Medicine Flashcards

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1
Q

Cytochemical features of hairy cell leukemia?

A

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphotase (TRAP)

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2
Q

When should you give an meningococcus vaccine?

A

Travels to Asia

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3
Q

What type of cyst is found in echinococcus granulosus?

A

Hydatid cyst (eggshell calcifications

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4
Q

When should you be tested for HIV is a low-risk population?

A

One time between 15-65 using p24 antigen and antibody testing

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5
Q

What is imipramine?

A

Tricyclic antidepressent

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6
Q

Exertional dyspnea, pounding heart sensation, widened pulse pressure?

A

Aortic regurgitation

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7
Q

What cancer contains reed sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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8
Q

What treatments help pass kidney stones?

A

Hydration, analgesics, alpha blockers

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9
Q

How to evaluate uric acid stones?

A

Ct of the abdomen or intravenous pyelography

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10
Q

How to you manage a patient who does not smoke ad had a small (less than 4mm) nodule on CT?

A

No follow-up imaging

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11
Q

Patient with a sick contact, fever, cough, right lower lobe crackles, and absence of upper respiratory symptoms?

A

Community acquired pneumonia, diagnose with CXR

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12
Q

Signs of non-glomerular hematuria?

A

Blood but no protein

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13
Q

Dietary recommendations for patients with renal calculi are:

A

Increased fluid intake, decreased sodium intake, normal dietary calcium intake

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14
Q

PE rule-out in a hemodynamically unstable individual who cannot undergo CT angio?

A

TTE

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15
Q

empyema

A

collection of pus in a cavity, especially pleural

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16
Q

Urine sodium > 20mEq/L with low serum osmolarity > 300 mOsm/kg

A

SIADH

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17
Q

How does prevalence affect positive predictive value?

A

A population with a high prevalence means a positive test is more likely to be positive, increasing the positive predictive value

Greater the prevalence, the greater the PPB

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18
Q

Order of likelihood for brain mets

A

Lung>breast > unknown primary > melanoma > colon

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19
Q

In RA refractory to Methotrexate, what is next?

A

Add monoclonal antibody, etanercept

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20
Q

Salvage therapy?

A

treatment for a disease when standard treatment fails

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21
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance

A

Presence of serum monoclonal protein of less than3g/L without evidence of anemia, kidney failure, bone disease, or other myeloma-related and end-organ damage

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22
Q

Treatments for uncomplicated cystitis?

A

Nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, fosfomycin, fluoroquinolones, urine culture (only if initial treatment fails)

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23
Q

Treatment for urinary urge incontinence?

A

Pelvic floor exercises -> antimuscarinic therapy if refractory (oxybutynin)

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24
Q

How to manage a patient with a blood smear showing platelet clumping?

A

Repeat platelet count

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25
Q

First line treatment in COPD patient?

A

bronchodilators (ipratropium or tiotropium) that are anti-cholinergic

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26
Q

Effect of malabsorption on calcium levels

A

Inhibits absorption of Vit. D -> low calcium, low phosphate

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27
Q

Treatment for Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Mesalamine (left-sided only), sulfasalazine, balsalazine, olsalazaine

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28
Q

When a patient presents with immediately-threatened limb ischemia, what should be the first step?

A

Heparinize the patient

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29
Q

ulnar nerve syndrome?

A

decreased sensation of 4th and 5th fingers, weak grip due to involvement of interosseous muscles

Most common site is the elbow (medial epicondylar)

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30
Q

dullnes to precussion with increased breath sounds?

A

Consolidated pneumonia

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31
Q

Lab findings in multiple myeloma?

A

Hypercalcemia and anemia, excessive production of a single monocloncal protein

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32
Q

painless, sudden vision loss (or haze)

A

centralretinal vein occlusion

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33
Q

Signs of thyroid storm?

A

Palpitations, weight loss, irregular menses, impaired glycemic control, confusion, agitation, n/v

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34
Q

Inheritance pattern of Hemophilia?

A

X-linked recessive

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35
Q

How do you treat cancer-related anorexia/cachexia syndrome?

A

Progesterone analogs *megestrol acetate)

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36
Q

What is the most common complication of HIT?

A

Additional venous thrombosis

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37
Q

What is the most common trigger for bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma?

A

Aspirin

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38
Q

Risk factors for cholesterol emboli?

A

Comorbid conditions (HLD, HTN, DM type II) Cardiac catheterization

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39
Q

How do nitrates relieve chest pain in angina?

A

Systemic vasodilation and decreased in cardiac preload -> reduction in left ventricular systolic wall stress -> decrease in o2 demands

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40
Q

Side-effect of radioiodine ablation?

A

Worsening of opthalmopahty

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41
Q

Presentation of OA of the hand?

A

Squaring of the first carpometacarpal joint (base of thumb) and DIP and PIP

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42
Q

What can cause decreased serum potassium?

A

Increased beta-adrengergic activity -> stimulates the sodium potassium ATPase pump and the sodium-potassium-2 chloride co-transporter

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43
Q

Signs of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Spherocytes and positive direct antiglobulin test

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44
Q

Why should metformin and NSAIDs be discontinued in treatment for volume depleted sepsis?

A

Nephrotoxins, worsen kidney function Metformin, specifically causes lactic acidosis in AKI and sepsis

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45
Q

What is an s4 heart sound associated with?

A

Long-standing hypertension, comes from a stiff left ventricle (diastolic heart failure)

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46
Q

Cardiac manifestations of TB

A

Pericarditis (fatigue, dyspnea, pericardial knock (early heart sounds after s2)), pericardial calcifications, sharp x, y decents

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47
Q

A person who is treated for Hodgkins lymphoma is at increased risk for?

A

Secondary malignancy

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48
Q

Parallel-group studies

A

One-treatrment to one group

Different treatment to a second

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49
Q

Severe symptoms of hyponatremia (seizures, inability to communicate and/or coma)

A

Bolus of hypertonic saline until symptoms improve, +/- vasopressin receptor antagonists (conivaptan)

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50
Q
A

Shingles infection (herpes zoster)

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51
Q

Yeast with papular, crusting lesion?

A

Histoplasmosis

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52
Q

Treatment for actinomyces?

A

Penicillin, surgery (if severe)

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53
Q

How to manage blood products in a patient who has experiences prior anaphylatic reactions?

A

Wash samples

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54
Q

How to treat an immunosuppressed patient with positive TB skin test?

A

9 months of isoniazid

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55
Q

How to diagnose cushing’s disease?

A

24-hour urine cortisol measurments

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56
Q

“culture-negative” urethritis Diagnosis?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis NAAT on first-catch urine

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57
Q

When should CAD testing not be performed?

A

When they can exercise and have a normal ECG

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58
Q

What test is the most sensitive for diagnosing heart failure?

A

Elevated brain natruretic peptide levels

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59
Q

Prophylactic therapy for a patient with HIV?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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60
Q

How are methemoglobinemia formed?

A

Exposure to oxidation agents (Fe2+-> 3+

Dapsone, nitrates, topical/local anesthetics

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61
Q

Signs of laxative abuse?

A

Hypokalemia with metabolic acidosis (decreased bucarb, which is lost in the GI tract

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62
Q

Treatment for RA?

A

Methotrexate

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63
Q

stevens-Johnson syndrome vs TENS?

A

SJS: <10% of body surface area

TEN >30% of total body surface area

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64
Q

Colloid solutions?

A

Albumin

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65
Q

Most common drugs assoicated with dyspepsia? Alternative tx?

A

NSAIDS, Initiate PPI is unable to stop NSAIDS

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66
Q

Management for epidural spinal cord compression?

A

Emergent MRI, Intravenous glucocorticoids, radiation-oncology and neurosurgy consultation

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67
Q

Confounding errors?

A

If the groups are stratified, there will not longer be any significant difference.

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68
Q

Features of glucogonoma?

A

Necrolytic migratory erythema- face, perineum, extremitiesDMGI- diarrhea, anorexiaWeight loss

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69
Q

What is the treatment for inadequately controlled asthma?

A

Long acting beta agonist

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70
Q

Hypertensive encephalopathy?

A

Severe hypertension with cerebral edema and non-locatizing neurologic symptoms and signs

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71
Q

Where is prophylaxis with with mefloquine, appropriate for malaria?

A

Sub-Saharan Africa, Amazon basic, Souther and Southeast Asia

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72
Q

Initial treatment for the management of severe hypercalcemia?

A

Normal saline infusion to restore intravascular volume immediately, bisphosphonates for long-term management

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73
Q

Bite cells with normal G6PD?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

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74
Q

oligomenorrhea, hirutism, elevated testosterone levels?Tx?

A

Polycystic ovarian syndromeTx: Weight loss and oral estrogen/progestin contraceptives

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75
Q

What is the next step after osteomyelitis is demonstrated?

A

Obtain blood cultures

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76
Q

If a person that HBsAB-positive need treatment after exposure to a hepatitis B patient?

A

No, they are immune

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77
Q

Most common trigger of COPD exacerbation?

A

Upper respiratory infection

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78
Q

Hearing loss with abnormal Rinne test?

A

Otosclerosis

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79
Q

Signs of allergic rhinitis?

A

nasal congestion, clear rhinorrhea, pale, edematous nasal mucosa, nasal creases, pharyngeal cobblestoning

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80
Q

What is the SPIKES protocol for family meetings?

A

Set up situation (privacy, etc)

Assess family perception (“What do you think is going on?”)

Obtain family’s invitation (“How much would you like to know?”)

Give knowledge and information

Use empathic statements

Strategy and summary

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81
Q

Curb-65 croteroa?

A

Confusion, urea >20mg/dL

Respiratory rate >/= 30

Blood pressure (systolic <90, diastolic <60)

Age >/= 65

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82
Q

Treatment for diabetic neuropathy in young patients?Older?

A

Young- amitriptylineOld: Pregabalin

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83
Q

What test should be used to evaluate the presence of a DVT in a low risk patient?

A

D-dimer (Wells criteria)

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84
Q

In patients with a likely PE, when should anticoagulants be given?

Unlikely?

A

Likely- anticoagulation prior to diagnostic testing

Unlikely- diagnostic testing before anticoagulation

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85
Q

Enlarged kidneys, hepatomegaly, and history of rheumatoid arthritis with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Amyloidosis -> glomerular deposits visualized with specialized Congo red staining

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86
Q

What is the effect of high anti diuretic hormone levels?

A

increase dilute urine excretion and loss of sodium

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87
Q

Orthostatic proteinuria

A

Proteinuria is greater standing than lying down Most common in children or young adults Associated with the “nutcracker syndrome”, compression of the left renal vein between the aorta and the SMA

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88
Q

What is the purpose of a negative predictive value?

A

Let’s us know how often a negative result will mean the patient does not have the disease

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89
Q

What differentiated malignant hypertension?

A

Severe hypertension with retinal hemorrhages, exudates, or papilledema

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90
Q

Long-standing smoking, chronic productive cough, recent hemoptysis?

A

Chronic bronchitis

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91
Q

Factitious fever

A

Young woman with irregular fever patterns, track with fever diary

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92
Q

Auer Rods Cancer?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

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93
Q

Signs of infective endocarditis?

A

low-grade fever, generalized weakness, holosystolic murmur, osler nodes

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94
Q

Treatment for restless leg syndrome?

A

1st line: Dopamine

Alternative: alpha-2-delta calcium channel ligands (gabapentin enacarbil)

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95
Q

Drop in platelets in 5-10 days puts a patient at risk for?

A

Arterial thrombosis

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96
Q

Leukomoid reaction

A

high fever, infectious diarrhea, with increased metamyelocytes (late neutrophil precursors and high leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

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97
Q

Common pathogens of brain abscesses?

A

Viridans, s. aureus, gram negative organisms

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98
Q

How to calculate expected compensation in metabolic acidosis?

A

1.5 times bicarb + 8 (+/-2)

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99
Q

Enveloped-shaped calcium oxalate crystals are classically observed in patients with

A

ethylene glycol poisoning, from antifreeze

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100
Q

What medications can cause hyperkalemia?

A

non-selective beta androgenic blockers, potassium=sparing diuretics (triamterene, amiloride), ACT-I, ARBs, NSAIDS

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101
Q

Clinical features of cholesterol emboli?

A

Renal injury, CNS stroke, ocular involvement, livedo reticularis, ulcers, gangrene, blue toe syndome

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102
Q

What is a significant side affect of dihydropyridine ca-channel antagonists like amlodipine?

A

Edema

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103
Q

Tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

Analgessic nephopathy, drug-induced chronic renal failure Presentation: polyuria and sterile pyuria, mild proteinuria Caused by Aspirin and naproxen, and other analgesics

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104
Q
A

Actinic Keratosis

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105
Q

What type of kidney disease in most common in hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Minimal change disease

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106
Q

How to you calculate positive predictive value?

A

Across the row (TP)/(TP+FN)

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107
Q

Most common cause of abnormal hemostasis in patients with CRF?

A

Platelet dysfunction, treated with desmopressin

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108
Q

Facial plethora with normal oxygen saturations and low EPO?

A

Polycythemia Vera

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109
Q

How does long-standing hypertension affect the kidneys?

A

Intimal thickening, and intimal narrowing of renal arterioles with evidence of sclerosis

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110
Q

Direct contact with bone in a diabetic foot ulcer should require what management?

A

Bone biopsy

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111
Q

Signs of hypercalcemia?

A

Weakness, fastrointestinal distress, neuropsychiatric symptoms

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112
Q

When to suspect cardiac sarcoidosis?

A

Young patient (<55) with unexaplained second- or third-degree heart block or when ECG changes occur in a patient with known or suspected systemic sarcoidosis

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113
Q

Treatment for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Avoidance of volume depletion, BBs/CCB, surgery, if persistent symptoms

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114
Q

Signs of cerebellar degeneration?

A

Progressive gait dysfunction, truncal ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor or dysmetria (limb-kinetic tremor when touching a target)

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115
Q

Myositis, fever, subungual splinter hemorrhages, periorbital edema, eosinophilia

A

Trichinellosis

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116
Q

How to do treat BPH?

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitor

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117
Q

What is the appropriate treatment for a needle stick on an HIV patietn?

A

Three drug regimen and serology (for baseline) 2 nucleotide/nucleoside RTI plus integrase strand transfer inhibitor

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118
Q

Biological role of vitamin B12?

A

Formation of thmidylate and purine molecules for DNA

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119
Q

funduscopy with dilated and tortous veins leading to scattered and diffuse hemorrhages

A

central vein embolus

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120
Q

What agents should be used to rapidly lower potassium?

A

Insulin with glucose, beta-2-adrengergic agonists, sodium bicarbonate

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121
Q

Vocal cord dysfunction

A

Commonly mistakes for asthma, however, negative methylcholine challenge Signs: difficulty breathing, wheezing, coughing Diagnosis: Laryngoscopy

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122
Q

Side effect of phenytoin?Treatment?

A

Mild megaloblastic anemia caused by reduction in folic acid levelsTx- folic acid supplementation

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123
Q

Neoadjuvant therapy?

A

Treatment given before the standard therapy

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124
Q

How do ACE inhibitors cause chronic nonproductive cough?

A

metabolism of kinins and substance P inhibition -> kinin causes bronchial irritation

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125
Q

Mild to sever glomerular nephritis with low complement levels and nephritic urinary sediment?

A

Post infectious GN, lupud nephritis, MPGN, mixed cryoglobulinemia associated with hepatitis C

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126
Q

Signs of glucogonoma?

A

Hyperflycemia with elevated glucagon > 500pg/mL

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127
Q

Signs of mixed essential cryoglobulinemia?

A

Palpable purpura, proteinuria, hematuria

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128
Q

If a patient is taking steroids and gets sick, what should happen?

A

Increase dose of hydrocortisone during the intercurrent illnesses to avoid adrenal crisis

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129
Q

Causes of macrocytic anemia?

A

Folate deficiencyB12 deficiencyMyelodysplastic syndromeAcute myeloid leukemiasDrug induced (chemotherapy agents)Liver DxAlcohol abuseHypothyroidism

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130
Q

What is the greatest predisposing factor for stent thrombosis after intracoronary drug-eluting stent placement?

A

Premature discontinuation of antiplatelet therapy

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131
Q

How to treat A fib with RVR?

A

Synchronized cardioversion

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132
Q

Where does selective survival occur?

A

Case-control studies

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133
Q

Babesiosis?

Diagnosis?

Tx?

A

Protozoal illness endemic to northeastern united states,
Often asymptomatic, but shows up in immunocompromised patients or splenectomy patients.

Signs: Anemia and intravascular hemolysisBlood smear (maltese cross)

Tx: atovaquone plus azithromycin or quinine plus clindamycin (severe)

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134
Q

Flank pain, poor urine output and intermittent episodes of high-volume output?

A

Urinary outflow obstruction

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135
Q

Meningitis - CSF findings

A

elevated WBC, protein levels, decrease glucose

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136
Q

Target for treatment o

A
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137
Q

Galactorrhea and signs of secondary amenorrhea, next step?

A

Obain prolactin levels

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138
Q

Laboratory signs of diabetes insipidus?

A

Severe polyuria and mild hypernatremia

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139
Q

Reversal agent for heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

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140
Q

MS stenosis presentation

A

gradual and progressively worsening dyspnea and orthopnea, hoarseness, left atrial enlargement -> elevation of left mainstem bronchus

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141
Q

Ebteroclysis

A

used to diagnose small bowel tumors and other pathology, which can cause intestinal obstruction

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142
Q

Clinical features of malaria?

A

Periodic febrile paroxysms, non specific malaise, headache, nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhea, myalgia, pallor, jaundice, petechiae, hepatosplenomegaly

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143
Q

In a young patient with suspected DM, what should be the first step in management?

A

Check for pancreatic autoantibodies to rule in/out DM type 1

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144
Q

Effects of hypopituitarism?

A

glucocorticoid deficiency, hypogonadism, hypothyroidism

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145
Q

Carcinoid tumors put you at risk for deficiency of what?

A

Niacin (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia)

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146
Q

Physicial manifestations of Hemophilia A & B?

A

delayed/prolonged bleeding after mild traumaHemarthrosis, hemophilic arthropathyIntramuscular hematomasGastrointestinal or genitourinary tract bleeding

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147
Q

Role of large and small fibers in DM?

A

Large- numbness, proprioception, vibrationSmal- pain, paresthesias, allodynia

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148
Q

How does hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage present?

A

Evolves over minutes to hours

Initially presents with focal neurological symptoms -> vomiting, headache, bradycardia (increased intracranial pressure) ->

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149
Q

Bacteria that can cause infective endocarditis?

A

Enterococci, Fungi, S. bovis, coagulase-negative Staph, Strep viridans, S. aureus

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150
Q

How does multiple myeloma cause infections? Most common types?

A

Impairs normal lymphocyte populations -> ineffective antibody production and hypogammaglobulinemia Respiratory (streptococcal pneumonia) and UTI

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151
Q

In a younger patient presenting with osteoporosis, what should be the first step in workup?

A

Find an underlying cause.

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152
Q

Treatment for fibromyalgia with or without depression?

A

Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibtors (duloxetine, milnacipran

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153
Q

Without a clear provoking factors, what procedures should be conducted?

A

Age-appropriate cancer screening and CXR

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154
Q

Osmolarity formula?

A

2 x [Na] + glucose/18 + BUN/2.8

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155
Q

How does the body respond to decompensated heart failure?

A

Activates the Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system -> constriction of efferent renal arterioles -> increased intraglomerular pressure to maintain GFR rate

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156
Q

High-output heart failure

A

Cardiac output is higher than normal -> circulatory overload -> pulmonay edema (secondary to elevated diastolic pressure in left ventricle

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157
Q

What is uremic pericarditis?

A

retrosternal chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward, pericardial friction rub and renal failure. BUN is normally greater than 60

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158
Q

When is a cystoscopy useful?

A

When hematuria is present in urinalysis

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159
Q

When should you given dental procedure prophylaxis antibiotics?

A
  1. Prosthetic cardiac valves 2. History of prior infective endocarditis 3. Unrepaired congenital heart disease for 6 months following repair 4. Repaired congenital heart disease with residual defects or abnormalities 5. Cardiac transplantation recipients with cardiac valvulopathy
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160
Q

What defines a complicated pleural effusion?

A
  1. pH less than 7.2 2. pleural effusion glucose less than 60 3. lactate dehydrogenase > 1000 4. positive fluid gram stain
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161
Q

How to treat acute cholecystitis?

A

ERCP

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162
Q

Bird fancier’s lung

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis causes by repeated inhalation of antigen -> leads to alveolar irritation Classic sign: haziness over the lower lung fields

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163
Q

Foul-smelling diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue

A

Steatorrhea and malabsorption

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164
Q

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?

A

Presents like OA, but with atypical joints (hands)

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165
Q

How does trimethyprim cause hyperkalemia?

A

Blocks sodium channels in the epithelial sodium channel in the collecting tubule

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166
Q

How does primary polydipsia present osmolarity?

A

serum osmolarity less than 290, urine osmolarity less than 100

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167
Q

Malaria phases:

A

Cold- chills shivering, hot- fever, sweating

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168
Q

Which type of arrhythmia is most specific for digoxin toxicity?

A

Atrial tachycardia with AV block

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169
Q

How does pregnancy affect thyroid levels?

A

Causes a 30% increase in the first trimester

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170
Q

Normal DLCO and FEV1/FVC less than 70?

A

Chronic bronchitis, asthma

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171
Q

Signs of dominent frontal lobe ischemia?

A

Able to follow commands, but unable to veralize or write properly.

Affect brain pathways to mouth and larynx

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172
Q

Young adult who has a murmur that increases in intensity with the Valsalva?

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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173
Q

What treatment should be used in severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids

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174
Q

How does heat stroke (105F+) cause rhabdomyolysis and organ system damage?

A

Body looses its ability to dissipate heat and leads to destruction of cells

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175
Q

most like cause of a respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis?

A

Aspirin toxicity -> stimulates respiratory center to cause tachypnea and respiratory alkalosis and causes metabolic acidosis by increasing the production of lactic acid

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176
Q

How do you treat hypercalcemia due to sarcoidosis?

A

Corticosteroids, which decreases vitamin D3 production

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177
Q

How do you treat antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Indefinately continue warfarin

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178
Q

Signs of cyanide toxicity?

A

altered mental status, lactis acidosis, seizures, coma

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179
Q

Charcot Triad

A

Pain, fever, jaundice

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180
Q

What is leukocyte alkaline phosphatase?

A

An active enzyme found within mature blood cells

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181
Q

Microscopic colitis?

A

chonic watery diarrhea without bleeding

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182
Q

How should suspected BPH be managed?

A

Order kidney ultrasound to rule out obstruction

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183
Q

What drugs should not be used in cocaine abusers?

A

Beta-blockers

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184
Q

What factor contributes to Warfarin necrosis?

A

Protein C (primary) and S deficiency

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185
Q

Prerenal azotemia BUN/Cr

A

>20:1

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186
Q

Sudden painless loss of vision?

Tx?

A

Central retinal artery occlusion d/t occlusion

Tx: Ocular massage and high flow O2

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187
Q

What actions are still present in a patient that is “brain dead”?

A

Deep tendon reflexes

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188
Q

Osteolytic lesions, fractures, hypercalcemia, anemia

A

Multiple myeloma

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189
Q

Aortic dissection that leads to pulmonary congestion?

A

Retrograde extension leads to aortic valve involvement and aortic regurgitation

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190
Q

thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolyutic anemia

A

Thrombotic microangiopathy

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191
Q

What vaccinations should be taken prior to a trip to Ehypt?

A

Hepatitis A, B, typhoid vaccines, polio booster

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192
Q

Where do vagal maneuvers affect the heart?

A

AV node conduction

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193
Q

Selective survival bias

A

case-control studies when cases are selected from the entire disease population instead of just those who are newly diagnosed

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194
Q

How many days after last drink to alcohol withdrawal symptoms peak?

A

12-48 hours

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195
Q

What viruses can cause keratitis in an AIDs patient?

A

Varizella Zoster and herpes simplex

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196
Q

What is the most common cause of medical errors?

A

Communication failures between providers

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197
Q

MoA of HIT?

A

IgG autoantibody that coats the surface of platelets and forms complexes with platelet factor 4 (PF4)

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198
Q

JVD on expiration, wheezing, tachypnea, use of accessory muscles?

A

COPD

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199
Q

Acral lentiginous melanoma

A

Unevenly darkly pigmented patch mostly arises on the palmar, plantar, or subungual surfaces

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200
Q

What type of kidney stones are individuals with Chron’s disease predisposed to developing?

A

Oxalate, due to lack of binding in the gut by calcium

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201
Q

How to treat narrow-QRS complex tachycardia? MoA?

A

Adenosine slows sinus rate, increased AV nodal conduction delay, or transient block in AV node conduction

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202
Q

What are exam findings in aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Delayed rising and diminished carotid pulse (pulsus parvus and tardus) 2.Single and soft second heart sound 3. Mid- to late-peaking systolic murmur
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203
Q

Hawthorne effect?

A

Tendency of a study population to affect the outcome because theey are aware they are being studied

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204
Q

How does cardiogenic shock affect acid/base status?

A

Cells shift to anaerobic metabolism -> accumulation of lactic acid -> metabolic acidosis

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205
Q

Latency period

A

Delay between initial exposure and clinically apparent effects)

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206
Q

anasarca?

A

Extreme, whole body swelling

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207
Q
A

Human papillomarvirus infection

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208
Q

What predisposes an individual to the risk of developing minimal change disease?

A

NSAIDs, lymphoma

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209
Q

Best study for determining the incidence of a disease?

A

Cohort

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210
Q

Painless thyroiditis

A

acute thryotoxicosis with mild thyroid gland enlargement and suppressed TSH

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211
Q

How does renal hypoperfusion cause edema?

A

Activate renin-angiotensin system and causes retention of sodium and water, expanding intervascular volume

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212
Q

How do you manage hypobolemia hypernatremia?

A

Normal 0.9% saline, once resuscitated, switch to D5 (preferred) or 0.45% saline

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213
Q

What can happen is a penetrating injury to an eye?

A

Discovery of “hidden” antigens that the immune system can now recognize and attack, which leads to blindness

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214
Q

How do you treat a complicated pleural effusion?

A

Chest tube to drain

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215
Q

How do you treat single nodule colorectal mets?

A

Regional hepatectomy

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216
Q

How long can it take a person with inadequate dietary intake, intestinal malabsorption, or hepatocellular disease to become vitamin K deficient?

A

7-10 days

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217
Q

Hypotension, tachycardia, distended jugular veins, respiratory variation in systolic blood pressure?

A

Cardiac temponade

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218
Q

When is it appropriate to accept a gift from an external source?

A

Accepting nonmonetary gifts from parties only if the gifts directly benefit patient care and are or small monetary value

(educational materials, drug samples)

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219
Q

Where is blasto located?

A

Midwest, upper midwest, extending to southern Mississippi

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220
Q

How to diagnose idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

MRI +/- MRV, lumber puncture (CSF pressure >250mm H20 with normal analysis)

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221
Q

When is enterococci likely to cause endocarditis?

A

nosocomial UTI

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222
Q

How often should a PAP smear be done in a woman who had a hysterectomy for non-malignant reasons?

A

Discontinue pap smears

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223
Q

When should an HIV infected person stop receiving line attenuated vaccines?

A

CD4+ counts less than 200

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224
Q

Expansile and eccentrically places lytic area in the epiphysis of the distal femur?

A

Giant cell tumor, “Soap bubble” appearance

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225
Q

How to treat chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

A

Serotonin receptor antagonist (5HT)

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226
Q

What affect does COPD have on vital capacity?

A

Decreases it

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227
Q

How to treat a patient with stage III colon cancer s/p hemicolectomy?

A

Adhyvant chemotherapy

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228
Q

How can you confirm proper randomization?

A

Analysis of the patient characteristics

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229
Q

Signs of acute HIV infection?

A

Fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, arthralgiaas, GI symptoms

Painful mucocutaneous ulcerations

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230
Q

What is a common exam finding with aortic regurgitation?

A

Bounding pulses

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231
Q

What vaccines should patients with chronic liver disease receive?

A

Tdap/Td: Tdap once, Td booster every 10 years

Influenza: Annually

Pneumococcal PPSV23 once and PVC13 and PPSC23 at age 65

Hep A: 2 doses 6 months apart (with initial seronegative)

Hep B: 3 doses at 0 months, 1 months, at least 4 months (with initial seronegative)

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232
Q

How to treat a patient with ventricular tachycardia?

A

Placement of an ICD

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233
Q

Three most common causes of chronic dry cough?

A

GERD, postnasal drip, asthma

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234
Q

transient vision loss “a curtain falling down”

A

Retinal embolus from ipsilateral carotid

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235
Q

What STD testing should be conducted on all sexually active woman?

A

HIV, gonorrhea, Chlamydia

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236
Q

Back pain in an individual with Chron’s disease?

A

Enteropathic arthritis

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237
Q

Signs on glomerular hematuria?

A

Blood and protein

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238
Q

What is the first step in evaluating a patient for suspected BHP?

A

Urine analysis, check for PSA

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239
Q

Cardiac manifestations of Trypanosoma cruzi infection?

A

Cardiomegaly, causes systolic and diastolic heart failure

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240
Q

What is the role of heptoglobin?

A

Binds free hemoglobin and promotes its excretion by the reticuloendothelial system

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241
Q

Treatment for narrow complex tachycardia?

A

Supraventricular tachycardia -> immediate synchronized direct cardioversion

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242
Q

What cancer has retinoic acid receptor present?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia, presents with pancytopenia

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243
Q

How to treat a patient with SLE and suspected lupus nephritis?

A

High-dose steroids

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244
Q

Long-term pharmacological management of atrial fib?

A

Metoprolol and warfarin

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245
Q

At what CD4+ count should HIV patients shop receiving inactivated vaccines?

A

They should always receive them

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246
Q

pain along the anteromedial proximal tibia distal to the joint like that worsens walking up stairs and at night

A

Pes anserine bursitis

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247
Q

Signs of lupus

A

Gradual symptom onset, malar or discoid rash, joint, renal, serosal, and neurological involvment Ex: photosensitive skin, thrombocytopenia, glomerulonephritis, RBC casts low c3/c4

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248
Q

How to treat an individual with an intermittent asthma?

A

short-acting bronchodilator

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249
Q

Cordlike thickening breast and bilateral prementstrual tenderness

A

Fibrocystic changes

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250
Q

Low DLCO and FEV1/FVC less than 70%?

A

Emphysema

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251
Q

Diabetic patient with elevated serum creatinine and proteinuria

A

Chronic kidney disease from diabetic hlomerulosclerosis

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252
Q

rapidly progressing bilateral necrotizing retinitis

A

HSV

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253
Q

How do you evaluate a patient with suspected vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

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254
Q

Hemodynamically stable person with high risk of suspected DVT, next step?

A

CT angiogram

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255
Q

papules with indented centers, infection? Where are they not found?

A

Molluscum contagiosum (pox virus),

Not found of palms and soles

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256
Q

How do you manage a patient with ventricular fibrillation arrest in the setting of acute myocardial infarction?

A

Continued medical management for MI. 1 year risk is no greater than normal is this acute setting

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257
Q

CHF development in a young person andpleural effusions, and third heart sound?

A

Coxsackie B virus

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258
Q

Calcium oxalate crystals in the kidney suggests?

A

Ethylene glycol poisoning

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259
Q
A

Dermatitis herpetiformis

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260
Q

Signs of adrenal insufficiency?

A

hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, eosinophilia

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261
Q

How does aortic stenosis present?

A

Decreased exercise tolerance, exertional dyspnea, angina, or syncope

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262
Q

What is a factoral study design?

A

2 or more experimental interventions with 2 or more variables that are studies independently

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263
Q

Elderly male with agitation, tachycardia, and lower abdominal tenderness 2 days following surgery?

A

Acute urinary retention

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264
Q

How to identify drug-induced lung toxicity?

A

Chronic, high eosinophils, fatigue, low-grade fever, cough

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265
Q

Vaginal pessary use?

A

Symptomatic pelvic organ prolapse and stress incontinence when surgery fails/in not an option

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266
Q

Best empiric antibiotic treatment for a native valve in suspected endocarditis?

A

Vancomycin

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267
Q

Sudden onset excruciating left-sided chest pain, tachycardia, dilated pupils, with necrotic nasal mucosa?

Tx?

A

cocaine toxicity

Tx: intravenous diazepam

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268
Q

How should a tick be removed from the skin?

A

Remove the tick with tweezers

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269
Q

When is a CT contraindicated in PE workup?

A

With kidney failure (high creatinine), use ventilation/perfusion scan instead

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270
Q

What drugs have been shown to improve survival rate in patients with heart failure?

A

Beta-blockers, ACE/ARBs, hydralazine and nitrates and spirolactone, and eplerenone

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271
Q

Management of a patient with a new onset breast nodule that was negative on mammorgram?

A

Aspiration or Biospsy

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272
Q

How to treat pituitary apoplexy?

A

Neurosurgery consult and glucocorticosteroids

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273
Q

Blood transfusion reaction that occurs between 1 and 6 hours?How to prevent?

A

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusionLeukoreduction

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274
Q

Symptoms of histoplasmosis infection?

A

fever, chills, malaise, weight loss and cachexia, cough, dyspnea, papules, nodules, reticuloendothelial

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275
Q

Signs of polycythemia vera?

A

Increased hemoglobin, increase leukocytes, increased platelets

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276
Q

G6PD deficiency laboratory signs?

A

Low hemoglobin, increased indirect hemoglobin, increased indirect bilirubin, increased lactate dehydrogenase, decreased haptoglobin

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277
Q
A
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278
Q

Electrolyte abnormality with constipation, increased thirst, anorexia, and easy fallibility?

A

Hypercalcemia

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279
Q

Dyspnea, wheezing, cough with positive bronchodilation response

A

Asthma

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280
Q

cells iwth convoluted nuclei and highly vacuolated cytoplasm?

A

infectious Mononucleosis (EBV)

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281
Q

Lung cancer associated with hypercalcemia?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma, PTHrP secretion

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282
Q

Tracheal narrowing with ulceration

A

characteristic of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

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283
Q

Best tests to diagnose obstructive ureterolithiasis?

A

US or spiral CT without contrast

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284
Q

Hyperkalemia with a normal ECG, next best step?

A

Check for pharmacological causes of hyperkalemia

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285
Q

What is the first step in managing iron deficiency?

A

Determining the cause (Fecal occult blood)

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286
Q

How to calculate anion gap acidosis?

A

Serum sodium - (serum chloride and bicarb) = 14

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287
Q

How do you treat an esophogeal rupture?

A

surgically repair it

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288
Q

Characteristic signs of systemic Blastomycosis infections?

A

ulcerated skin lesion and lytic bone lesions

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289
Q

What pharmacologic treatments should be given to prevent acute arterial occlusion?

A

Apixaban, dabigatran, rivaroxaban, edoxaban

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290
Q

Elderly patient with severe lumphocytosis (>40000) lymphadenopathy, and bicytopenia suggests?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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291
Q

When should you consider pulmonary rehabilitation?

A

COPD and remains symptomatic, or has decreased functional status

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292
Q

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

production of monoclonal IgM antibodieshymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly may be present

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293
Q

Acute treatment for PE or DVT with subtheraputic INR on warfarin?

A

Rivaroxaban

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294
Q

Signs of cerebellar hemisphere infarct?

A

occipital headache, neck stiffness, ipsilateral hemiataxia

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295
Q

How to manage a patient with a PAP result of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance?

A

Refer to colposcopy

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296
Q

How do you control for confounding errors in analysis?

A

Design state: Matching, restriction, randomization

Analysis stage: Stratified analysis, statistical modeling

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297
Q

What can improve survival in a severely septic patients at high risk of death?

A

Activated protein C

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298
Q

How are leukomoid reactions caused by severe infections?

A

Mobilization of mature and immature leukocytes from bone marrow

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299
Q

What is cryptogenic organizing pneumonia?

A

nonsmoker without any normal exposure history has acute to subacute development of nonspecific systemic and respiratory symptoms with a dominant alveolar process on CXR

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300
Q

Alternatives to mefloquine prophylaxis?

A

Atovaquone-proguanil and doxycycline

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301
Q

What medications can cause idiopathic intracranial hypertension?

A

tetracyclines, hypervitaminosis A,

Also associated with overweight woman of childbearing age

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302
Q

How to treat diffuse large B-cell NHL?

A

Abbreviated course of chemotherapy followed by radiation

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303
Q

Malaria: Lab findings, clinical diagnosis

A

Anemia, thrombocytopenia Diagnosis: blood smears

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304
Q

What types of vaccines are safe for people taking TNF-alpha inhibitors?

A

non-live attenuated

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305
Q

What does changing the cut off for a test change?

A

Sensitivity and specitivity

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306
Q

Effect modiciation?

A

external variable positively or negatively impacts the effect of a risk factor on the disease of interest

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307
Q

butterfly appearance with central necrosis on CT/MRI?

A

Glioblastoma multiforme

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308
Q

fatigue, weight gain, erectile dysfunction and hyponatremia suggest?

A

panhypopituitarism

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309
Q

Hard unilateral head and neck lymph nodes in an older patient with smoking history?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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310
Q

What DM medications are weight neutral?

A

DDP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin)

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311
Q

What does a hazard ratio mean?

A

Less than 1 = treatment group had a significantly lower event rate

Greater than 1 = significant higher event rate

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312
Q

Solitary brain met in a patient with good performance status. Treatment?

A

Surgical excision

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313
Q

Signs of elevated pulmonary artery pressure?

A
  1. Loud P2, fixed S2 2. Pulmonic flow murmur 3. tricuspid regurgitation
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314
Q

Patient with malignant throid mass, elevated serum calcitonin, and family hx of thyroid malignancy likely has an inherited form of?

A

MEN2a or 2bRet mutation

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315
Q

Monorrhagia is common in which bleeding disorder?

A

Willebrand disease

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316
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism

A

Mildly elevated serum TSH and normal T3 and T4Do not have clinical signs

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317
Q

Renal findings in multiple myeloma?

A

Bland with granular casts; nephritic disease

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318
Q

Signs of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Periorbital swelling, hematuria, and oliguria, hypertensive, serum c3 complements are low

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319
Q

What DM medications cause weight loos?

A

GLP-1 agonists (exenatide)

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320
Q

What drug is used to treat hairy cell leukemia? Side effects?

A

Cladribine; neurological and kidney damage

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321
Q

How do you treat lung abscess following aspiration?

A

Ampicillin-sulbactram

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322
Q

Antibiotic of choice for Oitis media?

A

Amoxicillin, alternatives: Amoxicillin-clavulanate, cefuroxime, ceftriaxone

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323
Q

Most common cause of acute bronchitis?

A

Viral infection

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324
Q

dullness to percussion with decreased breath sounds?

A

Pleural effusion

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325
Q

Signs of drug-induced interstitial nephritis?

A

Fever, rash, arthralgia, peripheral eosinophilia, hematuria, sterile pyuria and eosinophilurea and WBC casts

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326
Q

Acute radiation proctitis-cause, diagnostic method

A

Patient who receive pelvic radiation exposure and develop diarrhea.Diagnosis is done via flexible sigmoidoscopyLook for mucosal telangiectasia and submucosal fibrosis and arteriole endarteritis

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327
Q

Early diastolic murmur?

A

Aortic regurgitation

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328
Q

Signs of renal cell carcinoma?

A

Flank pain, hematuria, palpable abdominal mass scrotal varicoceles paraneoplastic syndrome

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329
Q

Most common cause of death in dialysis patients?

A

Cardiovascular disease

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330
Q

Concern when a patient with endocarditis develops a new conduction abnormality?

A

Perivalvular abscess

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331
Q

1-day history of swlling aliong the margen of the upper eyelid?

A

Stye, external hordeolum

Staphococcal infection of the eyelid, responds to the application of warm compresses

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332
Q

Gastric Bezoar

A

foreign body resulting from the accumulation of injested material,

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333
Q

How to diagnose CLL?

A

Flow cytometry of peripheral blood

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334
Q

Hemoptysis-definition

A

expectoration of blood originating from the lower respiratory tract

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335
Q

Syndrome with high proteinuria and evidence of edema

A

Nephrotic

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336
Q

Greater than 10 mm Hg drop in systolic blood pressure with inspiration?

A

Cardiac temponade

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337
Q

What type of acinar pattern exists with alpha-1-antitripsin?

A

Panacinar?

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338
Q

Uveitis

A

blurred vision, moderate pain, conjunctival injection and constricted pupils

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339
Q

Symptoms of Anklyosing spondylitis?

A

Low back pain (<40)
Hip and buttocks pain

limited chest expansion and spinal mobility

Enthesitis (inflammation at site of tendon insertion to bone)

systemic symptoms (fever, chills,)

acute anterior uveitis (unilateral pain, photophobia, blurry vision)

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340
Q

What is persistent asthma?

A

Asthma occurring 2 or more times per week or 2 or two or more times a month

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341
Q

Severe headaches at night for weeks/months over time? Treatment

A

Cluster headaches, treat with 100% oxygen

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342
Q

Friable papules and subcutaneous plaques?

A

Bartonella angiomatosis

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343
Q

Cardiac manfestations of sarcoidosis?

A

complete AC block, restrictive cardiomyopathy (early) and dilated cardiomyopathy (late)

Sings: Uveitis

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344
Q

Mediastinal widening, pericardial effusion, neck pain, syncope, HTN history, chest pain

A

Acute aortic dissection

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345
Q

Decrescendo early diastolic murmur when patient is sitting up, leaning forward, and holding the breath at maximum expiration

A

Aortic regurgitation

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346
Q

Common types of selection biases?

A

Ascertainment (sampling): study population differs rom target population

Nonresponse vias: High non-response to surveys/questionnaires

Berkson bias: Disease studies using onl hospital-based patients

Prevalence bias (neyman): exposure that happens long before disease assesment may cause study to miss diseased patients

Attrition bias: significant loss of study participants lost of follow-up

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347
Q

Side effects of thiazide siuretics?

A

Glucose intolerance by impairing insulin release from the pancreas and glucose utilization in the peripheral tissues

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348
Q

How do you calculate the number needed to treat?

A

1/absolute risk reduction

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349
Q

Acute hypophosphatemia signs?

A

Confusion, rhabomyolysis, hemolytic anemia, severe muscle weakness, most commonly seen in alcoholics after glucose administration, which causes uptake of phosphate into cells

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350
Q

Pain, itching, red streaks on an arm that presented in a different location preciously?Next step?

A

Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s syndrome)CT of the abdomen due to association with pancreatic cancer

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351
Q

Episodes of extraocular changes, dysarthria, dysphagia, any symmetrical proximal weakness involving the neck

A

Myasthenia gravis, cause by acetylcholine receptor antibodies at the motor end plate

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352
Q

Signs of TCA oversode?

A

drowsiness, delirium, seizures, prolonged QRS, dry mouth

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353
Q

Where is histoplasmosis found?

A

Mississippi and Ohio river valleys

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354
Q

Ruby-colored papules on lips that blanch partially with pressure?

A

Arteriovenous shunting (Osler-Weber-Syndrome)

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355
Q

Treatment of choice for serious gram-negative, multidrug resistant infections?

A

Aminoglycosides

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356
Q

signs of major depression? Treatment?

A

anhedonia, poor appetite, insomnia, fatigue, difficulties with focus accompanies by memory impairment

Tx: SSRI

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357
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor in breast cancer?

A

TNM staging, followed by ER/PR status, then Her-2/neu oncogene expression

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358
Q

Signs of theophylline toxiity?

A

central nervous system stimulation (headache, insomnia, seizures), GI disturbances (nausea, vomiting), cardiac toxicity (arrhythmia)

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359
Q

Sudden onset of shortness of breast, suspect?

A

Upper airway obstruction, laryngeal edema

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360
Q

hepatic cysts with daughter cysts within?

A

Echinococcosis (dogs and sheep)

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361
Q

Chronic cough that worsens overnight and does not improve with antihistamines?

A

Asthma

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362
Q

Obstructive lung disease FEV1, FVC, FEV1/FVC

A

Fev1-

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363
Q

How do you treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole plus corticosteroids

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364
Q

postoperative endophthalmitis?

A

Within six weeks of surgery Presents with pain and decreased visual acuity, with swollen eyelids, conjunctiva, hypoyon, corneal edema, infection Mostly affects the vitreous

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365
Q

Dengue fever: signs

A

4-7 days post exposure muscle and joint pain, retroorbital pain, rash, leukopenia

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366
Q

What should all patients diagnosed with ITP be tested for?

A

HIV

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367
Q

What type of valve defect in seen with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve

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368
Q

Why is the general population not screening for Syphilis?

A

High rate of false-positives

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369
Q

When is the best time to initiate evaluation of thrombophilia?

A

2-4 weeks following completion of wargarin therapyStops false positives and false negatives

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370
Q

Cholesterol emboli, laboratory findings?

A

Eosinophilia, eosinophilerua, hypocomplementemia

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371
Q

Suspected autoimmune disorder, but treatment with corticosteroids causes rapid deterioration?

A

Think underlying infection

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372
Q

signs on meningococcemia

A

petechial rash that progresses to ecchymosis, bullae, vesicles, and gangrenous necrosis

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373
Q

Pain exacerbated by bladder filling and relieved by voiding

A

Interstitial cystitis

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374
Q

What is the first renal abnormality in diabetes?

A

Glomerular hyper-filtration

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375
Q

Signs of porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Blisters, bullae, scarring, hypopigmentation/hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed skin

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376
Q

Signs of hypercortisolism?

A

Weight gain, psychiatric symptoms, HTN, hyperglycemia

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377
Q

How are p-values and confidence intervals related?

A

p-value of 0.05 is equal to a confidence interval of 95%

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378
Q

hypernatremia with hypokalemia with htn? Diagnostic test?

A

Hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone to plasma renin

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379
Q

After confirming a normal TSH, what is the next step in working up suspected Cushings?

A

24 hour free urine cortisol, salicary cortisol, or low-dose decamethasone suppression 2 must be abnormal

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380
Q

What drugs can increase bleeding risk for a patient on Warfarin?

A

Acetaminophen, NSAIDS, antibiotics, amiodarone,

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381
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with pernicious anemia?

A

B12, megaloblastic anemia

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382
Q

How do you reverse warfarin?

A

Vitamine K (slow) and prothrombin complex concentrate (rapid)

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383
Q

Needle-shaped urinary crystals

A

Uric acid

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384
Q

Transfusion-related acute lung injury

A

Fever, dyspnea, diffuse pulmonary infiltrates and hypocia

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385
Q

Swlliung on the eyelid which has appeared off an on for the past several years

Initially starts as a painful lesion, which regresses with hot compressions, but eventually reappears

Treatment?

A

Chalazion

Tx- Histopathological examination

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386
Q

Physical sign of acute cholecystitis?

A

Pain in the right upper abdominal area, positive Murphey’s sign

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387
Q

Signs of vitamin D toxicity?

A

vomiting, confusion, polyuria, polydipsia

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388
Q

Laboratory findings for lead poisoning

A

microcytic anemia,, basophilic stippling, high lead levels

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389
Q

Where can aspiration pneumonia form when supine?

A

posterior segments of upper lobes and superior segments of lower loabs

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390
Q

Restrictive lung disease FEV1, FVC, Fev1/FVC

A

FEV1- 70% FVC

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391
Q

EKG signs for supraventricular tachycardia?

A

No regular P waves. buried within the QRS complex

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392
Q

When do you see Auer rods? How does it present?

A

Acute myeloid leukemiaPresents with pancytopenia (bleeding or infection) and myeloblasts would be expected

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393
Q

Multiple miscarraiges and DVTs with SLE?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

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394
Q

Treatment for post nasal drip?

A

Chlorpheniramine (1st generation antihistamine)

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395
Q

Intermittent fever, fatigue, new holosystolic murmur and positive blood cultures?

A

Infective endocarditis

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396
Q

Complication of infectious mononucleosis?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia

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397
Q

How are ACEI/ARBS renal protective in diabetic patients?

A

reduces intraglomerular hypertension

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398
Q

Recent URI, dyspnea, elevated JVP, clear lung fields, increased cardiac silhouette on CXR?

A

Cardiac tamponade due to large pericardial effusion

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399
Q

Most common cause of mitral regurgitation in the developed world?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

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400
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia laboratory findings?

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphotase = lowhigh number of myelocytes to melamyelocytesPresence of absolute basophilia

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401
Q

How do you treat severe, community acquired pneumonia?

A

cefotaxime, levofloxacin, and vancomycin

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402
Q

How do you treat diabetic neuropathy?

A

ACE inhibitors and ARBs, however, do not combine an ACE and an ARB

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403
Q

Treatment of a patient that has been exposed to smoke inhalation?

A

100% oxygen with facemask

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404
Q

What does an ANOVA test compare?

A

Means of three of more variables

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405
Q

Electrical alternans with sinus tachycardia is suggestive of? Treatment?

A

Pericardial effusion Pericardiocentesis

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406
Q

How to you treat prostate cancer?

A

Androgen deprivation therapy

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407
Q

Mutations that causes primary polycythemia vera?

A

Jak2 mutation

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408
Q

Cough-variant asthma

A

cough and chest-tightness

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409
Q

How to prevent malaria?

A

Chemoprophylaxis

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410
Q

Thrombocytopenia with thrombus progression 3 days into heparin therapy?

A

Type 2 herarin-induced thrombocytopenia

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411
Q
A

Chalazion

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412
Q

How does cyanide affect tissues?

A

reduces oxygen utilization by tissues by inhibiting cytochrome oxygase a3 in the electron transport chain

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413
Q

edematous external auditory canal with purulent discharge and granulation tissue on the floor? Tx?

A

Maligname (necrotizing) otitis externa (Pneudomonas aeruginosa) treat with intravenous ciprofloxacin

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414
Q

Does aspergillosis affect immunocompetent individuals?

A

Not likely

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415
Q

skin fradility, echymosis, normal laboratory studies

A

Senile purpura - Cause n pericascular connective tissue atrophy

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416
Q

Facial Rash and symmetric oligoarthritis are highly suggestive of?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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417
Q

When should you receive your meningococcal vaccinations?

A

Age 11-12, 19-21 (if not previously vaccinated

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418
Q

Asporin exacerbated respiratory disease?

A

Asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis and broncospasm or nasal congestion following ingestion of aspirin or NSAID

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419
Q

What happens to incidence and prevalence when survival time increases?

A

Incidence remains the same, prevalence increases (more people living with the disease

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420
Q

Lentigo Maligna?

A

Slow growing melanoma seen on the sun-exposed areas of the face

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421
Q

Infection control protocol for N. meningitides?

A

Droplet precautions (face-mask)

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422
Q

Definition of diabetic neuropathy?

A

Hypertension, proteinuria, decline in GFR

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423
Q

IBS - Symptoms and Treatment

A

Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort; marked change in bowel habit for at least 6 months, with syumptoms experience at least 3 days a month for 3 months.Must have 2 of the following:1. Pain relived by a bowel movement2. Onset of pain in related to a change in frequency of stool3. Onser ot pain is related to a change in the appearance of stool Tx- reassurance and high-fiber diet

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424
Q

Milk-alkali syndrome

A

Overconsumption of calcium and absorbable alkali -> hypercalcemia -> renal vasoconstriction and decreased GFR

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425
Q

When should you consider electric cardioversion?

A

Any patient who is unstable with an arrhythmia, other than sinus tachycardia

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426
Q

When do sideroblasts form?

A

When iron is available, but is unable to be incorporated into hemoglobin

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427
Q

When is cystoscopy recommended?

A

Unexplained gross hematuria or with microscopic hematuria with no evidence of glomerular disease or infection

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428
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome is caused by small cell lung cancer?

A

SIADH, decreased sodium

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429
Q

chest pain, dyspnea, asymmetric leg edema, elevated central venous pressure, tachypnea, tachycardia, suspect?

A

Pulmonary Embolism, diagnose with CT angiography

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430
Q

SIADH osmolarity

A

Less than 290 serum, greater than 25mEq/L sodium with greater than 100 mOsm/kg urine

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431
Q

In a low risk patient, what is the size of a “positive” TB test?

For healthcare workers?

Immunocompromised patients?

A

15mm,

10mm,

5mm

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432
Q

How to you manage an adrenal incidentoma?

A

Overnight dexamethasone suppression test, 24-hour urine collection for metanephrines, measurement of plasma renin activity and serum aldosterone levels

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433
Q

How do you pharmacologically treat a patient with heart failure?

A

Beta-blocker and ACE inhibitor

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434
Q

Characteristic microscopic finding for membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type 2?

A

dense intramembranous deposits that stain for C3

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435
Q

Anasarca, pulmonary and facial edema, hypertension, abnormal urinalysis with proteinuria?

A

acute nephritic syndrome

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436
Q

Side effects of rifampin?

A

Red-orange discoloration of body fluids

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437
Q

Leukoreduction

A

reducing the number of transgused leukocytes through filtering or other methods (washing). Reduces changes of HLA allommunization and transmission of CMV

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438
Q

What can be used for DVT prophylaxis?

A

unfractionated heparin, low molecular weight heparin, fondaparinux

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439
Q

Side effects of HCTZ?

A

hypercalcemia, photosensitivity, orthostatic hypotension

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440
Q

Scaly papules or plaques of fair skinned individuals that have high sun exposure?

A

Actinic keratosis

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441
Q

First step in the evaluation of a thyroid nodule > 1cm?

A

TSH levels and U/S

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442
Q

Cause of abnormal hemostasis in CRF?

A

Uremic coagulopathy`

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443
Q

How do you treat polycythemia vera?

A

Aspirin and phlebotomy

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444
Q

Alternative treatment for syphilis?

A

Doxycycline X 14 days (primary and secondary) Doxycycline x 28 days (latent) Ceftriaxone x 14 days (tertiary)

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445
Q

What infections should patients positive for gonorrhoeae also be tested for?

A

HIV, syphilis, Chlamydia, hep B

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446
Q

What is the treatment for toxoplasmosis?

A

zTrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, especially when cd count is less than 100,

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447
Q

low-grade fever and periorbital edema, several days after headache with vomiting and papilledema?

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

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448
Q

Still disease

A

daily (quotidian fever) evanescent salmon-colored rash, arthritis, multisystem involvement, markedly elevated ferritin

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449
Q

Absolute indications for dialysis?

A

Uncontrollable hyperkalemia, uncontrollable hypervolemia, altered mental status, increased somnolence, pericarditis, bleeding due to uremia platelet dysfunction

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450
Q

What does a Chi-square test measure?

A

proportions of categorized outcome. High/Low 2x2 table

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451
Q

Intermittent asthma definition?

A

daytime symptoms less than 2 times per week, nighttime less than/equal to 2 times per month, baseline FEV1 and FEV1/FVC are normal

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452
Q

How to treat complete heart block?

A

Cardiac pacing (pacemaker)

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453
Q

Causes of crystal-induced acute kidney injury?

A

Acyclovir, sulfonamides, methotrexae, ethylene glycol, protease inhibitors

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454
Q

What is required to discontinue life support for a patient that has legally been declared brain dead?

A

Nothing,

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455
Q

You suspect a patient is being abuse after noticing bruising, what is the first step?

A

Ask about the bruises

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456
Q

Treatment for TCA overdose with QRS > 100ms?

A

Sodium bicarbonate therapy
Allows the sodium load to alleviate depressant action on myrcardial sodium channels

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457
Q

How to treat infective endocarditis?

A

IV antibiotics for 4 weeks

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458
Q

First step in screening for thalassemia anemia?

A

Complete blood count

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459
Q

How to manage HIT?

A

Stop heparin and start non-heparin anticoagulation (fondaparinux or argatroban)

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460
Q

Henoch-schonlein purpura

A

purpuric rash predominately affecting distal lower extremities, artritis, abdominal pain, hematuriaskin biopsies reveal leukocytoclastic vasculitis

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461
Q

Nonsmoker with recent URI and persistent cough productive of yellow, blood-tinged sputum?

A

Acute bronchitis

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462
Q

Large amount of blood in the urine, but only 0-1 RBCs? Think?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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463
Q

Thrombolytic therapy drug name?

A

Alteplase (tissue plasminogen activator

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464
Q

Signs of a first degree heart block?

A

PR interval greater than 0.2

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465
Q

Moderate symptoms of hyponatremia (confusion, lethargy) treatment?

A

Hypertonic saline first 3-4 hours

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466
Q

Brownish skin pigment? Disease?

A

Bronze diabetes, hereditary hemochromatosis

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467
Q

What are the exposures associated with smoke inhalation?

A

Carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide

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468
Q

Crystalloids

A

saline solutions

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469
Q

Young person with sudden onset of fever, stiff neck, headache, nausea, and myalgias

A

bacterial meningitis, can develop within several hours of the initial meningitis

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470
Q

Bleeding episodes and severe isolated thrombocytopenia with normal hematocrit and leukocyte count with normal fibrinogen and PT?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia (idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

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471
Q

Signs of lead poisoning?

A

Abdominal pain, constipation, fatique, irritability insomnia, neuropathies, neuropsychiatric disturbances and nephropathy, HTN

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472
Q

Isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or leukopenia?

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

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473
Q

How do you treat chronic stable angina with worsening symptoms?

A

Increase dosage of beta-blocker

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474
Q

How do you prevent ventilatory associated pneumonia?

A

Keep the bed in a semi-erect position

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475
Q

What is the treatment for norcardia?

A

trimethoprim-suldamethoxazole (add carbapenems when the brain in affected for better control

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476
Q

BRBPR and pain with defectation?

A

Anal Fissure

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477
Q

Type of edema caused by hypoalbuminemia?

A

Peripheral

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478
Q

Displaced apical impulse, holosystolic murmur, third heard sound?

A

Mitral regurgitation

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479
Q

How to manage pain in terminal cancer patients?

A
  1. Try non-narcotics first (short-acting morphine is first)2. Do not be afraid to give narcotics3. Prescribe adequate amounts of medication
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480
Q

Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur without radiation to the carotids?

A

Interventricular septal hypertrophy

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481
Q

Prerenal Azotemia

A

autoregulation of kidney flow can no longer maintain GFR Look for nausea, vomiting, anorexia accompanied by relatively low pressure int eh absence of edema

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482
Q

What causes urinary retention in first generation antihistamines?

A

Failure of detrusor muscle contraction, and to a lesser extent impaired bladder sphincter relaxation

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483
Q

What is doxazosin?

A

alpha blocker

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484
Q

Gilbert Syndrome

A

Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, with normal hemoglobin and otherwise normal liver tests in an asymptomatic patient

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485
Q

Signs of an epidural spinal cord compression?

A

lower extremity motor weakness, hyperreflexia, and bladder dysfunction

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486
Q

Workup for hypocalcemia?

A

Recheck-> drug-> PTH-> 25-hydrocy vitamin D levels

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487
Q

Yeast with low grade fever and violaceous skin lesion?

A

Blastomycosis

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488
Q

Treatment for alcohol withdrawals?

A

Benzodiazepines (Chlordiazepoxide)

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489
Q

What anticoagulant can lead to low levels of Protein C and S?

A

Warfarin

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490
Q

Hemophilia laboratory findings?

A

Prolonged aPPT, decreased or absent Factor VIII or IX activity

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491
Q

How to distinguish neuromuscular restrictive disorder from obstructive disorders?

A

FEV1/TLC is larger, low maximal respiratory pressure

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492
Q

Facial plethora and high hemoglobin?Tx?

A

Polycythemia VeraPhlebotomy, may add hydroxyuria in cases with high risk of thrombosis

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493
Q

Late complications of STEMI?

A

Cardiogenic shock, ventricular septal defect, mitral regurgitation, free wall rupture, left ventricular thrombus

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494
Q

Signs of generalized resistance to thyroid hormones?

A

Normal TSH and high T3 and T4 with signs of hypothyroidism

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495
Q

Nephrotic syndrome complex

A

Proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hyperlipidemia, lipiduria

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496
Q

What is the appropriate duration of heparin when using a bridge

A

Minimum 5 days with two IRN measurements >/= 2, 24 hours apart

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497
Q

What should you screen for in patients with hepatitis B?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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498
Q

Heredity hemochromoctoma- risk factors?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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499
Q

What drugs can cause ototoxicity?

A

Aminoglycosides, chemotherapy agents, aspirine, loop diuretics

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500
Q

Associated conditions with Porphyria Cutanea Tarda?

A

Hep C, HIV, EtOH abuse, estrogen use, smoking

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501
Q

a-thalassemia trait characteristics

A

mild anemia, microcytosis, hypochromia, target cells, and normal hemoglobin electrophoresis in adults

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502
Q

Acute radiation proctitis-cause, diagnostic method

A

Patient who receive pelvic radiation exposure and develop diarrhea.

Diagnosis is done via flexible sigmoidoscopy

Look for mucosal telangiectasia and submucosal fibrosis and arteriole endarteritis

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503
Q

IBS - Symptoms and Treatment

A

Recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort; marked change in bowel habit for at least 6 months, with syumptoms experience at least 3 days a month for 3 months.

Must have 2 of the following:

  1. Pain relived by a bowel movement
  2. Onset of pain in related to a change in frequency of stool
  3. Onser ot pain is related to a change in the appearance of stool

Tx- reassurance and high-fiber diet

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504
Q

Gilbert Syndrome

A

Indirect hyperbilirubinemia, with normal hemoglobin and otherwise normal liver tests in an asymptomatic patient

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505
Q

Physical sign of acute cholecystitis?

A

Pain in the right upper abdominal area, positive Murphey’s sign

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506
Q

Charcot Triad

A

Pain, fever, jaundice

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507
Q

How to treat acute cholecystitis?

A

ERCP

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508
Q

Most common drugs assoicated with dyspepsia? Alternative tx?

A

NSAIDS, Initiate PPI is unable to stop NSAIDS

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509
Q

BRBPR and pain with defectation?

A

Anal Fissure

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510
Q

What should you screen for in patients with hepatitis B?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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511
Q

Treatment for Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Mesalamine (left-sided only), sulfasalazine, balsalazine, olsalazaine

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512
Q

Microscopic colitis?

A

chonic watery diarrhea without bleeding

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513
Q

Signs of an epidural spinal cord compression?

A

lower extremity motor weakness, hyperreflexia, and bladder dysfunction

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514
Q

Management for epidural spinal cord compression?

A

Emergent MRI, Intravenous glucocorticoids, radiation-oncology and neurosurgy consultation

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515
Q

Facial plethora and high hemoglobin?

Tx?

A

Polycythemia Vera

Phlebotomy, may add hydroxyuria in cases with high risk of thrombosis

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516
Q

Facial plethora with normal oxygen saturations and low EPO?

A

Polycythemia Vera

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517
Q

Mutations that causes primary polycythemia vera?

A

Jak2 mutation

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518
Q

How do you treat cancer-related anorexia/cachexia syndrome?

A

Progesterone analogs *megestrol acetate)

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519
Q

Lab findings in multiple myeloma?

A

Hypercalcemia and anemia, excessive production of a single monocloncal protein

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520
Q

Renal findings in multiple myeloma?

A

Bland with granular casts; nephritic disease

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521
Q

Signs of vitamin D toxicity?

A

vomiting, confusion, polyuria, polydipsia

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522
Q

Leukomoid reaction

A

high fever, infectious diarrhea, with increased metamyelocytes (late neutrophil precursors and high leukocyte alkaline phosphatase

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523
Q

How are leukomoid reactions caused by severe infections?

A

Mobilization of mature and immature leukocytes from bone marrow

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524
Q

Chronic myeloid leukemia laboratory findings?

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphotase = low

high number of myelocytes to melamyelocytes

Presence of absolute basophilia

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525
Q

What is leukocyte alkaline phosphatase?

A

An active enzyme found within mature blood cells

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526
Q

Without a clear provoking factors, what procedures should be conducted?

A

Age-appropriate cancer screening and CXR

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527
Q

When do you see Auer rods? How does it present?

A

Acute myeloid leukemia

Presents with pancytopenia (bleeding or infection) and myeloblasts would be expected

528
Q

cells iwth convoluted nuclei and highly vacuolated cytoplasm?

A

infectious Mononucleosis (EBV)

529
Q

Signs of lead poisoning?

A

Abdominal pain, constipation, fatique, irritability insomnia, neuropathies, neuropsychiatric disturbances and nephropathy, HTN

530
Q

Laboratory findings for lead poisoning

A

microcytic anemia,, basophilic stippling, high lead levels

531
Q

Physicial manifestations of Hemophilia A & B?

A

delayed/prolonged bleeding after mild trauma

Hemarthrosis, hemophilic arthropathy

Intramuscular hematomas

Gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract bleeding

532
Q

Monorrhagia is common in which bleeding disorder?

A

Willebrand disease

533
Q

Inheritance pattern of Hemophilia?

A

X-linked recessive

534
Q

Hemophilia laboratory findings?

A

Prolonged aPPT, decreased or absent Factor VIII or IX activity

535
Q

How long can it take a person with inadequate dietary intake, intestinal malabsorption, or hepatocellular disease to become vitamin K deficient?

A

7-10 days

536
Q

What is the role of heptoglobin?

A

Binds free hemoglobin and promotes its excretion by the reticuloendothelial system

537
Q

What is the first step in managing iron deficiency?

A

Determining the cause (Fecal occult blood)

538
Q

What drug is used to treat hairy cell leukemia? Side effects?

A

Cladribine; neurological and kidney damage

539
Q

Cytochemical features of hairy cell leukemia?

A

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphotase (TRAP)

540
Q

Facial Rash and symmetric oligoarthritis are highly suggestive of?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

541
Q

Multiple miscarraiges and DVTs with SLE?

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome

542
Q

Brownish skin pigment? Disease?

A

Bronze diabetes, hereditary hemochromatosis

543
Q

Heredity hemochromoctoma- risk factors?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

544
Q

Elderly patient with severe lumphocytosis (>40000) lymphadenopathy, and bicytopenia suggests?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

545
Q

How to diagnose CLL?

A

Flow cytometry of peripheral blood

546
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated with pernicious anemia?

A

B12, megaloblastic anemia

547
Q

Osteolytic lesions, fractures, hypercalcemia, anemia

A

Multiple myeloma

548
Q

How does multiple myeloma cause infections? Most common types?

A

Impairs normal lymphocyte populations -> ineffective antibody production and hypogammaglobulinemia

Respiratory (streptococcal pneumonia) and UTI

549
Q

Isolated thrombocytopenia without anemia or leukopenia?

A

Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

550
Q

What should all patients diagnosed with ITP be tested for?

A

HIV

551
Q

Bleeding episodes and severe isolated thrombocytopenia with normal hematocrit and leukocyte count with normal fibrinogen and PT?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia (idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

552
Q

thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolyutic anemia

A

Thrombotic microangiopathy

553
Q

How to treat chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

A

Serotonin receptor antagonist (5HT)

554
Q

Pain, itching, red streaks on an arm that presented in a different location preciously?

Next step?

A

Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis (Trousseau’s syndrome)

CT of the abdomen due to association with pancreatic cancer

555
Q

Blood transfusion reaction that occurs between 1 and 6 hours?

How to prevent?

A

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion

Leukoreduction

556
Q

Leukoreduction

A

reducing the number of transgused leukocytes through filtering or other methods (washing). Reduces changes of HLA allommunization and transmission of CMV

557
Q

Side effect of phenytoin?

Treatment?

A

Mild megaloblastic anemia caused by reduction in folic acid levels

Tx- folic acid supplementation

558
Q

Salvage therapy?

A

treatment for a disease when standard treatment fails

559
Q

Neoadjuvant therapy?

A

Treatment given before the standard therapy

560
Q

Bite cells with normal G6PD?

A

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency

561
Q

G6PD deficiency laboratory signs?

A

Low hemoglobin, increased indirect hemoglobin, increased indirect bilirubin, increased lactate dehydrogenase, decreased haptoglobin

562
Q

Ruby-colored papules on lips that blanch partially with pressure?

A

Arteriovenous shunting (Osler-Weber-Syndrome)

563
Q

How to manage pain in terminal cancer patients?

A
  1. Try non-narcotics first (short-acting morphine is first)
  2. Do not be afraid to give narcotics
  3. Prescribe adequate amounts of medication
564
Q

First step in screening for thalassemia anemia?

A

Complete blood count

565
Q

What anticoagulant can lead to low levels of Protein C and S?

A

Warfarin

566
Q

How to manage HIT?

A

Stop heparin and start non-heparin anticoagulation (fondaparinux or argatroban)

567
Q

Drop in platelets in 5-10 days puts a patient at risk for?

A

Arterial thrombosis

568
Q

Thrombocytopenia with thrombus progression 3 days into heparin therapy?

A

Type 2 herarin-induced thrombocytopenia

569
Q

MoA of HIT?

A

IgG autoantibody that coats the surface of platelets and forms complexes with platelet factor 4 (PF4)

570
Q

Biological role of vitamin B12?

A

Formation of thmidylate and purine molecules for DNA

571
Q

Expansile and eccentrically places lytic area in the epiphysis of the distal femur?

A

Giant cell tumor, “Soap bubble” appearance

572
Q

Target for treatment o

A
573
Q

What cancer has retinoic acid receptor present?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia, presents with pancytopenia

574
Q

What factor contributes to Warfarin necrosis?

A

Protein C (primary) and S deficiency

575
Q

Acute treatment for PE or DVT with subtheraputic INR on warfarin?

A

Rivaroxaban

576
Q

Causes of macrocytic anemia?

A

Folate deficiency

B12 deficiency

Myelodysplastic syndrome

Acute myeloid leukemias

Drug induced (chemotherapy agents)

Liver Dx

Alcohol abuse

Hypothyroidism

577
Q

Hard unilateral head and neck lymph nodes in an older patient with smoking history?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

578
Q

When is the best time to initiate evaluation of thrombophilia?

A

2-4 weeks following completion of wargarin therapy

Stops false positives and false negatives

579
Q

How often should a PAP smear be done in a woman who had a hysterectomy for non-malignant reasons?

A

Discontinue pap smears

580
Q

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

production of monoclonal IgM antibodies

hymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly may be present

581
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance

A

Presence of serum monoclonal protein of less than3g/L without evidence of anemia, kidney failure, bone disease, or other myeloma-related and end-organ damage

582
Q

a-thalassemia trait characteristics

A

mild anemia, microcytosis, hypochromia, target cells, and normal hemoglobin electrophoresis in adults

583
Q

When do sideroblasts form?

A

When iron is available, but is unable to be incorporated into hemoglobin

584
Q

How do you treat single nodule colorectal mets?

A

Regional hepatectomy

585
Q

How to treat a patient with stage III colon cancer s/p hemicolectomy?

A

Adhyvant chemotherapy

586
Q

What is the most common complication of HIT?

A

Additional venous thrombosis

587
Q

How to manage a patient with a PAP result of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance?

A

Refer to colposcopy

588
Q

Management of a patient with a new onset breast nodule that was negative on mammorgram?

A

Aspiration or Biospsy

589
Q

How to you manage a patient who does not smoke ad had a small (less than 4mm) nodule on CT?

A

No follow-up imaging

590
Q

How to you treat prostate cancer?

A

Androgen deprivation therapy

591
Q

How to do treat BPH?

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitor

592
Q

How do you treat polycythemia vera?

A

Aspirin and phlebotomy

593
Q

Signs of polycythemia vera?

A

Increased hemoglobin, increase leukocytes, increased platelets

594
Q

What cancer contains reed sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

595
Q

How to manage a patient with a blood smear showing platelet clumping?

A

Repeat platelet count

596
Q

Auer Rods Cancer?

A

Acute Myeloid Leukemia

597
Q

Transfusion-related acute lung injury

A

Fever, dyspnea, diffuse pulmonary infiltrates and hypocia

598
Q

How to manage blood products in a patient who has experiences prior anaphylatic reactions?

A

Wash samples

599
Q

Acral lentiginous melanoma

A

Unevenly darkly pigmented patch mostly arises on the palmar, plantar, or subungual surfaces

600
Q

How to treat diffuse large B-cell NHL?

A

Abbreviated course of chemotherapy followed by radiation

601
Q

Signs of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

A

Spherocytes and positive direct antiglobulin test

602
Q

How do you treat antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

Indefinately continue warfarin

603
Q

Lentigo Maligna?

A

Slow growing melanoma seen on the sun-exposed areas of the face

604
Q
A
605
Q

Foul-smelling diarrhea, weight loss, fatigue

A

Steatorrhea and malabsorption

606
Q

Effect of malabsorption on calcium levels

A

Inhibits absorption of Vit. D -> low calcium, low phosphate

607
Q

First step in the evaluation of a thyroid nodule > 1cm?

A

TSH levels and U/S

608
Q

Effects of hypopituitarism?

A

glucocorticoid deficiency, hypogonadism, hypothyroidism

609
Q

Features of glucogonoma?

A

Necrolytic migratory erythema- face, perineum, extremities

DM

GI- diarrhea, anorexia

Weight loss

610
Q

Signs of glucogonoma?

A

Hyperflycemia with elevated glucagon > 500pg/mL

611
Q

Painless thyroiditis

A

acute thryotoxicosis with mild thyroid gland enlargement and suppressed TSH

612
Q

What DM medications cause weight loos?

A

GLP-1 agonists (exenatide)

613
Q

What DM medications are weight neutral?

A

DDP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin)

614
Q

Treatment for diabetic neuropathy in young patients?

Older?

A

Young- amitriptyline

Old: Pregabalin

615
Q

Signs of thyroid storm?

A

Palpitations, weight loss, irregular menses, impaired glycemic control, confusion, agitation, n/v

616
Q

After confirming a normal TSH, what is the next step in working up suspected Cushings?

A

24 hour free urine cortisol, salicary cortisol, or low-dose decamethasone suppression

2 must be abnormal

617
Q

Carcinoid tumors put you at risk for deficiency of what?

A

Niacin (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia)

618
Q

Patient with malignant throid mass, elevated serum calcitonin, and family hx of thyroid malignancy likely has an inherited form of?

A

MEN2a or 2b

Ret mutation

619
Q

Milk-alkali syndrome

A

Overconsumption of calcium and absorbable alkali -> hypercalcemia -> renal vasoconstriction and decreased GFR

620
Q

Workup for hypocalcemia?

A

Recheck-> drug-> PTH-> 25-hydrocy vitamin D levels

621
Q

Signs of generalized resistance to thyroid hormones?

A

Normal TSH and high T3 and T4 with signs of hypothyroidism

622
Q

Subclinical hypothyroidism

A

Mildly elevated serum TSH and normal T3 and T4

Do not have clinical signs

623
Q

Signs of hypercortisolism?

A

Weight gain, psychiatric symptoms, HTN, hyperglycemia

624
Q

oligomenorrhea, hirutism, elevated testosterone levels?

Tx?

A

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

Tx: Weight loss and oral estrogen/progestin contraceptives

625
Q

Side-effect of radioiodine ablation?

A

Worsening of opthalmopahty

626
Q

Role of large and small fibers in DM?

A

Large- numbness, proprioception, vibration

Smal- pain, paresthesias, allodynia

627
Q

How does pregnancy affect thyroid levels?

A

Causes a 30% increase in the first trimester

628
Q

How to you manage an adrenal incidentoma?

A

Overnight dexamethasone suppression test, 24-hour urine collection for metanephrines, measurement of plasma renin activity and serum aldosterone levels

629
Q

Galactorrhea and signs of secondary amenorrhea, next step?

A

Obain prolactin levels

630
Q

In a young patient with suspected DM, what should be the first step in management?

A

Check for pancreatic autoantibodies to rule in/out DM type 1

631
Q

In a younger patient presenting with osteoporosis, what should be the first step in workup?

A

Find an underlying cause.

632
Q

fatigue, weight gain, erectile dysfunction and hyponatremia suggest?

A

panhypopituitarism

633
Q

How to treat pituitary apoplexy?

A

Neurosurgery consult and glucocorticosteroids

634
Q

hypernatremia with hypokalemia with htn? Diagnostic test?

A

Hyperaldosteronism, aldosterone to plasma renin

635
Q

How to diagnose cushing’s disease?

A

24-hour urine cortisol measurments

636
Q

If a patient is taking steroids and gets sick, what should happen?

A

Increase dose of hydrocortisone during the intercurrent illnesses to avoid adrenal crisis

637
Q

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate disease?

A

Presents like OA, but with atypical joints (hands)

638
Q

Treatment for fibromyalgia with or without depression?

A

Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibtors (duloxetine, milnacipran

639
Q

Presentation of OA of the hand?

A

Squaring of the first carpometacarpal joint (base of thumb) and DIP and PIP

640
Q

How to treat a patient with SLE and suspected lupus nephritis?

A

High-dose steroids

641
Q

Back pain in an individual with Chron’s disease?

A

Enteropathic arthritis

642
Q

Henoch-schonlein purpura

A

purpuric rash predominately affecting distal lower extremities, artritis, abdominal pain, hematuria

skin biopsies reveal leukocytoclastic vasculitis

643
Q

pain along the anteromedial proximal tibia distal to the joint like that worsens walking up stairs and at night

A

Pes anserine bursitis

644
Q

Still disease

A

daily (quotidian fever) evanescent salmon-colored rash, arthritis, multisystem involvement, markedly elevated ferritin

645
Q

Treatment for RA?

A

Methotrexate

646
Q

In RA refractory to Methotrexate, what is next?

A

Add monoclonal antibody, etanercept

647
Q

Inelastic pericardium - AKA? Signs? Risk?

A

AKA- restrictive pericarditis

Signs-increased JVP, peripheral edema, ascites, hepatic congestion with hepatomegaly

Risk- late complication of radiation therapy

648
Q

dyspnea, third heart sound, bibasilar crackles, low ejection fraction?

A

decompensated congestive heart failure due to LV systolic dysfunction

649
Q

Alcoholic cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy in an alcoholic, when everything else has been rules out

650
Q

Reversible risk factors for premature atrial contracitons?

A

Alcohol and tobacco, caffeine, stress

651
Q

Premature atrial contractions-treatment?

A

Cessation of alcohol, tobacco, caffeine, stress, initiation of beta-blockers (if symptomatic)

652
Q

Ludwig angina

A

Rapidly progresive cellulitis of the submandibular and sublingual spaces

653
Q

Ceftriaxome with azithromycin- treatment?

A

Community acquired pneumonia

654
Q

vanomycin with piperacillin-tazobactam-treatment?

A

Hospital-acquired pneumonia

655
Q

Low-pitched, early diastolic heart sound, think?

A

Heart failure (third heart sound)

656
Q

dypnea, hypoxemia, diffuse pulmonary crackles with third heart sound?

A

decompensated heart failure

657
Q

Treatment for severe heart failure associated with severe left ventricular systolic dysfunction and cardiogenic shock? MoA?

A

Dobutamine, beta-1 receptor

MoA- increased myocardial contractilit -> greater colume of forward blood efection -> decreased left ventricular end-systolic volume

658
Q

holosystolic murmur that increases with inspiration?

A

Tricuspid involvement

659
Q

Systemic murmur that increases when the patient stands up?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

660
Q

Mechanical complications post MI?

A

RC failure- acute

Papillary muscle rupture- Acute, 3-5 days

Interventricular septum rupture/defect- Acute, 3-5 days

Free wall rupture- 5 days to 2 weeks

661
Q

How to calculate attributed risk percent?

A

ARP= (RR-1)/RR

662
Q

Signs of cardiogenic shock?

A

Hypotension, reduced urine outpout, cool extremities

Classic finding: Beck triad-hypotension, elevated jugular venous pressure, distant heart sounds

663
Q

hypoxia vasoconstriction in the lung

A

vessels shrink and divert blood to maintain V and Q matching

664
Q

Intrapulmonary shunting

A

shunting of blood away from blocked alveolar consolidation and shunts it to other areas -> can cause V and Q mismatch

665
Q

Continuous murmur throughout thorax with high blood pressure and headaches? Imaging?

A

Coarctation of the aorta

X-ray findings- inferior notching of the third to eighth rib, “3” sign due to aortic indentation

ECG: Left ventricular hypertrophy

Echo: diagnostic confirmation

666
Q

Upturning of the cardiac apex- AKA, cause?

A

boot-shaped heart, caused by Tetralogy of Fallot, d/t pulmonic stenosis

667
Q

Commonly associated SLE rashes

A

Malar rash, discoid plaques, ulcers

668
Q

What causes drug induced acne? What do they look like? Management?

A

Glucocorticoids, androgens, azathioprine, EGFR inhibitors, anticonvulsants, antituberculosis

Description, monomorphic papules or pustules, no comedones, cysts, nodules

Management: D/C offending medication, standard acne therapy unlikely to be effective

669
Q

What populations have a 5mm PPD/TST induration limit?

A

HIV-positive, recent contacts of known TB, nodular fibrotic changes of CXR consistent with previously healed tb, organ transplant recipients, and other immunosuppressed patients

670
Q

Treatment for latent tb?

A

Isoniaxid and pyriodoxine

671
Q

Drug-resistent HTN, and a midabdominal bruit?

A

Rebal artery stenosis

672
Q

Highly specific finding in renal artery stenosis?

A

syustolic-diastolic abdominal bruit

673
Q

What drugs can lithium interact with to cause toxicity?

A

ibuprofen, NSAIDS, thiazide diuretics, ACE-I, tetracyclines, metronidazole -> decrease renal clearance of lithium

674
Q

Back pain with increased ESR/CRP, but normal X-rays, next step?

A

MRI, bone scanning using gallium (if MRI contraindicated)

675
Q

MoA of beta blockers?

A

reducing cardiac oxygen deman through a decrease in heart rate and myocardial contractility

676
Q

Treatment regimine for stable angina?

A

Beta blockers, aspirin, sublingual nitroglycerine

677
Q

Signs of Alcoholic cerebellar degeneration?

A

Trucal coordination impairment (tandem gait), wide-based gait, postural instability, with intact limb coordination (finger-nose test)

678
Q

Signs of hypokalemia?

A

Muscle weakness, arrhythmias, EKG changes

679
Q

Chikungunya fever? Vector?

A

High fevers, polyarthralgias, maculopapular rash, lymphop[enia, thrombocytopenia

Vector: Ades mosquito

680
Q

Cyclosporine side effects:

A

Nephrotoxicity- hyperkalemia, hypophosphatemia, hypomagnesemia

HTN: renal vasoconstriction and sodium retension

Neurotoxicity: headache, visual disturbances, seizures

Glucose intolerace

681
Q

Dermatofibroma

A

benign fibroblast proliferation

firm, hyperpgmented nodule, most often on lower extremties

682
Q

epidermal inclusion cyst? Diagnosis?

A

Discrete benign nodule lined with dquamous epithelium, that containes semisolid core of keratin and lipid.

Diagnosis: clinical with a firm, freely movable, dome-shaped cyst iwth central punctum

683
Q

Cor pulmonale? X-ray findings? Diagnosis?

A

exertion symptoms over time, loud P2, tricuspid regurgitation, elevated JVP, hepatomegaly

X-Ray- enlarged central pulmonary arteries, right ventricular hypertrophy, right atrial enlargement

Diagnosis- fold standard is right heart catheterization

684
Q

Priapism

A

persistent, painful ereation that develops without sexual stimulation and has a long duration

685
Q

Post-void residual volume in UTI?

A

Low, due to frequent urination

686
Q

b-HCG and AFP producing tumors in young males?

A

Nonseminomatous germ cell tumors

687
Q

Seminoma vs nonseminomatous germ cell tumors

A

Nonseminomatous germ cell tumors - product AFP and b-HCG

Seminoma produce b-HCG

688
Q

Site of nonseminomatous germ cell tumors in young males

A

mediastinal mass, testicular

689
Q

pityriasis rosea?

A

numerous oval, scaly plaques that follow the cleavage lines fo the trunk, often presents with an inital, larger lesion, a herald patch

690
Q

TInea corporis

A

pruritic rahs with scaly, erythematous border and central clearing

691
Q

Ichthyosis vularis? Treatment

A

Chronic inherited skin disorder with diffuse dermal scaling, caused by mutation in filaggrin gene

Treatment -emollients, severe cases male require keratolytics (coal tar, salicylic acid, and topical retinoids

692
Q

How to calculate sensitivity? Specificity?

A

Sensitivity- TP/(TP+FN)

Specificity = TN/(TN+TP)

693
Q

Untreated AIDS, progressive neurological symptoms, nonenhancing white matter lesions suggest? Diagnosis?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy, caused by JC virus

Diagnosis: LP with PCR for JC

694
Q

HIV-associated dementia?

A

deep gray matter structures affected, causing subacute connitive, behavioral, and motor deficits

695
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A

progressive, fetal disease caused years after measles infections

696
Q

Signs of peripheral nerve compression

A

Transient, unilateral foot drop, impaired anbkle dorsiflecion, preseved plantar flexion

697
Q

How to rule out primary psychiatric disorders in physical manifestations?

A

Symptoms are explained by distribution along a single nerve

698
Q

Arteriovenous fistula signs?

A

widenedd pulse presure, brish carotid upstroke, systolic flow murmur, tachycardia, flushed extremities, left ventricular hypertrophy

699
Q

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy vs AVF murmur

A

HCM- crescendo-decrescendo, increasing with valsava

AVF- systolic murmur, no increase with valsava

700
Q

Treatment for torsades de pointes?

A

IV magnesium sulfate

701
Q

What drugs should be withheld 48 hours prior to cardiac stress tests?

A

Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, nitrates

702
Q

Signs of secondary syphillis?

A

Diffuse rash (begins on the trunk, extends to the extremities, involsing palms and soles), widespread lymphadenopathy, grey mucosal patches, raised grey genital lesions (condylomata lata), epitrochlear lymphadenopathy (pathognomonic)

703
Q

Disseminated gonococcus signs

A

tenosynovitis, polyarthralgia, skin rash consting of a few pustules

704
Q

What causes cardiac tamponade?

A

Decreased left ventricular preload

705
Q

Signs of restrictive pericarditis?

A

Progressive peripheral edema, ascities, elevated JVP, pericaridal knowck, pericardial calcifications

706
Q

How often are mammograms performed?

A

Every 2 years.

707
Q

Disseminated mycobacterium avium complex infection signs?

A

fever, cough, diarrhea, splenomegaly, elevated alkaline phosphatase

708
Q

Most common cause of community acquired vacterial meningitis?

A

Strep pneumoniae

709
Q

Drugs that can cause angioedema?

A

Ace inhibitors -> increased bradykinin

710
Q

Organs affected in Goodpasteur’s syndrome?

A

Renal and pulmonary

711
Q

How to improve quality of care when transitioning between facilities?

A

Pharmacist-directed interventions

712
Q

Drugs with photosensitivity reactions

A

Tetracyclines, chlorpromazine, prochlorperazine, hurosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, amiodarone, promethazine, piroxicam

713
Q

Side effects of Erythromycin?

A

GI upset, cholestatic jaundice (estolate base)

714
Q

Cause of ARDS in pancreatitis?

A

Phosphilipase A2 crosses pulmonary capillaries and increases inflammatory response

715
Q

What is the negative predictive value?

A

Probability of being free of disease, if the test is negative

716
Q

Positive predictive value, meaning?

A

Likelihood that a positive test means you have the disease.

717
Q

Tinea versicolor causal organism? Trreatment?

A

Malassezia species

Tx: selenium sulfide, ketoconazole

718
Q

Signs of atrial fibrillation?

A

palpitations, weakness, dizziness, presyncope, dyspnea, and/or chest pain

719
Q

Conditions associated with atrial fibrillation?

A

CHF, Hypertrophic cardiomyothy, hypertensive heart disease (most common), obstructive sleep apnea, obesity, endocrine

720
Q

Valvular involvement in infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral-damaged heart valces

Tricuspid- intravenous drug abuse

721
Q

Signs of CMV in an AIDS patient? CD4+ count? Diagnostic test? Treatment?

A

Frequent, small volume diarrhea; hematochezia’ abdominal pain

CD4+ < 50

Diagnostic test: colonoscopy with biopsy (eosinophilic intranuclear and basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusion

Treatment: ganciclovir

722
Q

Epinephrine vs antihistamines

A

Antihistamines treat uticaria, pruritus in anaphalaxis, however, they do not relieve upper airway edema or hypotension

723
Q

Streptococcus gallolyticus

A

Streptococcus bovis (biotype 1) highest risk of colon cancer

724
Q

Vibrio vulnificus? Treatment? Manifestations?

A

Gram-negative, free-living in marine environments

Increased risk in those with liver disease

Manifestations: rapidly progressive, septicemia, cellulitis (hemorrhagic bullae, necrotizing fascitis)

Treatment: IV ceftriaxone, doxycycline

725
Q

What does A sengstaken-Blakemore tube do?

A

Balloon tamponade of variceal bleeding if endoscopy is unavailable

726
Q

In patients with variceal bleeding, what should be the main goal?

A

Fluid resuscitation

727
Q

In a patient with weakness and decreased pain in both legs, what type of injury is suspected? Action?

A

Lower spinal cord injury, insert urinary catheter to assess for urinary retention and prevent bladder injury

728
Q

Signs of cardiac temponade?

A

hypotension (unresponsive to IV fluids), tachycardia, and elevated jugular venous pressure after blunt thoracic trauma

729
Q

How is duodenal hematoma treated?

A

NG suction and parenteral nutrition

730
Q

What is the first step in management of damage to the urethral meatus?

A

retrograde urethrogram

731
Q

Use of NSAIDS with episodic postprandial epigastric pain?

A

Perforated peptic ulcer

732
Q

How to treat perforated peptic ulcers?

A

NG suction, bowel rest, intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, IV PPI

733
Q

Signs of acute adrenal insufficiency?

A

Severe and often refractory hypotension, vomiting, abdominal pain and fever

734
Q

Signs of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

735
Q

Best management of acute appendicitis?

A

Laparoscopic appendectomy

736
Q

Epigastric pain/tenderness, weight loss in the setting of nonspecific systemic symptoms and significant smoking history?

A

Cancer of the upper GI or associated organs…think gallbladder, liver, pancreas

737
Q

Classic description of pain in pancreatic cancer?

A

Abdominal pain that is insidious, gnawing, and worse at night

738
Q

Varicocele-signs? Diagnostic method?

A

soft mass that worsens with standing and Valsalva maneuvers, but decreases when supine, does not transilluminated Diagnostic- US

739
Q

Varicocele treatment?

A

NSAIDS or surgical correction

740
Q

How do you manage small pneumothorax? Large?

A

Small- supplemental O2 Large- Needle thoracostomy/chest tube

741
Q

Young male (20s) without trauma has pneumothorax?

A

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

742
Q

Differential for anterior mediastinal mass?

A
  1. Thymoma 2. teratoma 3. thyroid neoplasm 4. Lymphoma
743
Q

Mediastinal mass with elevated AFP and b-HCG?

A

mixed cell germ tumor

744
Q

Elevated serum b-HCG with normal AFP?

A

seminoma

745
Q

Mediastinal mass with nomral b-HCG and AFP?

A

Thymomas

746
Q

Initial management of non-displaced scaphoid bone fracture?

A

Wrist immobilization for 6-10weeks, with x-rays in7-10 days

747
Q

Signs of elevated intracranial pressure?

A

HTN, bradycardia, respiratory depression (Cushing’s reflex)

748
Q

Effects of uncal herniation?

A
  1. Ipsilateral hemiparesis 2. parasympathetic loss (mydriasis (early) ptosis, 3. Contralateral homonymous hemianopdia 4. altered level of consciousness
749
Q

Patient response to atelectasis?

A

Hyperventilation -> respo. alkalosis, decreased pCO2

750
Q

Leriche syndrome

A

bilateral hip, thigh, buttock claudication impotence symmetric atrophy of the bilateral extremities due to ischemia

751
Q

Syndrome associated with arterial occlusion at the bifurcation of the aorta?

A

Leriche Syndrome

752
Q

How do you counteract a decrease in blood pressure after administration of propofol?

A

Administer dopamine

753
Q

How does pneumonia that is developing into septic shock present? Treatment?

A

acidosis, low urine output, hypotension, tachypnea, fever Tx- IV normal saline

754
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in a clean or minor wound?

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine only if

755
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in a dirty or severe wound?

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine only if booster > 5 years ago If unsure, tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine plus tetanus immune globulin

756
Q

When do you give tetanus immune globulin?

A

severe or dirty wound with unsure vaccination history

757
Q

How does venous insufficiency present?

A

worsens throughout the day and resolves overnight when the patient is recumbent

758
Q

What are the signs of arterial occlusion?

A

Pain, pallor, paresthesias, pulselessness, and coolness to the touch

759
Q

How do you store an amputated limb?

A

Place in saline moistened gauze and then in a plastic bag on ice…bring it wherever the patient goes.

760
Q

Signs of retroperitoneal abscesses?

A

fever, child, and deep abdominal pain may initially be missed by a CT scan

761
Q

How to treat a pancreatic abscess

A

Immediate placement of a percutaneous drainage catheter, culture of the drained fluid and surgical debridement

762
Q

Hemoptysis with upper lung lobe involvment? Initial step?

A

TB, Isolation

763
Q

Initial management of coughing with large amounts of blood (>600mL or 100mL/hour)?

A

Secure airway

764
Q

When should you suspect diaphragmatic rupture?

A

History of blunt trauma/MVA, abnormal CXR, left lower lung opacity, elevated hemidiaphragm, and mediastinal deviation

765
Q

How do patients with duodenal hematomas present? Etiology?

A

epigastric pain and vomiting d/t blood collection between the submucosal and muscular layers of the duodenum

766
Q

Signs of urethral injury?

A

blood at the urethral meatus, inability to void, high-riding prostate on DRE

767
Q

How to diagnose bladder trauam?

A

Retrograde cystogram with post-void films

768
Q

NSAID use with several-day history of epigastric pain followed by acute-onset sevfere constant pain?

A

perforated peptic ulcer

769
Q

Initial management for perforated peptic ulcer

A

NG suction, bowel rest, intravenous fluids, broad spectrum Abx ad intravenous PPI

770
Q

periumbilical pain out of proportion to examination and hematochezia?

A

acute mesenteric ischemia Gold standard diagnosis is mesenteric angiography

771
Q

Signs of adrenal insufficiency?

A

hypoension/shock weakness nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever

772
Q

Etiology of adrenal insufficiency?

A

adrenal hemorrhage/infarction acute illness/injury/surgery in patient with chronic adrenal insufficiency or long-term glucocorticoid use

773
Q

migratory RLQ pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, leukocytosis

A

acute appendicitis

774
Q

When are US and CT used in acute appendicitis?

A

when classic presentation/signs are not present

775
Q

epigastroc pain/tenderness and weight loss with nonspecific systemic symptoms with significant smoking history

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

776
Q

type of pain experiences with pancreatic cancer?

A

epigastric abdominal pain that is insidious. gnawing, and worse at night

777
Q

Classic association with pancreatic cancer? Name?

A

migratory thrombophlebitis Trousseau sign

778
Q

soft mass that worsens with standing and Valsalva maneuvers, but decreases when supine; does not transilluminate

A

varicocele

779
Q

cardiac catheterization, anticoagulation, sudden hypotension, tachycardia, flat neck veins, back pain

A

retroperitoneal hematoma

780
Q

Complications from cardiac catheterization

A

pseudoaneurysm, arteriovenous fistular formation, arterial dissection, acute thrombosis

781
Q

pneumomediastinum and pleural effusions-cause?

A

esophageal rupture

782
Q

pneumothorax despite chest tube, pneumomediastinum subcutaneous emphysema

A

tracheobronchial perforation (right bronchus is most common

783
Q

Gallbladder distension and wall thickening, presence of pericholecystic fluid, without gallstones

A

acalculous cholecystitis

784
Q

How to treat acalculous cholecystitis acutely? Definitively?

A

Acutely- percutaneous cholecystostomy and antibiotics Definitively- cholecystectomy with drainage of associated abscessess

785
Q

How does mesenteric ischemia present?

A

sudden periumbilical abdominal pain out of proportion to examination findings

786
Q

Signs of compartment syndrome?

A
  1. Pain out of proportion to injury 2. Pain increasing on passive stretch 3. rapidly increasing & tense swelling 4. paresthesia (early)
787
Q

Signs of deep vein thrombosis?

A

alf tenderness with pain worsened by passive stretching of the calf.

788
Q

Postoperative cholestasis-signs?

A

hypotension, blood loss into tissues, massive blood load (transfusion), decrease liver functionalty, decreased renal bilirubin excretion with normal ALT/AST

789
Q

Preferred anticoagulant in end-stage renal failure patients?

A

Warfarin

790
Q

What is required when starting Warfarin?

A

Heparin bridge- warfarin activates proteins C and S causing a transient prothrombotic state

791
Q

When do patients show signs of pulmonary contusions?

A

Approx. 4 hours post-injury when hypoxia, respiratory distress, pulmonary edema set in

792
Q

Physical signs of pulmonary contusions?

A

tachycardia, hypoxia, tachypenea

793
Q

Pulmonary contusion-CXR results

A

patchy irregular alveolar infiltrate

794
Q

Physical signs of a meniscal tear?

A

joint line tenderness, pain or catching in the provocative tests (Thessaly, McMurray

795
Q

how to diagnose meniscal tears?

A

MRI

796
Q

When should conservative management be used for menscal tear? Examples?

A

Short-term pain, elderly Example: rest, NSAIDs

797
Q

Hoe do you treat anal fissures?

A

topical anesthetics, vasodilators (nifedipine) Sitz baths stool softeners high-fiber diet & adequate fluid intake

798
Q

When should you considerd surgical interventions for anal fissures?

A

When medical management has failed

799
Q

acute abdominal pain followed by lower GI bleeding after an episode of hypotension?

A

Ischemic colitis

800
Q

Sites for ischemic colitis? Imaging signs? How to confirm?

A

Splenic flexure, rectosigmoid junction CT scan may show thickened bowel wall Confirm with colonoscopy

801
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 0-2 hours after surgery?

A

Prior trauma/infection, blood products, malignant hyperthermia

802
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 1-7 days after surgery?

A

Nosocomial infections, Group A streptcoccus, or C. perfringens

803
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 1-4 weeks post surgery?

A

Other organisms (nor GAS, C. perfringens), C difficile, drug fever, PE/DVT

804
Q

What is the cause of postoperative fever more than 1 months post-surgery

A

Viral infections, indolent organisms

805
Q

Signs of fat embolism?

A

severe respiratory distress, petechial rash, subconjuctival hemorrhage, tachycardia, tachypnea, and fever

806
Q

Organism most likely responsible for infection from intravascular devices?

A

Coagulase negative s. epi

807
Q

How does an anterior should dislocation occur?

A

forceful abduction and external rotation a the glenohumeral joint; risks damage to the axillary nerve

808
Q

Torus palatinus? Tx?

A

benign, bony growth located on the mid-line suture of the hard palate No treatment necessary unless systemic effects develop or it interferes with speech

809
Q

Signs of rotator cuff impingement

A

pain with abduction, external rotation subacromial tenderness normal range of motion with positive impingement tests (Neer, Hawkins)

810
Q

How does cervical impingement present?

A

pain and paresthesias of the neck and arm along with upper extremity weakness

811
Q

Clinical signs of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Rapid onset of periumbilical pain Pain out of proportion to examination findings hematochezia

812
Q

Risk factors for acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Atherosclerosis Embolic source hypercoagulable disorders

813
Q

What is the drop arm test?

A

Detects a tear in the supraspinatus; arm is abducted passively above head and they are instructed to lower it slowly

814
Q

Signs of abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?

A

severe back pain, syncope, profound hypotension

815
Q

Signs of SBO strangulation?

A

peritoneal signs (rigidity, rebound) signs of shock (fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis)

816
Q

Trochanteric bursitis- definition? Signs?

A

definition- inglammation of the curse surrounding the insertion of the gluteus medius onto the femur’s trochanter signs- hip pain when pressure is applied and with external or resisted abduction

817
Q

Femoral nerve innervation

A

hip joint and skin of the anterior and medial thigh and leg

818
Q

Complications associated with supracondylar fracture of the humerus

A

Brachial artery injury Median nerve injury Cubitus varus deformity Compartment syndrome/Volkman ischemic contracture

819
Q

Signs of sepsis

A

worsening hyperglycemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, milk hypothermia, tachypnea, tachycardia

820
Q

Signs of gallstone ileus

A

stuttering episodes of nausea and vomiting, pneumobilia, hyperactive bowel sounds, dilated loops of bowels

821
Q

Important steps in the preoperative management of a patient taking Warfarin?

A

Check INR, reverse with fresh, frozen plasma

822
Q

blunt abdominal trauma, hypotension, right chest/abdominal wall injury, and free intraperitoneal fluid

A

Hepatic laceration

823
Q

Signs of meniscal tears?

A

pain, clicking, or catching

824
Q

post-operative thoracic surgery, fever, tachycardia, chest pain, leukocytosis, and sternal wound drainage or purulent discharge?

A

Acute mediastinitis, TX- surgical debridement and antibiotic therapy

825
Q

Signs of septal perforation?

A

whistling noise during respiration, caused by post-operative septal hematoma

826
Q

blunt thoracic trauma, respiratory distress despite bilateral chest tubes

A

Flail chest, demonstrate tachypnea, shallow breaths

827
Q

Symptoms in arterial embolism?

A

sudden and severe, with diminished pulses in the affected limb, but normal in the unaffected

828
Q

Signs of arterial thrombosis

A

Slow, progressive narrowing of the vascular lumen Pulses are diminished bilaterally (normally)

829
Q

Signs of pyloric strictures

A

postprandial pain, vomiting with early satiety, succussion splash on the epigastrium

830
Q

Signs of esophageal stricture?

A

Dysphagia, no abdominal succussion splash

831
Q

Signs of diaphragmatic hernia?

A

blunt abdominal trauma with mild respiratory distress and abnormal xray **smaller hernias present with nausea/vomiting and are delayed

832
Q

Cause of infertility from varicocele?

A

Increased scrotal temperature

833
Q

Cause of pretibial edema?I

A

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

834
Q

Holosystolic murmur heart of the left sternal border?

A

Pulmonary regurgitation

835
Q

5 days after pancreatoduodenectomy , what type of feeding should be used?

A

Enteral tube feedings

836
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Acute, nodular, erythematous eruption on the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Associated with hypersensitivity reactions

837
Q

What someone falls from a height, what X-rays should be ordered?

A

C-spine

838
Q

What should be the first step in the treatment of a woman with breast cancer?

A

Resect the mass, then treat with chemo/rad

839
Q

How can heart failure develop from an aneurysm?

A

Lead to the development of a fistula

840
Q

What can cause narrowing of the biliary ducts?

A

cancer (specifically pancreatic), strictures (trauma)

841
Q

Most common organism causing lymphangitis?

A

Strep pyo (group A)

842
Q

How can you minimize the risk of infection from a PICC?

A

Remove it as soon as treatment/use is complete

843
Q

Osgood-Schkatter disease

A

Painful lump below the kneecap in children during puberty, can cause a limp

844
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

Blood flow is interrupted to the femoral head in children, can cause necrosis

845
Q

How do you manage sigmoid volvulus?

A

Sigmoidoscopy-guided placement of a rectal tube

846
Q

What should be the first step in management of an unknown mass on an HIV patient?

A

Biopsy

847
Q

What is a pneumatocele?

A

cavity in the lung parenchyma filled with air that may result from pulmonary trauma during mechanical ventilation

848
Q

Written description of C- Diff infection?

A

Patchy, white mucosa on colonoscopy

849
Q

Diffusely enlarged thyroid gland with neck swelling and no symptoms of decreased thyroid?

A

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis (Hashimoto disease)

850
Q

Long-term growth (> 6 months) on glans penis with negative VDRL test?

A

Penis cancer

851
Q

How do you counteract the effects of propofol?

A

Dopamine

852
Q

borborygmi

A

a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines

853
Q

What is a major complication risk from AAA repair?

A

MI

854
Q

diaphoretic

A

Sweating heavily

855
Q

C8 radiculopathy

A

causes pain from the neck to the hand. Patients may experience weakness in hand grip, and pain and numbness can radiate along the inner side of the arm, ring, and little fingers.

856
Q

C7 radiculopathy

A

(the most common) causes pain and/or weakness from the neck to the hand and can include the triceps (the muscles on the back of the upper arms) and the middle finge

857
Q

C6 radiculopathy

A

(one of the most common), causes pain and/or weakness along the length of the arm, including the biceps (the muscles in front of the upper arms), wrists, and the thumb and index finger.

858
Q

C5 radiculopathy

A

can cause pain and/or weakness in the shoulders and upper arms. Especially may cause discomfort around the shoulder blades. It rarely causes numbness or tingling.

859
Q

Child with current-jelly stools?

A

Intussusception

860
Q

How to treat intussusception?

A

Control enema

861
Q

Cause of subcutaneous emphysema?

A

Tension pneumothorax

862
Q

When giving large amounts of packed RBC’s, what must be added?

A

Platelets

863
Q

Should volume support or patient transport during traumas come first?

A

Urban areas with close trauma center - transport All other areas- resuscitate

864
Q

How to treat rib fractures in the elderly?

A

Local nerve block and epidural catheter

865
Q

What should be done with all gunshot wounds to the abdomen?

A

Exploratory Laparotomy

866
Q

What treatments should be provided for a through-and-through extremity gunshot wound?

A

Tetanus prophylaxis

867
Q

When can early excision and grafting be used?

A

Small (

868
Q

What degree of angulation is unacceptable in children (compared to adults)

A

Larger amounts

869
Q

How are intertrochaneric fractures treated?

A

ORIF with anticoagulation

870
Q

“tip of the finger remains flexed when the rest of the fingers are extended

A

Malley

871
Q

Common cause of coma in a cirrhotic patient with bleeding varices?

A

Ammonium toxicities

872
Q

Liters of drainage from an upper GI wound?

A

fluid replacement, nutritional support, protection of the abdominal wall

873
Q

Old man with blood on the outside of his stool?

A

Hemorrhoids

874
Q

Sources of inflammation in the left lower quadrant of women?

A

Diverticulitis, tube, ovary Diagnose with CT

875
Q

Acute edematous pancreatitis

A

Alcoholics of gallstones Pain after large meal or EtOH _> constant, radiates to back-> nausea, vomiting, retching

876
Q

Vascular rings

A

stridor, “crowing”, baby assumes hyperextended neck Bronchoscopy shows segmental compression of the trachea Tx- surgical division

877
Q

What type of catheter is used for embolectomy of an atrial clot from a. fib?

A

Fogarty

878
Q

Small, raised, waxy lesion

A

Basal cell carcinoma

879
Q

non-healing ulcer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

880
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinoma found?

A

Lower lip and below on face

881
Q

Where do you biopsy a basal cell carcinoma?

A

Edge of the lesion

882
Q

Amblyopia

A

vision impairment resulting from interference with the processing of images by the brain during the firs t6-7 years of life

883
Q

How to treat trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Anti-convulsants (carbamazapine)

884
Q

Sudden testicular pain, pyuria, fever

A

acute epididymitis

885
Q

acute epididymitis- treatment

A

Abx and sonogram to rule out torsion

886
Q

Uropelvic junction obstruction signs

A

Intense pain when large diuresis occurs (beer drinking)

887
Q

How do you treat testicular cancer?

A

platinum-based therapies

888
Q

Treatment for impotence-first line?

A

Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil

889
Q

What is mandatory for all abdominal bullet wounds?

A

Ex Lap

890
Q

Abdominal mass that moves up and down in a baby

A

Malignant tumor of the liver ie-hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma

891
Q

Child class factors to deny surgery

A

albumin below 2, INR 2 x normal, ascites

892
Q

bilateral pulmonary infiltrates with low PO2

A

ARDS, PEEP

893
Q

How do you obtain samples from a breast?

A

US guided imaging

894
Q

Back pain in woman who recently has breast cancer?

A

Metastatic spread, diagnose with MRI

895
Q

Signs of Zollinger-Ellison disease

A

Refractory to other treatments, multiple ulcers

896
Q

Double bubble with normal gas

A

Malrotation

897
Q

Square root sign

A

Chronic constrictive pericarditis

898
Q

Workup for squamous cell carcinoma of the mucosa?

A

Panendoscopy

899
Q

1 week post- otitis media infection: projectile vomiting, seizures, blurred vision, severe headache

A

Brain abscess

900
Q

Why a newborn does not urinate during the first day after birth?

A

posterior urethral valves

901
Q

Intervention for UPJ stones larger than 7mm

A

extraperitoneal shock-wave lithotripsy

902
Q

Standard bolus for burns

A

1000mL/hr 30-120mL/hr

903
Q

How do you test an animal for rabies?

A

Kill the animal and scan its brain

904
Q

Chubby 13 year old boy limping, complaining of knee pain, sole of affected foot points towards the other one

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

905
Q

arm held close to the body

A

Posterior shoulder dislocation, axillary/scapula xrays needed for diagnosis

906
Q

In an ejection, what should always be imaged?

A

C-spine (CT scan)

907
Q

How to treat lumbar disk herniation?

A

MRI of L4-S1, pain control with nerve blocks

908
Q

Morton neuroma

A

inflammation of the common digital nerve in the third space

909
Q

Signs of PE?

A

pleuritic (sudden onset), sob, diaphoretic, tachycardic, distended veins in neck and face

910
Q

Cause of blood in rectum from child?

A

Merkel’s diverticulum, workup with technetium scan

911
Q

First step in the workup for pancreatic cancer?

A

CT of the abdomen

912
Q

First step in workup for a palpable breast mass?

A

US guided core biopsy

913
Q

What are burns near the eyes covered with?

A

Triple abx ointment

914
Q

Trashing around with sudden pain?

A

Stone stuck in ureter

915
Q

If a patient is stable, which test is most sensitive for blood?

A

CT

916
Q

How to treat acute rejection?

A

Tacrolimus or Mycophenolate mofetil with/without steroids

917
Q

Patient passing stone suddenly spikes a fever

A

ER immediately, nephrostomy tube placement

918
Q

How to workup claudication?

A

Doppler studies

919
Q

Knee to chest position in children?

A

Ependymoma

920
Q

Stumbling around and truncal ataxia in children?

A

Medulloblastoma

921
Q

Contraindication to organ donation?

A

Positive HIV status

922
Q

What does A sengstaken-Blakemore tube do?

A

Balloon tamponade of variceal bleeding if endoscopy is unavailable

923
Q

In patients with variceal bleeding, what should be the main goal?

A

Fluid resuscitation

924
Q

What does A sengstaken-Blakemore tube do?

A

Balloon tamponade of variceal bleeding if endoscopy is unavailable

925
Q

In patients with variceal bleeding, what should be the main goal?

A

Fluid resuscitation

926
Q

In a patient with weakness and decreased pain in both legs, what type of injury is suspected? Action?

A

Lower spinal cord injury, insert urinary catheter to assess for urinary retention and prevent bladder injury

927
Q

Signs of cardiac temponade?

A

hypotension (unresponsive to IV fluids), tachycardia, and elevated jugular venous pressure after blunt thoracic trauma

928
Q

How is duodenal hematoma treated?

A

NG suction and parenteral nutrition

929
Q

What is the first step in management of damage to the urethral meatus?

A

retrograde urethrogram

930
Q

Use of NSAIDS with episodic postprandial epigastric pain?

A

Perforated peptic ulcer

931
Q

How to treat perforated peptic ulcers?

A

NG suction, bowel rest, intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, IV PPI

932
Q

Signs of acute adrenal insufficiency?

A

Severe and often refractory hypotension, vomiting, abdominal pain and fever

933
Q

Signs of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

934
Q

Best management of acute appendicitis?

A

Laparoscopic appendectomy

935
Q

Epigastric pain/tenderness, weight loss in the setting of nonspecific systemic symptoms and significant smoking history?

A

Cancer of the upper GI or associated organs…think gallbladder, liver, pancreas

936
Q

Classic description of pain in pancreatic cancer?

A

Abdominal pain that is insidious, gnawing, and worse at night

937
Q

Varicocele-signs? Diagnostic method?

A

soft mass that worsens with standing and Valsalva maneuvers, but decreases when supine, does not transilluminated Diagnostic- US

938
Q

Varicocele treatment?

A

NSAIDS or surgical correction

939
Q

How do you manage small pneumothorax? Large?

A

Small- supplemental O2 Large- Needle thoracostomy/chest tube

940
Q

Young male (20s) without trauma has pneumothorax?

A

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

941
Q

Differential for anterior mediastinal mass?

A
  1. Thymoma 2. teratoma 3. thyroid neoplasm 4. Lymphoma
942
Q

Mediastinal mass with elevated AFP and b-HCG?

A

mixed cell germ tumor

943
Q

Elevated serum b-HCG with normal AFP?

A

seminoma

944
Q

Mediastinal mass with nomral b-HCG and AFP?

A

Thymomas

945
Q

Initial management of non-displaced scaphoid bone fracture?

A

Wrist immobilization for 6-10weeks, with x-rays in7-10 days

946
Q

Signs of elevated intracranial pressure?

A

HTN, bradycardia, respiratory depression (Cushing’s reflex)

947
Q

Effects of uncal herniation?

A
  1. Ipsilateral hemiparesis 2. parasympathetic loss (mydriasis (early) ptosis, 3. Contralateral homonymous hemianopdia 4. altered level of consciousness
948
Q

Patient response to atelectasis?

A

Hyperventilation -> respo. alkalosis, decreased pCO2

949
Q

Leriche syndrome

A

bilateral hip, thigh, buttock claudication impotence symmetric atrophy of the bilateral extremities due to ischemia

950
Q

Syndrome associated with arterial occlusion at the bifurcation of the aorta?

A

Leriche Syndrome

951
Q

How do you counteract a decrease in blood pressure after administration of propofol?

A

Administer dopamine

952
Q

How does pneumonia that is developing into septic shock present? Treatment?

A

acidosis, low urine output, hypotension, tachypnea, fever Tx- IV normal saline

953
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in a clean or minor wound?

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine only if

954
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in a dirty or severe wound?

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine only if booster > 5 years ago If unsure, tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine plus tetanus immune globulin

955
Q

When do you give tetanus immune globulin?

A

severe or dirty wound with unsure vaccination history

956
Q

How does venous insufficiency present?

A

worsens throughout the day and resolves overnight when the patient is recumbent

957
Q

What are the signs of arterial occlusion?

A

Pain, pallor, paresthesias, pulselessness, and coolness to the touch

958
Q

How do you store an amputated limb?

A

Place in saline moistened gauze and then in a plastic bag on ice…bring it wherever the patient goes.

959
Q

Signs of retroperitoneal abscesses?

A

fever, child, and deep abdominal pain may initially be missed by a CT scan

960
Q

How to treat a pancreatic abscess

A

Immediate placement of a percutaneous drainage catheter, culture of the drained fluid and surgical debridement

961
Q

Hemoptysis with upper lung lobe involvment? Initial step?

A

TB, Isolation

962
Q

Initial management of coughing with large amounts of blood (>600mL or 100mL/hour)?

A

Secure airway

963
Q

When should you suspect diaphragmatic rupture?

A

History of blunt trauma/MVA, abnormal CXR, left lower lung opacity, elevated hemidiaphragm, and mediastinal deviation

964
Q

How do patients with duodenal hematomas present? Etiology?

A

epigastric pain and vomiting d/t blood collection between the submucosal and muscular layers of the duodenum

965
Q

Signs of urethral injury?

A

blood at the urethral meatus, inability to void, high-riding prostate on DRE

966
Q

How to diagnose bladder trauam?

A

Retrograde cystogram with post-void films

967
Q

NSAID use with several-day history of epigastric pain followed by acute-onset sevfere constant pain?

A

perforated peptic ulcer

968
Q

Initial management for perforated peptic ulcer

A

NG suction, bowel rest, intravenous fluids, broad spectrum Abx ad intravenous PPI

969
Q

periumbilical pain out of proportion to examination and hematochezia?

A

acute mesenteric ischemia Gold standard diagnosis is mesenteric angiography

970
Q

Signs of adrenal insufficiency?

A

hypoension/shock weakness nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever

971
Q

Etiology of adrenal insufficiency?

A

adrenal hemorrhage/infarction acute illness/injury/surgery in patient with chronic adrenal insufficiency or long-term glucocorticoid use

972
Q

migratory RLQ pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, leukocytosis

A

acute appendicitis

973
Q

When are US and CT used in acute appendicitis?

A

when classic presentation/signs are not present

974
Q

epigastroc pain/tenderness and weight loss with nonspecific systemic symptoms with significant smoking history

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

975
Q

type of pain experiences with pancreatic cancer?

A

epigastric abdominal pain that is insidious. gnawing, and worse at night

976
Q

Classic association with pancreatic cancer? Name?

A

migratory thrombophlebitis Trousseau sign

977
Q

soft mass that worsens with standing and Valsalva maneuvers, but decreases when supine; does not transilluminate

A

varicocele

978
Q

cardiac catheterization, anticoagulation, sudden hypotension, tachycardia, flat neck veins, back pain

A

retroperitoneal hematoma

979
Q

Complications from cardiac catheterization

A

pseudoaneurysm, arteriovenous fistular formation, arterial dissection, acute thrombosis

980
Q

pneumomediastinum and pleural effusions-cause?

A

esophageal rupture

981
Q

pneumothorax despite chest tube, pneumomediastinum subcutaneous emphysema

A

tracheobronchial perforation (right bronchus is most common

982
Q

Gallbladder distension and wall thickening, presence of pericholecystic fluid, without gallstones

A

acalculous cholecystitis

983
Q

How to treat acalculous cholecystitis acutely? Definitively?

A

Acutely- percutaneous cholecystostomy and antibiotics Definitively- cholecystectomy with drainage of associated abscessess

984
Q

How does mesenteric ischemia present?

A

sudden periumbilical abdominal pain out of proportion to examination findings

985
Q

Signs of compartment syndrome?

A
  1. Pain out of proportion to injury 2. Pain increasing on passive stretch 3. rapidly increasing & tense swelling 4. paresthesia (early)
986
Q

Signs of deep vein thrombosis?

A

alf tenderness with pain worsened by passive stretching of the calf.

987
Q

Postoperative cholestasis-signs?

A

hypotension, blood loss into tissues, massive blood load (transfusion), decrease liver functionalty, decreased renal bilirubin excretion with normal ALT/AST

988
Q

Preferred anticoagulant in end-stage renal failure patients?

A

Warfarin

989
Q

What is required when starting Warfarin?

A

Heparin bridge- warfarin activates proteins C and S causing a transient prothrombotic state

990
Q

When do patients show signs of pulmonary contusions?

A

Approx. 4 hours post-injury when hypoxia, respiratory distress, pulmonary edema set in

991
Q

Physical signs of pulmonary contusions?

A

tachycardia, hypoxia, tachypenea

992
Q

Pulmonary contusion-CXR results

A

patchy irregular alveolar infiltrate

993
Q

Physical signs of a meniscal tear?

A

joint line tenderness, pain or catching in the provocative tests (Thessaly, McMurray

994
Q

how to diagnose meniscal tears?

A

MRI

995
Q

When should conservative management be used for menscal tear? Examples?

A

Short-term pain, elderly Example: rest, NSAIDs

996
Q

Hoe do you treat anal fissures?

A

topical anesthetics, vasodilators (nifedipine) Sitz baths stool softeners high-fiber diet & adequate fluid intake

997
Q

When should you considerd surgical interventions for anal fissures?

A

When medical management has failed

998
Q

acute abdominal pain followed by lower GI bleeding after an episode of hypotension?

A

Ischemic colitis

999
Q

Sites for ischemic colitis? Imaging signs? How to confirm?

A

Splenic flexure, rectosigmoid junction CT scan may show thickened bowel wall Confirm with colonoscopy

1000
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 0-2 hours after surgery?

A

Prior trauma/infection, blood products, malignant hyperthermia

1001
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 1-7 days after surgery?

A

Nosocomial infections, Group A streptcoccus, or C. perfringens

1002
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 1-4 weeks post surgery?

A

Other organisms (nor GAS, C. perfringens), C difficile, drug fever, PE/DVT

1003
Q

What is the cause of postoperative fever more than 1 months post-surgery

A

Viral infections, indolent organisms

1004
Q

Signs of fat embolism?

A

severe respiratory distress, petechial rash, subconjuctival hemorrhage, tachycardia, tachypnea, and fever

1005
Q

Organism most likely responsible for infection from intravascular devices?

A

Coagulase negative s. epi

1006
Q

How does an anterior should dislocation occur?

A

forceful abduction and external rotation a the glenohumeral joint; risks damage to the axillary nerve

1007
Q

Torus palatinus? Tx?

A

benign, bony growth located on the mid-line suture of the hard palate No treatment necessary unless systemic effects develop or it interferes with speech

1008
Q

Signs of rotator cuff impingement

A

pain with abduction, external rotation subacromial tenderness normal range of motion with positive impingement tests (Neer, Hawkins)

1009
Q

How does cervical impingement present?

A

pain and paresthesias of the neck and arm along with upper extremity weakness

1010
Q

Clinical signs of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Rapid onset of periumbilical pain Pain out of proportion to examination findings hematochezia

1011
Q

Risk factors for acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Atherosclerosis Embolic source hypercoagulable disorders

1012
Q

What is the drop arm test?

A

Detects a tear in the supraspinatus; arm is abducted passively above head and they are instructed to lower it slowly

1013
Q

Signs of abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?

A

severe back pain, syncope, profound hypotension

1014
Q

Signs of SBO strangulation?

A

peritoneal signs (rigidity, rebound) signs of shock (fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis)

1015
Q

Trochanteric bursitis- definition? Signs?

A

definition- inglammation of the curse surrounding the insertion of the gluteus medius onto the femur’s trochanter signs- hip pain when pressure is applied and with external or resisted abduction

1016
Q

Femoral nerve innervation

A

hip joint and skin of the anterior and medial thigh and leg

1017
Q

Complications associated with supracondylar fracture of the humerus

A

Brachial artery injury Median nerve injury Cubitus varus deformity Compartment syndrome/Volkman ischemic contracture

1018
Q

Signs of sepsis

A

worsening hyperglycemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, milk hypothermia, tachypnea, tachycardia

1019
Q

Signs of gallstone ileus

A

stuttering episodes of nausea and vomiting, pneumobilia, hyperactive bowel sounds, dilated loops of bowels

1020
Q

Important steps in the preoperative management of a patient taking Warfarin?

A

Check INR, reverse with fresh, frozen plasma

1021
Q

blunt abdominal trauma, hypotension, right chest/abdominal wall injury, and free intraperitoneal fluid

A

Hepatic laceration

1022
Q

Signs of meniscal tears?

A

pain, clicking, or catching

1023
Q

post-operative thoracic surgery, fever, tachycardia, chest pain, leukocytosis, and sternal wound drainage or purulent discharge?

A

Acute mediastinitis, TX- surgical debridement and antibiotic therapy

1024
Q

Signs of septal perforation?

A

whistling noise during respiration, caused by post-operative septal hematoma

1025
Q

blunt thoracic trauma, respiratory distress despite bilateral chest tubes

A

Flail chest, demonstrate tachypnea, shallow breaths

1026
Q

Symptoms in arterial embolism?

A

sudden and severe, with diminished pulses in the affected limb, but normal in the unaffected

1027
Q

Signs of arterial thrombosis

A

Slow, progressive narrowing of the vascular lumen Pulses are diminished bilaterally (normally)

1028
Q

Signs of pyloric strictures

A

postprandial pain, vomiting with early satiety, succussion splash on the epigastrium

1029
Q

Signs of esophageal stricture?

A

Dysphagia, no abdominal succussion splash

1030
Q

Signs of diaphragmatic hernia?

A

blunt abdominal trauma with mild respiratory distress and abnormal xray **smaller hernias present with nausea/vomiting and are delayed

1031
Q

Cause of infertility from varicocele?

A

Increased scrotal temperature

1032
Q

Cause of pretibial edema?I

A

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

1033
Q

Holosystolic murmur heart of the left sternal border?

A

Pulmonary regurgitation

1034
Q

5 days after pancreatoduodenectomy , what type of feeding should be used?

A

Enteral tube feedings

1035
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Acute, nodular, erythematous eruption on the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Associated with hypersensitivity reactions

1036
Q

What someone falls from a height, what X-rays should be ordered?

A

C-spine

1037
Q

What should be the first step in the treatment of a woman with breast cancer?

A

Resect the mass, then treat with chemo/rad

1038
Q

How can heart failure develop from an aneurysm?

A

Lead to the development of a fistula

1039
Q

What can cause narrowing of the biliary ducts?

A

cancer (specifically pancreatic), strictures (trauma)

1040
Q

Most common organism causing lymphangitis?

A

Strep pyo (group A)

1041
Q

How can you minimize the risk of infection from a PICC?

A

Remove it as soon as treatment/use is complete

1042
Q

Osgood-Schkatter disease

A

Painful lump below the kneecap in children during puberty, can cause a limp

1043
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

Blood flow is interrupted to the femoral head in children, can cause necrosis

1044
Q

How do you manage sigmoid volvulus?

A

Sigmoidoscopy-guided placement of a rectal tube

1045
Q

What should be the first step in management of an unknown mass on an HIV patient?

A

Biopsy

1046
Q

What is a pneumatocele?

A

cavity in the lung parenchyma filled with air that may result from pulmonary trauma during mechanical ventilation

1047
Q

Written description of C- Diff infection?

A

Patchy, white mucosa on colonoscopy

1048
Q

Diffusely enlarged thyroid gland with neck swelling and no symptoms of decreased thyroid?

A

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis (Hashimoto disease)

1049
Q

Long-term growth (> 6 months) on glans penis with negative VDRL test?

A

Penis cancer

1050
Q

How do you counteract the effects of propofol?

A

Dopamine

1051
Q

borborygmi

A

a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines

1052
Q

What is a major complication risk from AAA repair?

A

MI

1053
Q

diaphoretic

A

Sweating heavily

1054
Q

C8 radiculopathy

A

causes pain from the neck to the hand. Patients may experience weakness in hand grip, and pain and numbness can radiate along the inner side of the arm, ring, and little fingers.

1055
Q

C7 radiculopathy

A

(the most common) causes pain and/or weakness from the neck to the hand and can include the triceps (the muscles on the back of the upper arms) and the middle finge

1056
Q

C6 radiculopathy

A

(one of the most common), causes pain and/or weakness along the length of the arm, including the biceps (the muscles in front of the upper arms), wrists, and the thumb and index finger.

1057
Q

C5 radiculopathy

A

can cause pain and/or weakness in the shoulders and upper arms. Especially may cause discomfort around the shoulder blades. It rarely causes numbness or tingling.

1058
Q

Child with current-jelly stools?

A

Intussusception

1059
Q

How to treat intussusception?

A

Control enema

1060
Q

Cause of subcutaneous emphysema?

A

Tension pneumothorax

1061
Q

When giving large amounts of packed RBC’s, what must be added?

A

Platelets

1062
Q

Should volume support or patient transport during traumas come first?

A

Urban areas with close trauma center - transport All other areas- resuscitate

1063
Q

How to treat rib fractures in the elderly?

A

Local nerve block and epidural catheter

1064
Q

What should be done with all gunshot wounds to the abdomen?

A

Exploratory Laparotomy

1065
Q

What treatments should be provided for a through-and-through extremity gunshot wound?

A

Tetanus prophylaxis

1066
Q

When can early excision and grafting be used?

A

Small (

1067
Q

What degree of angulation is unacceptable in children (compared to adults)

A

Larger amounts

1068
Q

How are intertrochaneric fractures treated?

A

ORIF with anticoagulation

1069
Q

“tip of the finger remains flexed when the rest of the fingers are extended

A

Malley

1070
Q

Common cause of coma in a cirrhotic patient with bleeding varices?

A

Ammonium toxicities

1071
Q

Liters of drainage from an upper GI wound?

A

fluid replacement, nutritional support, protection of the abdominal wall

1072
Q

Old man with blood on the outside of his stool?

A

Hemorrhoids

1073
Q

Sources of inflammation in the left lower quadrant of women?

A

Diverticulitis, tube, ovary Diagnose with CT

1074
Q

Acute edematous pancreatitis

A

Alcoholics of gallstones Pain after large meal or EtOH _> constant, radiates to back-> nausea, vomiting, retching

1075
Q

Vascular rings

A

stridor, “crowing”, baby assumes hyperextended neck Bronchoscopy shows segmental compression of the trachea Tx- surgical division

1076
Q

What type of catheter is used for embolectomy of an atrial clot from a. fib?

A

Fogarty

1077
Q

Small, raised, waxy lesion

A

Basal cell carcinoma

1078
Q

non-healing ulcer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

1079
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinoma found?

A

Lower lip and below on face

1080
Q

Where do you biopsy a basal cell carcinoma?

A

Edge of the lesion

1081
Q

Amblyopia

A

vision impairment resulting from interference with the processing of images by the brain during the firs t6-7 years of life

1082
Q

How to treat trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Anti-convulsants (carbamazapine)

1083
Q

Sudden testicular pain, pyuria, fever

A

acute epididymitis

1084
Q

acute epididymitis- treatment

A

Abx and sonogram to rule out torsion

1085
Q

Uropelvic junction obstruction signs

A

Intense pain when large diuresis occurs (beer drinking)

1086
Q

How do you treat testicular cancer?

A

platinum-based therapies

1087
Q

Treatment for impotence-first line?

A

Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil

1088
Q

What is mandatory for all abdominal bullet wounds?

A

Ex Lap

1089
Q

Abdominal mass that moves up and down in a baby

A

Malignant tumor of the liver ie-hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma

1090
Q

Child class factors to deny surgery

A

albumin below 2, INR 2 x normal, ascites

1091
Q

bilateral pulmonary infiltrates with low PO2

A

ARDS, PEEP

1092
Q

How do you obtain samples from a breast?

A

US guided imaging

1093
Q

Back pain in woman who recently has breast cancer?

A

Metastatic spread, diagnose with MRI

1094
Q

Signs of Zollinger-Ellison disease

A

Refractory to other treatments, multiple ulcers

1095
Q

Double bubble with normal gas

A

Malrotation

1096
Q

Square root sign

A

Chronic constrictive pericarditis

1097
Q

Workup for squamous cell carcinoma of the mucosa?

A

Panendoscopy

1098
Q

1 week post- otitis media infection: projectile vomiting, seizures, blurred vision, severe headache

A

Brain abscess

1099
Q

Why a newborn does not urinate during the first day after birth?

A

posterior urethral valves

1100
Q

Intervention for UPJ stones larger than 7mm

A

extraperitoneal shock-wave lithotripsy

1101
Q

Standard bolus for burns

A

1000mL/hr 30-120mL/hr

1102
Q

How do you test an animal for rabies?

A

Kill the animal and scan its brain

1103
Q

Chubby 13 year old boy limping, complaining of knee pain, sole of affected foot points towards the other one

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

1104
Q

arm held close to the body

A

Posterior shoulder dislocation, axillary/scapula xrays needed for diagnosis

1105
Q

In an ejection, what should always be imaged?

A

C-spine (CT scan)

1106
Q

How to treat lumbar disk herniation?

A

MRI of L4-S1, pain control with nerve blocks

1107
Q

Morton neuroma

A

inflammation of the common digital nerve in the third space

1108
Q

Signs of PE?

A

pleuritic (sudden onset), sob, diaphoretic, tachycardic, distended veins in neck and face

1109
Q

Cause of blood in rectum from child?

A

Merkel’s diverticulum, workup with technetium scan

1110
Q

First step in the workup for pancreatic cancer?

A

CT of the abdomen

1111
Q

First step in workup for a palpable breast mass?

A

US guided core biopsy

1112
Q

What are burns near the eyes covered with?

A

Triple abx ointment

1113
Q

Trashing around with sudden pain?

A

Stone stuck in ureter

1114
Q

If a patient is stable, which test is most sensitive for blood?

A

CT

1115
Q

How to treat acute rejection?

A

Tacrolimus or Mycophenolate mofetil with/without steroids

1116
Q

Patient passing stone suddenly spikes a fever

A

ER immediately, nephrostomy tube placement

1117
Q

How to workup claudication?

A

Doppler studies

1118
Q

Knee to chest position in children?

A

Ependymoma

1119
Q

Stumbling around and truncal ataxia in children?

A

Medulloblastoma

1120
Q

Contraindication to organ donation?

A

Positive HIV status

1121
Q

In a patient with weakness and decreased pain in both legs, what type of injury is suspected? Action?

A

Lower spinal cord injury, insert urinary catheter to assess for urinary retention and prevent bladder injury

1122
Q

Signs of cardiac temponade?

A

hypotension (unresponsive to IV fluids), tachycardia, and elevated jugular venous pressure after blunt thoracic trauma

1123
Q

How is duodenal hematoma treated?

A

NG suction and parenteral nutrition

1124
Q

What is the first step in management of damage to the urethral meatus?

A

retrograde urethrogram

1125
Q

Use of NSAIDS with episodic postprandial epigastric pain?

A

Perforated peptic ulcer

1126
Q

How to treat perforated peptic ulcers?

A

NG suction, bowel rest, intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics, IV PPI

1127
Q

Signs of acute adrenal insufficiency?

A

Severe and often refractory hypotension, vomiting, abdominal pain and fever

1128
Q

Signs of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

hyponatremia and hyperkalemia

1129
Q

Best management of acute appendicitis?

A

Laparoscopic appendectomy

1130
Q

Epigastric pain/tenderness, weight loss in the setting of nonspecific systemic symptoms and significant smoking history?

A

Cancer of the upper GI or associated organs…think gallbladder, liver, pancreas

1131
Q

Classic description of pain in pancreatic cancer?

A

Abdominal pain that is insidious, gnawing, and worse at night

1132
Q

Varicocele-signs? Diagnostic method?

A

soft mass that worsens with standing and Valsalva maneuvers, but decreases when supine, does not transilluminated Diagnostic- US

1133
Q

Varicocele treatment?

A

NSAIDS or surgical correction

1134
Q

How do you manage small pneumothorax? Large?

A

Small- supplemental O2 Large- Needle thoracostomy/chest tube

1135
Q

Young male (20s) without trauma has pneumothorax?

A

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

1136
Q

Differential for anterior mediastinal mass?

A
  1. Thymoma 2. teratoma 3. thyroid neoplasm 4. Lymphoma
1137
Q

Mediastinal mass with elevated AFP and b-HCG?

A

mixed cell germ tumor

1138
Q

Femoral nerve innervation

A

hip joint and skin of the anterior and medial thigh and leg

1139
Q

Child with current-jelly stools?

A

Intussusception

1140
Q

What is mandatory for all abdominal bullet wounds?

A

Ex Lap

1141
Q

Contraindication to organ donation?

A

Positive HIV status

1142
Q

Stumbling around and truncal ataxia in children?

A

Medulloblastoma

1143
Q

Knee to chest position in children?

A

Ependymoma

1144
Q

How to workup claudication?

A

Doppler studies

1145
Q

Patient passing stone suddenly spikes a fever

A

ER immediately, nephrostomy tube placement

1146
Q

How to treat acute rejection?

A

Tacrolimus or Mycophenolate mofetil with/without steroids

1147
Q

If a patient is stable, which test is most sensitive for blood?

A

CT

1148
Q

Trashing around with sudden pain?

A

Stone stuck in ureter

1149
Q

What are burns near the eyes covered with?

A

Triple abx ointment

1150
Q

First step in workup for a palpable breast mass?

A

US guided core biopsy

1151
Q

First step in the workup for pancreatic cancer?

A

CT of the abdomen

1152
Q

Cause of blood in rectum from child?

A

Merkel’s diverticulum, workup with technetium scan

1153
Q

Signs of PE?

A

pleuritic (sudden onset), sob, diaphoretic, tachycardic, distended veins in neck and face

1154
Q

Morton neuroma

A

inflammation of the common digital nerve in the third space

1155
Q

How to treat lumbar disk herniation?

A

MRI of L4-S1, pain control with nerve blocks

1156
Q

In an ejection, what should always be imaged?

A

C-spine (CT scan)

1157
Q

arm held close to the body

A

Posterior shoulder dislocation, axillary/scapula xrays needed for diagnosis

1158
Q

Chubby 13 year old boy limping, complaining of knee pain, sole of affected foot points towards the other one

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

1159
Q

How do you test an animal for rabies?

A

Kill the animal and scan its brain

1160
Q

Standard bolus for burns

A

1000mL/hr 30-120mL/hr

1161
Q

Intervention for UPJ stones larger than 7mm

A

extraperitoneal shock-wave lithotripsy

1162
Q

Why a newborn does not urinate during the first day after birth?

A

posterior urethral valves

1163
Q

1 week post- otitis media infection: projectile vomiting, seizures, blurred vision, severe headache

A

Brain abscess

1164
Q

Workup for squamous cell carcinoma of the mucosa?

A

Panendoscopy

1165
Q

Square root sign

A

Chronic constrictive pericarditis

1166
Q

Double bubble with normal gas

A

Malrotation

1167
Q

Signs of Zollinger-Ellison disease

A

Refractory to other treatments, multiple ulcers

1168
Q

Back pain in woman who recently has breast cancer?

A

Metastatic spread, diagnose with MRI

1169
Q

How do you obtain samples from a breast?

A

US guided imaging

1170
Q

bilateral pulmonary infiltrates with low PO2

A

ARDS, PEEP

1171
Q

Child class factors to deny surgery

A

albumin below 2, INR 2 x normal, ascites

1172
Q

Abdominal mass that moves up and down in a baby

A

Malignant tumor of the liver ie-hepatoblastoma or hepatocellular carcinoma

1173
Q

Treatment for impotence-first line?

A

Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil

1174
Q

How do you treat testicular cancer?

A

platinum-based therapies

1175
Q

Uropelvic junction obstruction signs

A

Intense pain when large diuresis occurs (beer drinking)

1176
Q

acute epididymitis- treatment

A

Abx and sonogram to rule out torsion

1177
Q

Sudden testicular pain, pyuria, fever

A

acute epididymitis

1178
Q

How to treat trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Anti-convulsants (carbamazapine)

1179
Q

Amblyopia

A

vision impairment resulting from interference with the processing of images by the brain during the firs t6-7 years of life

1180
Q

Where do you biopsy a basal cell carcinoma?

A

Edge of the lesion

1181
Q

Where are squamous cell carcinoma found?

A

Lower lip and below on face

1182
Q

non-healing ulcer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

1183
Q

Small, raised, waxy lesion

A

Basal cell carcinoma

1184
Q

What type of catheter is used for embolectomy of an atrial clot from a. fib?

A

Fogarty

1185
Q

Vascular rings

A

stridor, “crowing”, baby assumes hyperextended neck Bronchoscopy shows segmental compression of the trachea Tx- surgical division

1186
Q

Acute edematous pancreatitis

A

Alcoholics of gallstones Pain after large meal or EtOH _> constant, radiates to back-> nausea, vomiting, retching

1187
Q

Sources of inflammation in the left lower quadrant of women?

A

Diverticulitis, tube, ovary Diagnose with CT

1188
Q

Old man with blood on the outside of his stool?

A

Hemorrhoids

1189
Q

Liters of drainage from an upper GI wound?

A

fluid replacement, nutritional support, protection of the abdominal wall

1190
Q

Common cause of coma in a cirrhotic patient with bleeding varices?

A

Ammonium toxicities

1191
Q

“tip of the finger remains flexed when the rest of the fingers are extended

A

Malley

1192
Q

How are intertrochaneric fractures treated?

A

ORIF with anticoagulation

1193
Q

What degree of angulation is unacceptable in children (compared to adults)

A

Larger amounts

1194
Q

When can early excision and grafting be used?

A

Small (

1195
Q

What treatments should be provided for a through-and-through extremity gunshot wound?

A

Tetanus prophylaxis

1196
Q

What should be done with all gunshot wounds to the abdomen?

A

Exploratory Laparotomy

1197
Q

How to treat rib fractures in the elderly?

A

Local nerve block and epidural catheter

1198
Q

Should volume support or patient transport during traumas come first?

A

Urban areas with close trauma center - transport All other areas- resuscitate

1199
Q

When giving large amounts of packed RBC’s, what must be added?

A

Platelets

1200
Q

Cause of subcutaneous emphysema?

A

Tension pneumothorax

1201
Q

How to treat intussusception?

A

Control enema

1202
Q

C5 radiculopathy

A

can cause pain and/or weakness in the shoulders and upper arms. Especially may cause discomfort around the shoulder blades. It rarely causes numbness or tingling.

1203
Q

C6 radiculopathy

A

(one of the most common), causes pain and/or weakness along the length of the arm, including the biceps (the muscles in front of the upper arms), wrists, and the thumb and index finger.

1204
Q

C7 radiculopathy

A

(the most common) causes pain and/or weakness from the neck to the hand and can include the triceps (the muscles on the back of the upper arms) and the middle finge

1205
Q

C8 radiculopathy

A

causes pain from the neck to the hand. Patients may experience weakness in hand grip, and pain and numbness can radiate along the inner side of the arm, ring, and little fingers.

1206
Q

diaphoretic

A

Sweating heavily

1207
Q

What is a major complication risk from AAA repair?

A

MI

1208
Q

borborygmi

A

a rumbling or gurgling noise made by the movement of fluid and gas in the intestines

1209
Q

How do you counteract the effects of propofol?

A

Dopamine

1210
Q

Long-term growth (> 6 months) on glans penis with negative VDRL test?

A

Penis cancer

1211
Q

Diffusely enlarged thyroid gland with neck swelling and no symptoms of decreased thyroid?

A

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis (Hashimoto disease)

1212
Q

Written description of C- Diff infection?

A

Patchy, white mucosa on colonoscopy

1213
Q

What is a pneumatocele?

A

cavity in the lung parenchyma filled with air that may result from pulmonary trauma during mechanical ventilation

1214
Q

What should be the first step in management of an unknown mass on an HIV patient?

A

Biopsy

1215
Q

How do you manage sigmoid volvulus?

A

Sigmoidoscopy-guided placement of a rectal tube

1216
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

A

Blood flow is interrupted to the femoral head in children, can cause necrosis

1217
Q

Osgood-Schkatter disease

A

Painful lump below the kneecap in children during puberty, can cause a limp

1218
Q

How can you minimize the risk of infection from a PICC?

A

Remove it as soon as treatment/use is complete

1219
Q

Most common organism causing lymphangitis?

A

Strep pyo (group A)

1220
Q

What can cause narrowing of the biliary ducts?

A

cancer (specifically pancreatic), strictures (trauma)

1221
Q

How can heart failure develop from an aneurysm?

A

Lead to the development of a fistula

1222
Q

What should be the first step in the treatment of a woman with breast cancer?

A

Resect the mass, then treat with chemo/rad

1223
Q

What someone falls from a height, what X-rays should be ordered?

A

C-spine

1224
Q

What is erythema nodosum?

A

Acute, nodular, erythematous eruption on the extensor aspects of the lower legs. Associated with hypersensitivity reactions

1225
Q

5 days after pancreatoduodenectomy , what type of feeding should be used?

A

Enteral tube feedings

1226
Q

Holosystolic murmur heart of the left sternal border?

A

Pulmonary regurgitation

1227
Q

Cause of pretibial edema?I

A

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance

1228
Q

Cause of infertility from varicocele?

A

Increased scrotal temperature

1229
Q

Signs of diaphragmatic hernia?

A

blunt abdominal trauma with mild respiratory distress and abnormal xray **smaller hernias present with nausea/vomiting and are delayed

1230
Q

Signs of esophageal stricture?

A

Dysphagia, no abdominal succussion splash

1231
Q

Signs of pyloric strictures

A

postprandial pain, vomiting with early satiety, succussion splash on the epigastrium

1232
Q

Signs of arterial thrombosis

A

Slow, progressive narrowing of the vascular lumen Pulses are diminished bilaterally (normally)

1233
Q

Symptoms in arterial embolism?

A

sudden and severe, with diminished pulses in the affected limb, but normal in the unaffected

1234
Q

blunt thoracic trauma, respiratory distress despite bilateral chest tubes

A

Flail chest, demonstrate tachypnea, shallow breaths

1235
Q

Signs of septal perforation?

A

whistling noise during respiration, caused by post-operative septal hematoma

1236
Q

post-operative thoracic surgery, fever, tachycardia, chest pain, leukocytosis, and sternal wound drainage or purulent discharge?

A

Acute mediastinitis, TX- surgical debridement and antibiotic therapy

1237
Q

Signs of meniscal tears?

A

pain, clicking, or catching

1238
Q

blunt abdominal trauma, hypotension, right chest/abdominal wall injury, and free intraperitoneal fluid

A

Hepatic laceration

1239
Q

Important steps in the preoperative management of a patient taking Warfarin?

A

Check INR, reverse with fresh, frozen plasma

1240
Q

Signs of gallstone ileus

A

stuttering episodes of nausea and vomiting, pneumobilia, hyperactive bowel sounds, dilated loops of bowels

1241
Q

Signs of sepsis

A

worsening hyperglycemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytopenia, milk hypothermia, tachypnea, tachycardia

1242
Q

Complications associated with supracondylar fracture of the humerus

A

Brachial artery injury Median nerve injury Cubitus varus deformity Compartment syndrome/Volkman ischemic contracture

1243
Q

Trochanteric bursitis- definition? Signs?

A

definition- inglammation of the curse surrounding the insertion of the gluteus medius onto the femur’s trochanter signs- hip pain when pressure is applied and with external or resisted abduction

1244
Q

Signs of SBO strangulation?

A

peritoneal signs (rigidity, rebound) signs of shock (fever, tachycardia, leukocytosis)

1245
Q

Signs of abdominal aortic aneurysm rupture?

A

severe back pain, syncope, profound hypotension

1246
Q

What is the drop arm test?

A

Detects a tear in the supraspinatus; arm is abducted passively above head and they are instructed to lower it slowly

1247
Q

Risk factors for acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Atherosclerosis Embolic source hypercoagulable disorders

1248
Q

Clinical signs of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Rapid onset of periumbilical pain Pain out of proportion to examination findings hematochezia

1249
Q

How does cervical impingement present?

A

pain and paresthesias of the neck and arm along with upper extremity weakness

1250
Q

Signs of rotator cuff impingement

A

pain with abduction, external rotation subacromial tenderness normal range of motion with positive impingement tests (Neer, Hawkins)

1251
Q

Torus palatinus? Tx?

A

benign, bony growth located on the mid-line suture of the hard palate No treatment necessary unless systemic effects develop or it interferes with speech

1252
Q

How does an anterior should dislocation occur?

A

forceful abduction and external rotation a the glenohumeral joint; risks damage to the axillary nerve

1253
Q

Organism most likely responsible for infection from intravascular devices?

A

Coagulase negative s. epi

1254
Q

Signs of fat embolism?

A

severe respiratory distress, petechial rash, subconjuctival hemorrhage, tachycardia, tachypnea, and fever

1255
Q

What is the cause of postoperative fever more than 1 months post-surgery

A

Viral infections, indolent organisms

1256
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 1-4 weeks post surgery?

A

Other organisms (nor GAS, C. perfringens), C difficile, drug fever, PE/DVT

1257
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 1-7 days after surgery?

A

Nosocomial infections, Group A streptcoccus, or C. perfringens

1258
Q

What is the postoperative cause of fever 0-2 hours after surgery?

A

Prior trauma/infection, blood products, malignant hyperthermia

1259
Q

Sites for ischemic colitis? Imaging signs? How to confirm?

A

Splenic flexure, rectosigmoid junction CT scan may show thickened bowel wall Confirm with colonoscopy

1260
Q

acute abdominal pain followed by lower GI bleeding after an episode of hypotension?

A

Ischemic colitis

1261
Q

When should you considerd surgical interventions for anal fissures?

A

When medical management has failed

1262
Q

Hoe do you treat anal fissures?

A

topical anesthetics, vasodilators (nifedipine) Sitz baths stool softeners high-fiber diet & adequate fluid intake

1263
Q

When should conservative management be used for menscal tear? Examples?

A

Short-term pain, elderly Example: rest, NSAIDs

1264
Q

how to diagnose meniscal tears?

A

MRI

1265
Q

Physical signs of a meniscal tear?

A

joint line tenderness, pain or catching in the provocative tests (Thessaly, McMurray

1266
Q

Pulmonary contusion-CXR results

A

patchy irregular alveolar infiltrate

1267
Q

Physical signs of pulmonary contusions?

A

tachycardia, hypoxia, tachypenea

1268
Q

When do patients show signs of pulmonary contusions?

A

Approx. 4 hours post-injury when hypoxia, respiratory distress, pulmonary edema set in

1269
Q

What is required when starting Warfarin?

A

Heparin bridge- warfarin activates proteins C and S causing a transient prothrombotic state

1270
Q

Preferred anticoagulant in end-stage renal failure patients?

A

Warfarin

1271
Q

Postoperative cholestasis-signs?

A

hypotension, blood loss into tissues, massive blood load (transfusion), decrease liver functionalty, decreased renal bilirubin excretion with normal ALT/AST

1272
Q

Signs of deep vein thrombosis?

A

alf tenderness with pain worsened by passive stretching of the calf.

1273
Q

Signs of compartment syndrome?

A
  1. Pain out of proportion to injury 2. Pain increasing on passive stretch 3. rapidly increasing & tense swelling 4. paresthesia (early)
1274
Q

How does mesenteric ischemia present?

A

sudden periumbilical abdominal pain out of proportion to examination findings

1275
Q

How to treat acalculous cholecystitis acutely? Definitively?

A

Acutely- percutaneous cholecystostomy and antibiotics Definitively- cholecystectomy with drainage of associated abscessess

1276
Q

Gallbladder distension and wall thickening, presence of pericholecystic fluid, without gallstones

A

acalculous cholecystitis

1277
Q

pneumothorax despite chest tube, pneumomediastinum subcutaneous emphysema

A

tracheobronchial perforation (right bronchus is most common

1278
Q

pneumomediastinum and pleural effusions-cause?

A

esophageal rupture

1279
Q

Complications from cardiac catheterization

A

pseudoaneurysm, arteriovenous fistular formation, arterial dissection, acute thrombosis

1280
Q

cardiac catheterization, anticoagulation, sudden hypotension, tachycardia, flat neck veins, back pain

A

retroperitoneal hematoma

1281
Q

soft mass that worsens with standing and Valsalva maneuvers, but decreases when supine; does not transilluminate

A

varicocele

1282
Q

Classic association with pancreatic cancer? Name?

A

migratory thrombophlebitis Trousseau sign

1283
Q

type of pain experiences with pancreatic cancer?

A

epigastric abdominal pain that is insidious. gnawing, and worse at night

1284
Q

epigastroc pain/tenderness and weight loss with nonspecific systemic symptoms with significant smoking history

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

1285
Q

When are US and CT used in acute appendicitis?

A

when classic presentation/signs are not present

1286
Q

migratory RLQ pain, nausea, vomiting, fever, leukocytosis

A

acute appendicitis

1287
Q

Etiology of adrenal insufficiency?

A

adrenal hemorrhage/infarction acute illness/injury/surgery in patient with chronic adrenal insufficiency or long-term glucocorticoid use

1288
Q

Signs of adrenal insufficiency?

A

hypoension/shock weakness nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fever

1289
Q

periumbilical pain out of proportion to examination and hematochezia?

A

acute mesenteric ischemia Gold standard diagnosis is mesenteric angiography

1290
Q

Initial management for perforated peptic ulcer

A

NG suction, bowel rest, intravenous fluids, broad spectrum Abx ad intravenous PPI

1291
Q

NSAID use with several-day history of epigastric pain followed by acute-onset sevfere constant pain?

A

perforated peptic ulcer

1292
Q

How to diagnose bladder trauam?

A

Retrograde cystogram with post-void films

1293
Q

Signs of urethral injury?

A

blood at the urethral meatus, inability to void, high-riding prostate on DRE

1294
Q

How do patients with duodenal hematomas present? Etiology?

A

epigastric pain and vomiting d/t blood collection between the submucosal and muscular layers of the duodenum

1295
Q

When should you suspect diaphragmatic rupture?

A

History of blunt trauma/MVA, abnormal CXR, left lower lung opacity, elevated hemidiaphragm, and mediastinal deviation

1296
Q

Initial management of coughing with large amounts of blood (>600mL or 100mL/hour)?

A

Secure airway

1297
Q

Hemoptysis with upper lung lobe involvment? Initial step?

A

TB, Isolation

1298
Q

How to treat a pancreatic abscess

A

Immediate placement of a percutaneous drainage catheter, culture of the drained fluid and surgical debridement

1299
Q

Signs of retroperitoneal abscesses?

A

fever, child, and deep abdominal pain may initially be missed by a CT scan

1300
Q

How do you store an amputated limb?

A

Place in saline moistened gauze and then in a plastic bag on ice…bring it wherever the patient goes.

1301
Q

What are the signs of arterial occlusion?

A

Pain, pallor, paresthesias, pulselessness, and coolness to the touch

1302
Q

How does venous insufficiency present?

A

worsens throughout the day and resolves overnight when the patient is recumbent

1303
Q

When do you give tetanus immune globulin?

A

severe or dirty wound with unsure vaccination history

1304
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in a dirty or severe wound?

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine only if booster > 5 years ago If unsure, tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine plus tetanus immune globulin

1305
Q

Tetanus prophylaxis in a clean or minor wound?

A

Tetanus toxoid-containing vaccine only if

1306
Q

How does pneumonia that is developing into septic shock present? Treatment?

A

acidosis, low urine output, hypotension, tachypnea, fever Tx- IV normal saline

1307
Q

How do you counteract a decrease in blood pressure after administration of propofol?

A

Administer dopamine

1308
Q

Syndrome associated with arterial occlusion at the bifurcation of the aorta?

A

Leriche Syndrome

1309
Q

Leriche syndrome

A

bilateral hip, thigh, buttock claudication impotence symmetric atrophy of the bilateral extremities due to ischemia

1310
Q

Patient response to atelectasis?

A

Hyperventilation -> respo. alkalosis, decreased pCO2

1311
Q

Effects of uncal herniation?

A
  1. Ipsilateral hemiparesis 2. parasympathetic loss (mydriasis (early) ptosis, 3. Contralateral homonymous hemianopdia 4. altered level of consciousness
1312
Q

Signs of elevated intracranial pressure?

A

HTN, bradycardia, respiratory depression (Cushing’s reflex)

1313
Q

Initial management of non-displaced scaphoid bone fracture?

A

Wrist immobilization for 6-10weeks, with x-rays in7-10 days

1314
Q

Mediastinal mass with nomral b-HCG and AFP?

A

Thymomas

1315
Q

Elevated serum b-HCG with normal AFP?

A

seminoma