Q

Circulating immune complexes that damage the kidney include?

A

SLE, post-streptococcal flomerulonephritis

296
Q

Diagnosis of Parvo?

A

B19IgM in immunocompetent

NAAT B19 DNA for immunocompromised

Previous infection: IgG

Reactivation: NAAT for B19 DNA

297
Q

Methotrexate side effects

A

hepatotoxicity, stomatitis, cytopenias

298
Q

Ulnar nerve syndrome? Most common sitet?

A

Decreased ssensation of the 4th/5th fingers and weak grib due to interosseous mscule of the hand

Common site: entrapment of the medial epicondylar groove

299
Q

Long-term reatment for severe calcium (>14) or symptomatic?

A

bisphosphonates (zoledronic acid)

300
Q

Gonococcal vs Chlamydial conjunctivits

A

Gonococcal- copious exudate and purulence, 2-5 days post delivery, prevented with topical erythromycin

Chlamydial- milder chemosis and eyelid swelling, watery, 5-14 days post delivery (must treat systemically due to risk for pneumonia)

301
Q

Location of MS lesion?

A

perventircular and subpial white matter of the cerebrum ( corpus callosum

302
Q

chronic inflammation of the meibomian gland

A

chalazion

303
Q

Contraindications to anticoagulation

A

active bleeding, hemorrhagic stoke

304
Q

When does mid-forearm entrapment of the ulnar nerve occur?

A

Diabetes patients

305
Q

Clinical features of Phenylketouria?

A

Severe intellectual disability, seizures, musty body odor, hypopigmentation involving skin, hair, eye, brain nuclei

306
Q

Sodium bicarbonate use in apirin overdose?

A

Urine alkalinization

307
Q

glial cell tumors that arise from the ependymal cell lining of the ventricles and spinal cord

A

Ependymomas

308
Q

Cause for the development of gallstones during pregnancy?

A

Estrogen-induced increased in cholesterol secretion7

309
Q
A

Hyperkalemia

310
Q

PCP vs bath salts?

A

bath salts last longer (psychosis, etc)

311
Q

Why do you obtain hepatitis B DNA?

A

chronic hepatitis B to determine candidacy for antiviral therapy or monitor response

312
Q

CHF respiratory findings?

A

hypoxia, hypocapnia, respiratory alkalosis

313
Q

Large difference in O2 saturation between hand and food, decrease capillary refill in lower extremities, left paravertebral interscapular area murmur?

A

Coarctation of the aorta -> increased tunica media thickeing in the aortic arch

314
Q

Diagnosis of osteomalacia?

A

Inc. alk phos, PTH

dec. serum calcium, phosphorus, urinary calcium, 25 OH-D levels

315
Q

Ulceers predisposed by peripheral neuropathy?

A

neglect ulcers on soles of feet

316
Q

Enthesitis

A

tenderness at tendon insertion sites

317
Q

2 year old development language milesstones

A

> 50 wods, understand half, 2 word sentences, turning pages in a book, throwing and kicking balls

318
Q

AIDS patient with EBV DNA present and altered mental status, suspect? MRI finding?

A

CNS primary lymphoma

MRI- weakly ring-enhancing mass that is usually solitary and periventricular

319
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangitis

A

Upper respiratory: sinusitis, saddle-nose deformity,,

Lower respiratory: lung nodules, cavitation

Renal: rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis

Skin: livedo reticularis, nonhealing ulcers

320
Q

Test to diagnose lactose intolerance?

A

Positive hydrogen breath test, characterized by a rise in hydrogen in the breath after the ingestion of lactose indicating carbohydrate metabolism by bacteria

321
Q

Antibodies in celiac disease

A

anti-transflutaminase and anti-endomysial

322
Q

actinomyces

A

cervicofacial disease (nonpainful, chronic mandibular mass)

323
Q

What are late term pregnancies at greatest risk for?

A

Uteroplacental insufficiency

324
Q

Treatment for clubfoot?

A

Series manipulations and casting

325
Q

Signs of cresent glomerulonephritis?

A

autoimmune disorders, AKI (hematuria, HTN)

326
Q

Autoantibodies again acetylcholine recept in postsynaptic membrane?

A

Myasthenia gravis

327
Q

Kidney estimate of hydration level?

A

BUN:Cr >20

328
Q

Management of pituitary adenoma?

A

< 10mm and asymptomatic- no treatment

>10mm of symptomatic - Dopmine agonists (cabergoline or bromocriptine)

Resection if >3cm, or increases while on treatment

329
Q

Complications from acute bacterial meningitis?

A

Hearing loss (most common)

intellectual disability

cerebral palsy

epilepsy

330
Q

What type of infections do cushing sydrome patients have an increased risk for?

A

funal infections (tinea versicolor, onychomycosis

331
Q

Management of shoulder dystocia?

A

Breathe, do not push

Elevate again abdomen (McRoberts position)

Call for help

Apply suprapublic pressure

Enlarge vaginal opening

Maneuver (delivery posterior arm, rotate 180 degrees, etc)
BE CALM!

332
Q

Common bacteria in infective endocarditis from UTI?

A

Enterococci

333
Q

HIV patient with subacute cough, inflammatory upper lung lesion

A

Reactivated TB

334
Q

plonal proliferation of myoloid cells

A

Polycythemia vera

335
Q

pain and redness in the medial cathal region? Organisms?

A

Dacryocystitis

S. aureus, beta-hemolytic strep

336
Q

Associated symptoms with ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Low back pain (improved with exercise), hip and buttock pain, limited chest expansion, enthesitis (tendon insertion inflammation), acute anterior uveitis

337
Q

SIADH laboratory findings

A

Hyponatremia, serum osmolarity <275mOsm/kg (hypotonic

Urine osmolatity >100mOsm/kg

Urine sodium > 40mEq/L

338
Q

Stool is celiac disease?

A

Greasy, foul-smelling

339
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

dyspnea, angina, syncope, anorexia, peripheral edema

Loud P2 on examination

Right heart cath (definitive) will show elevated pulmonary artery systolic pressure

340
Q

uveitis presentation?

A

blurred vision with moderate pain, conjunctival injections and constricted pupils

341
Q

Infection induced bleeding from the kidneys

A

white blood cells and RBC on urinalysis

342
Q

cerebellar vermin, vomiting, headache, ataxia?

A

Medulloblastoma

343
Q

Confirmatory testing for acromegaly?

A

Glucose suppresion test

344
Q

Diagnostic tests for DM type 1?

A

Insulin levels and anti-flutamic acid decardocylase

345
Q

Management of pancreatic cyst with symptoms?

A

Endoscopic drainage

346
Q

Malginant biliary obstruction vs Primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

PBS is AMA positive

347
Q

congnitive and personality changes and focal neurolofical deficits and/or seizures

A

HSV-1

348
Q

Congenital syphillis findings?

A

Rhinorrhea, abnormal long-bone radiographs, desquamating or bullous rash

349
Q

Chronic trachoma infection signs?

A

scarring of eyelids -> inversation of eyelashes -> ulcers -> blindness

350
Q

When is RoGam given?

A

After fetal blood type has been determined (usually after deliver)

351
Q

Contraindications to breast feeding?

A

Active untreated TB

Maternal HIV infection

Herpetic breast lesions

Active varicella infection

Chrmotherapy or radiation therapy

Active substance abuse

352
Q

Signs of growth hormone abuse?

A

Hyperglycemia, sodium retention, hypertension, swollen hands, joint/muscle pain

353
Q

bite cells and heinz bodies? Diagnosis?

A

Glucose-6-phosphata dehydrogenase deficiency

354
Q

Acute bowel ischemia?

A

diminished bowel sounds and severe abdominal pain despite normal physical examination

355
Q

Ovarian cysts late in a period

A

Corpus luteum cyst -> reputure can lead to bleeding when anticoagulated

356
Q

Neonatal botulism

A

weakness, constipation, poor feeding, hypotonia

357
Q

Manifestatios of dermatomyositis?

A

AC block, Gottron papules, heliotrope eruption and myalgias, proximal muscle weakness

358
Q

Risk factors for syrinomyelia?

A

Arnold Chiari malformation, prior spinal cord injuries

359
Q

What type of cancer is sjogren syndrome associated with?

A

non-Hodgkin lymphoma

360
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

muscular rigidity, significant hypertension

361
Q

Examination and x-ray findings for transposition of the great vessels?

A

Single S2 +/- VSD,

“egg-on-a-string” (narrow mediastinum)

362
Q

Signs of osteogenesis inperfecta? Inheritance?

A

Inheritance: Autosomal dominent

Blue sclera, recurrent fractures, hearing loss, dentinogenesis inperfectrs (opalescent blue-grey to yellow-brown discoloration of the dentin shining through the weak enamel

363
Q

Congenital associations with patent ductus arteriorsus?

A

rubella, Char syndrome

364
Q

Proptosis, ophthalmoplegia, chemosis, vision loss

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

365
Q

Hawthorn effect

A

tendency of a study population to affect outcomes because they are aware they are being studied

366
Q

Massive PE is defined as

A

hypotension and/or acute right heart strain (RBBB), distended neck veins

367
Q

Choanal atresia? Associated syndrome?

A

cyanosis affrevated by feeding and releived by crying

nasal malformation caused by posterior nasal passage failing to canalize completely

Associated syndrome: CHARGE

coloboma, heart defects, atresia chonae, retardation of growth/development, genito-urinary anomalies, ear abnormalities/deafness

368
Q

How to confirm cushings disease?

A

24-hour urinary cortisol excretion

late-night alivary cortisol assay

low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

369
Q

Paraneoplastic diseases associated with small cell lung cancer?

A

ACTH production and SIADH

370
Q

Wallenberg syndrome? Cause?

A

Vertifo, nystagmus, ipsilateral face and contralateral trunk and limb sensory loss, hoarseness, horner’s dundrome

Caused by intracranial vertebral artery in the lateral medulla

371
Q

What causes bilateral edema and stasis dermatitis? Early common findings? Late?

A

Lower extremity venous valvular incompetence -> booling venous blood -> increased pressures in postcapillary venules

Early: Xerosis

Late: lipodermatosclerosis, ulcerations

372
Q

hepatic hydrothorax? Treatment?

A

pleural effusion not due to underlying cardiac or pulmonay abnormalities in cirrhotic patients

Results in pleural effusions due to small defects in the diaphragm

Treatment:salt restriction, diuretic administration

373
Q

Management of Stemi

A

Catherization or thrombolysis

374
Q

seborrheic keratosis

A

> 50 years of age

solitary or multiple well-circumscribed hyperpigmented lesions

occur on trunk, face, upper extremities

375
Q

20 weeks pregnant with edema, joint paint, malar rash, HTN, proteinuria, and RBC csts

A

systemic lupus erythematosus flaure

376
Q

Treatment for Absence seizures?

A

First line-Ethosuxamide

Second-line- valproic acid

377
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is associated with which type of lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

378
Q

First lone treatment for lumbosacral radiculopathy?

A

MSAODS amd acetaminophen, recorvery is spontanious no PT needed

379
Q

What level of gastrin is diagnostic for a gastroma?

A

> 1000pg/mL

380
Q

What type of follow-up should be done after bacterial meningitis in children?

A

Hearing test

381
Q

How to treat sinus bradycardia after alternative diagnoses have been rules out?

A

IV atropine 0.5mg volus, repeat every 3-5 minutes

If no response, transcutaneous pacing, or IC dopamine, or IV epinephrine

382
Q

Erb-dechenne palse

A

“waiter’s tip”

  • Upper arm adducted, internally rotated, elbow extended, forearn pronated, wrist and fingers flexed
  • decreased or absent moro reflexes, grasp reflex intact
383
Q

Treatment for exertional heat stroke?

A

rapid cooling (water immersion) fluid resusitation, electrolyte correction, end-organ damage mediation

384
Q

Signs suggestive of portal hypertension?

A

peripheral edema, ascities, hepatomegaly, and/or splenomegaly

385
Q

Treatment for patients with acute low back pain?

A

continue moderate activity, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and/or acetaminophin

386
Q

Signs of infant botulism? Treatment?

A

descending flacid paralysis, constipation, drooling

Treatment: infant: human-derived botulism immune globulin

foodborne: equine-derived botulism

387
Q

Lab findings in polydipsia?

A

hyponatremia, urine osmolatity <100mOsm/kg

388
Q

Congenital rubella findings?

A

cataracts, heart defects (PDA)

389
Q

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

A

Estimate of left ventricular end-diastolic pressure and is elevated in left ventricular systolic and/or diastolic dysfunction

**will show signs of pulmonary edema

390
Q

Poison ivy/oak/sumac plant name

A

Toxicodendron, coagulase-negative staphylococci

391
Q

Sensitivity

A

portion of positiive results over true positive plus false negative (who actually has the disease

392
Q

Treatment for endophthalmitis?

A

intravitreal antibiotic injection or vitrectomy

393
Q

Highest risk populations for developing toxic megocolon as adults?

A

IBD suffers

394
Q

Simvastatom - MoA?

A

inhibiting 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme reductase

395
Q

Signs of lacunar stroke?

A

Pure motor hemiparesis, located in internal capsule

396
Q

What is releared from ventricular myocytes in response to high ventricular filling pressures and wall stress in patients with CHF?

A

proBNP -> active BNP and N-terminal proBNP

397
Q

Next step in managment after cardiorespiratory and spine immobilization?

A

Insert catheter, unless there are obvious contraindications

398
Q

nausea, vomiting, pneumobilia (air in biliary tree), hyperactive bowel sounds? Confirmatory test?

A

gallstone ileus

Confirmation: CT abdomen

399
Q

Diagnosis and treatment for vasospastic angina?

A

Diagnosis: contiguous ST elevation on ECG

Treatment: Calcium channel blocker (dilate coronary arteries), smoking cessation

400
Q

Acute hepatitis B diagnostic tests?

A

HBsAg and anti-HBc

401
Q

Management of minimal red blood per rectum in a perason under 40?

A

anoscopy (if no source identified sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy

402
Q

Recurrent episodes last 20 minutes to several hours of vertigo and sensorneural hearing loss, tinnitus, feeling of fullness in the ear

A

Meniere disease

403
Q

Cause of simple hepatic cyst?

A

Congenital

404
Q

First step in managing hypercalcemia?

A

Repeat measurement, correct for albumin, then PTH measurement

405
Q

Signs of mineralocorticoid production deficiency?

A

Hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia

406
Q

Risk factors for acute otitis media?

A

formula intake, exposure to cigarette smoke, allergic rhinitis, upper respiratory infection

407
Q

Cyanocobalamin

A

Vitamin B12

408
Q

What else can be administered with saline to reduce calcium levels? MoA?

A

Calcitonin

MoA: inhibits osteoclast-mediation bone resorption

409
Q

When should RhoD be administrated?

A

Less than 72 hour after abortion or delivery

410
Q

anemia with iron defieciency, next step in management?

A

Locate source of belleding

411
Q

pin worm, scientific name?

Treatment?

A

Enterobius vermicularis

Treatment: albendazole or pryantel pamoate

412
Q

Risperidone side effects

A

Galactorrhea, orthostasis, metabolic syndrome, extrapryamidal symptoms

413
Q

Pathogenesis of syrinomyelia?

A

CSF drainage from the central canal of the spinal cord is disrupted, leading to a fluid filled cavity that compresses the surrounding tissues

414
Q

Diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease?

A

upper GI endoscope

415
Q

Congenital adrengal hyperplasia signs?

A

ambiguous external genitalia, normal uterus and ovaries, and electrolyte abnormalities (hyponatremia).

416
Q

When to perform breast core biopsy?

A

complicated or complex cysts (echogenic debris, thick septa, solid components)

417
Q

Defect in sickle cell disease, thalassemia?

A

globin chain synthesis impairment

418
Q

Peritonsillar abscess physical exam findings? Treatment?

A

spasms of the jaw (trismus), muffled “hot potato” voice, swelling of peritonsillar tissues with deviation of uvula to contralateral side, pooling of saliva

Treatment: needle aspiration or incision and draining plus Abx

419
Q

aortic dissection that acutely preesnts with worsening pain, hypotension, pulmonary edema? murmur?

A

Aortic valve insufficiency

Early decrescendo diastolic murmur

420
Q

When to use sodium bicarbonaet in metabolic acidosis?

A

pH <

421
Q

What type of murmur is considered benign in adults?

A

midsystolic murmur

422
Q

Eikenella corrodens

A

gram-negative anaerobe that is commonly found in oral flora of humans

423
Q

Who should receive meningococcus vaccinations?

A

All patients 11-18, large groups in close quarters, aplenia, complement deficiency

424
Q

Workup for acromegaly

A
  1. IGF-I level (if high) -> oral glucose suppression test (if inadequate) -> MRI of brain
425
Q

Intubation is met with bright red blood, over 600mL or 100mL/hour?

A

Bronchoscopy to determine cause and treat

426
Q

immune-mediated glomerulonephritis, urinalysis findings?

A

RBC casts and hematuria

427
Q

Ebstein-barr virus? amoxicillin result?

A

Fatigue, exudative pharyngitis, posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

Amoxicillin leads to maculopapular rash that developed more than 24 hours after dosing

428
Q

Dense intramembranous deposits that stain for C3 is a characteristic microscopic finding for? MoA?

A

Membranoproliferative flomerulonephritis, type 2 (dense deposit disease)

Caysed by IgG antibodies (c3 nephritis factor) directed against C3 convertase of the alternative complement pathway -> persisent activation and kidney damage)

429
Q

Risk associated with hydatid cyst aspiration?

A

Anaphylaxis

430
Q

trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Unilateral intermittent stabbing pain, located near the ear, radiating down the jaw, lasting several seconds, tiggered by minor stumili

431
Q

EPO side effectsq

A
  1. HTN-more common in IV route (most common)
  2. headaches
  3. Flu-like syndrome
  4. Red cell aplasia
432
Q

Characteristic x-ray findings for osteomalacia?

A

pseudofractures (looser zones)

433
Q

Molluscum contagiosum is caused by? Transmission?

A

Poxvirus

Transmission: fomites, skin-to-skin

434
Q

Signs of sjorgren syndrome

A

sicca syndome (dryness of musous membranes -> increased dental cavities), dyspareunia (painful sex), raynaud phenomenon, cutaneous vasculitis

435
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

defective mineralization of organic bone matrix

436
Q

Enteroclysis

A

Diagnose small bowel tumors and other pathology

437
Q

Antibodies again presynaptic voltage gated calcium channels?

A

Lambert-Eaton

438
Q

When should adult receive TdaP

A

One time in place of Td as an adult

439
Q

Systemic effects of PCP?

A

SIADH

440
Q

Manfestations of esophageal rupture?

A

pneumomediastinum and pleural effusions

441
Q

painful red eye and ulcerations of the cornea

A

contact lens-association keratitis due to pseudomonal and serratia

442
Q

Why does TB prefer the upper lobes for reactivation?

A

high oxygen tension, slower lympatic elimination

443
Q

Causes of fetal growth restrictions in the first trimester?

A

Chomosomal anomalies, congenital infection

444
Q

Treatment for Trachoma?

A

Azithromycin

445
Q

infectious mononucleosis presentation?

A

Prolonged fever, sore throat, malaise, jaundice

physical exam: erthematous tonsils with exudates, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy

446
Q

Heinz bodies, bite cells?

A

Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

447
Q

Ischemia cholitis- colonoscopy findings?

A

cyanotic mucosa, hemorrhagic ulcerations

448
Q

Cause of the hepatojugular reflux?

A

failing right ventricle that cannot accommodate increase in venous return

449
Q

Intraparenchymas brain hemorrhage?

A

sudden, focal neurological deficits that worsen over minutes to hours

450
Q

Diagnosis of Glucogonoma?

A

hyperglycemia with elevated glucogon (>500)

mornocytic, normochrominc anemia

Abdominal imaging to localize lesion

451
Q

Hydroxychloroquine side efects

A

retinopathy

452
Q

17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency

A

low estrogen levels, mineralcorticoid exress (hypertension, hypokalemia)

453
Q

When is cytoscope indivated?

A

Gross hematuria without evidence of glomerular disease

microscopic hematuria without evidence of glomerular disease or infection, but increased risk of malignancy

obstructive symptoms suggestive of stricture

irritative symptoms without urinary infection

abnormal bladder imaging or urine cytology

454
Q

Environment for Taenia solium?

A

third world pig farmers

455
Q

Medical management of children with daytime incontinence?

A

Desmopressin with oxybutynin

456
Q

Signs of B12 deficiency

A

Loss of proprioception, vibration sense, mostly in lower extremities, memory deficits, irritability, dementia

457
Q

Thyroid storm vs pheo

A

Thyroid is more acute, with increased body temperature

458
Q

Treatment for acute otitis media?

A

Oral amoxcillin, amoxicillin-clavulanic acid

459
Q

Treatment for catatonia?

A

Benzos, ETC

460
Q

Signs of congenital hypothyroidism?

A

macrosomia, hypoglycemia

461
Q

Adverse side effects of carbamazepine?

A

Leukopenia and aplastic anemia

462
Q

High risk population for kawasake disease?

A

East Asia

463
Q

Order of cardiac defects in turner’s syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of the aorta, aortic root dilation

464
Q

Common genetic associations with mitral valve prolapse?

A

Marfan, Ehlers-Danlos, osteogenesis imperfecta

465
Q

Cormorbidities with Tourettes?

A

ADHD, OCD

466
Q

Stridor is worse during what in laryngomalacia?

A

Inspiration

467
Q

Lobes affected in aspiration pneumonia?

A

Lower lung lobes

468
Q

Sle with nephritis vs preexxlampsia?

A

SLE has joint pain, malar rash, RBC casts are not present with preecclampsia

469
Q

Chest x-ray findings for granulomatosis with pokyangitis?

A

Pulmonary nodules with alveolar consolidation and necrotizing pulmonary vasculitis

470
Q

Clincal findings in congenital cytomegalocirus infections?

A

periventricular calcifications

471
Q

FDA approved medication for the treatment of tourettes?

A

First generation- haloperidol, pimozole

Second-risperidone

Beta-2-agonists: clonidine, guanfacine

472
Q

Diagnosis of Wilson’s disease?

A

Ceruloplasmin level and slit lamp examination

473
Q

Presentation of post-streptococcal glormerulonephritis? Low levels of?

A

10-20 days post streptococcal throat or skin infection

peiorbital swelling, hemoturia, oliguria, hypertensive, RBC casts

Have low levels of serum c2 complement

474
Q

Signs of complciated small bowel obstruction?

A

Fever, hemodynamic instabilityy, metabolic acidosis

475
Q

Hemolytic anemia, jauntice, splenomegaly , spherocytes, with family history of infants with blood transfusion? Lab findings?

A

Hereditary spherocytisis, caused by spectrin deficiency (a membrane protein)

Labs: spherocytes, osmotic fradility on acidified glycerol test (increased), abnormal eosin-5-maleimide binding test

476
Q

Depersonalization

A

intact autobiographic informaiton, but experience repeated chronic feeling of unreality or detachment from ones self

477
Q

CMV treatment?>

A

Fanciclovir

478
Q

Features of chronic primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Weight loss, abdominal pain, fatigue, hyperpigmentation (ACTH from malanocytes due to cortisol deficiency)

Onset is chronic

479
Q

Intense episodes of vertigo triggered by changes in head position?

A

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

480
Q

TNF inhibitors? Side effects

A

aetanercept, adalimumab, certolizumab, golimumab, inhliximab

Side effects: infection, demyelination, CHF, malignancy

481
Q

A 12% increase in which value in a post-broncodilator test is diagnostic for asthma?

A

FEV1

482
Q

What type of infection is lyme disease?

A

Spirochetal infections caused by Borrelia burgdorferi after zoonotic transmission from Ixodes scapularis

483
Q

Drugs to reduce recurrent nephrolithiasis?

A

Thiazide diuretics

potassium citrate/bicard (alkalinization

Allopurinol

484
Q

Whipple disease? Cause? Diagnosit method?

A

history of chronic malabsorptive diarrhea, protein-losing enteropathy, weight loss, migratory non-deforming arthritis, lympadenopathy, low grade fever

caused by vacillus tropheryma whippelii

Diagnosis: small intestinal biopsy showing PAS-positive macrophages in lamina propria containing non-acid-fast gram-positive bacilli

485
Q

Wilson disease, findings?

A

neuropsychiatric disease (tremor, ataxia, rigidity, depression)-caused by Copper deposition in the basal gangilia with liver aggrevation

486
Q

14-3-3 protein

A

Prior disease

487
Q

Signs of Gilbert syndrome? cause?

A

increased unconjugated bilirubin, jaundice

cause: decreased UDP-glucuronosyltransferase activity

488
Q

Toxoplasmosis signs? Imaging?

A

headache, confusion, fever, focal neyrologic deficits, serizures

MRI finds multiple ring-enhancing lesions

489
Q

Carcinoid sndrome

A

Flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm, mostly located in small interstine

490
Q

Vasogenic angina

A

Hyperreactivity of intimal smooth muscle -> intermittent coronary vasospasm

491
Q

Wide and fixed splitting of S2

A

atrial septal defect

492
Q

Medial mid-pontine infarction

A

contralateral ataxia and hemiparesis of the face, trunk, limbs

493
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

A

monoclonal IgM by SPEP (<3g/dL), <10% monoclonal plasma cells, no end organ damage

494
Q

MoA heparin

A

Activated anti-thrombin III -> inactivation of factor II1 (thrombin), factor IXa, Xa

495
Q

Blood smear signs of B12 deficiency?

A

macrocytic anemia, macro-ovalocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils

496
Q

Information bias

A

imperfect assessment of association between the exposure and outcomes as a result of errors in the measurement and outcomes status

497
Q

long-term low-grade fever, abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea, suspect?

A

inflammatory bowel disease

498
Q

Defects associated with decreased maternal serum AFP?

A

Aneuploidies

499
Q

Increased aggression, male pattern baldness, hynoecomastia? Side effects?

A

Anabolic (androgenic) steroid use

Side effects: decreased testicular volume

500
Q

Cause of heinz bodies?

A

hemoglobin becomes oxidized and denatures in G6PD

USMLE Step 2 CK (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions