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5200: Structural Integrity > USMLE-First Aid : Adaptations, Inflammation and Neoplasm > Flashcards

USMLE-First Aid : Adaptations, Inflammation and Neoplasm Flashcards

1
Q

Cellular Adaptations

A

Reversible changes that can be physiologic or pathologic. If stress is excessive or persistent, adaptations can progress to cell injury.

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2
Q

Hypertrophy

A

↑ structural proteins and organelles → ↑ in size of cells. Example: cardiac hypertrophy.

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3
Q

Hyperplasia

A

Controlled proliferation of stem cells and differentiated cells→ ↑ in number of cells.

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4
Q

Atrophy

A

↓ in tissue mass due to ↓ in size and/or number of cells (apoptosis).

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5
Q

Metaplasia

A

Reprogramming of stem cells → replacement of one cell type by another that can adapt to a new stress. Usually due to exposure to an irritant.

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6
Q

Dysplasia

A

Disordered, precancerous epithelial cell growth; not considered a true adaptive response. Characterized by loss of uniformity of cell size and shape (pleomorphism); loss of tissue orientation; nuclear changes

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7
Q

Coagulative Necrosis - Seen in :

A

Ischemia/infarcts in most tissues (except brain)

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8
Q

Coagulative Necrosis - Due to:

A

Ischemia or infarction; injury denatures enzymes → proteolysis blocked

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9
Q

Coagulative Necrosis - Histology:

A

Preserved cellular architecture (cell outlines seen), but nuclei disappear; ↑ cytoplasmic binding of eosin stain

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10
Q

Liquefactive Necrosis - Seen in :

A

Bacterial abscesses, brain infarcts

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11
Q

Liquefactive Necrosis - Due to:

A

Neutrophils/Microglia release lysosomal enzymes that

digest the tissue

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12
Q

Liquefactive Necrosis - Histology:

A

Early: cellular debris and macrophages
Late: cystic spaces and cavitation (brain)
Neutrophils and cell debris seen with
bacterial infection

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13
Q

Caseous Necrosis - Seen in :

A

TB, systemic fungi

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14
Q

Caseous Necrosis - Due to:

A

Macrophages wall off the infecting microorganism → granular debris

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15
Q

Caseous Necrosis - Histology:

A

Fragmented cells and debris surrounded

by lymphocytes and macrophages (granuloma)

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16
Q

Fat Necrosis - Seen in :

A

Enzymatic: acute pancreatitis (saponification of
peripancreatic fat)
Nonenzymatic: traumatic (eg, injury to breast tissue)

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17
Q

Fat Necrosis - Due to:

A

Damaged pancreatic cells release lipase,

which breaks down triglycerides; liberated fatty acids bind calcium → saponification (chalky white appearance)

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18
Q

Fat Necrosis - Histology:

A

Outlines of dead fat cells without peripheral nuclei; saponification of fat (combined with Ca2+) appears dark blue on H&E stain

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19
Q

Fibrinoid Necrosis - Seen in :

A

Immune vascular reactions (eg, Polyarteritis Nodosa)
Nonimmune vascular reactions
(eg, hypertensive emergency-Renal vessels, preeclampsia-Placenta)

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20
Q

Fibrinoid Necrosis - Due to:

A

Immune complex deposition (type III
hypersensitivity reaction) and/or plasma protein
(eg, fibrin) leakage from damaged vessel

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21
Q

Fibrinoid Necrosis - Histology:

A

Vessel walls are thick and pink

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22
Q

Gangrenous Necrosis - Seen in :

A

Distal extremity and GI tract, after chronic ischemia

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23
Q

Gangrenous Necrosis - Due to:

A

Dry: ischemia
Wet: superinfection

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24
Q

Gangrenous Necrosis - Histology:

A

Dry- Coagulative

Wet - Liquefactive superimposed on coagulative

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25
Q

Ischemia - Most Prone Regions: Heart

A

Subendocardium (LV)

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26
Q

Ischemia -Most Prone Regions: Brain - Watershed areas

A 
Watershed areas (border zones) receive blood supply from most distal branches of 2 arteries with limited collateral vascularity. (From ACA,MCA,PCA)
(This is also relevant for GI)
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27
Q

Ischemia -Most Prone Regions: Brain - Neurons most vulnerables

A

Purkinje cells of the cerebellum and pyramidal cells of the hippocampus and neocortex (zones 3, 5, 6).

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28
Q

Ischemia -Most Prone Regions: Kidney

A

Straight segment of proximal tubule (PT-medulla)

Thick ascending limb (TAL-medulla)

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29
Q

Ischemia -Most Prone Regions: Liver

A

Area around central vein (zone III)

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30
Q

Ischemia -Most Prone Regions: Colon

A 
Splenic flexure (Griffith point),a rectosigmoid
junction (Sudeck point)
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31
Q

Red infarct

A

Occurs in venous occlusion and tissues with
multiple blood supplies (eg, liver, lung , intestine, testes), and with reperfusion (eg, after angioplasty). Reperfusion injury is due to damage by free radicals.

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32
Q

Pale infarct

A 
Occurs in solid organs with a single (endarterial)
blood supply (eg, heart, kidney)
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33
Q

Systemic Amyloidosis:

Primary amyloidosis - Fibril and When is it seen?

A

AL (from Ig Light chains). Seen in Plasma cell disorders

eg, multiple myeloma

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34
Q

Systemic Amyloidosis:

Secondary amyloidosis - Fibril and When is it seen?

A

Serum Amyloid A (AA). Seen in chronic inflammatory
conditions, (eg, rheumatoid arthritis, IBD, familial
Mediterranean fever, protracted infection)

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35
Q

Systemic Amyloidosis:

Dialysis-related amyloidosis- Fibril and When is it seen?

A

β2-microglobulin. ESRD and long term dialysis

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36
Q

Localized Amyloidosis:

Alzheimer disease - Fibril

A

β-amyloid protein

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37
Q

Localized Amyloidosis:

Type 2 diabetes mellitus - Fibril

A

Islet amyloid polypeptide

IAPP

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38
Q

Localized Amyloidosis:

Medullary thyroid cancer - Fibril

A

Calcitonin

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39
Q

Localized Amyloidosis:

Isolated atrial amyloidosis - Fibril

A

ANP

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40
Q 
Localized Amyloidosis:
Systemic senile (age related) amyloidosis
A

Normal (wild-type) transthyretin (TTR)

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41
Q

Familial amyloid cardiomyopathy or polyneuropathies - Fibril

A

Mutated transthyretin (ATTR)

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42
Q

Detection of Amyloidosis

A

Congo red stain, apple-green birefringence

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43
Q

Common systemic menifestations of Amyloidosis

A

Restrictive cardiomyopathy, Macroglossia, Nephrotic

syndrome, carpal tunnel syndrome and Neuropathy

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44
Q

Rubor (redness), calor (warmth) - Mechanism:

A

Vasodilation by Histamine, prostaglandins, bradykinin, NO

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45
Q

Tumor (swelling-Inflammatory cardinal sign) - Mechanism:

A

Endothelial contraction and Vascular Permeability: leukotrienes (C4, D4, E4), histamine, serotonin

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46
Q

Dolor (pain) - Mechanism:

A

Sensitization of sensory nerve endings - Bradykinin, PGE2, histamine

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47
Q

Ferritin - Is it a Positive or Negative Acute Phase Reactant?

A

Positive Acute Phase Reactant - More FFiSH in the C

Ferritin - Binds and sequesters iron to inhibit microbial iron scavenging.

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48
Q

Fibrinogen - Is it a Positive or Negative Acute Phase Reactant?

A

Positive Acute Phase Reactant - More FFiSH in the C

Fibrinogen - Coagulation factor; promotes endothelial repair; correlates with ESR.

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49
Q

Serum amyloid A - Is it a Positive or Negative Acute Phase Reactant?

A

Positive Acute Phase Reactant - More FFiSH in the C

Serum amyloid A - Prolonged elevation can lead to amyloidosis.

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50
Q

Hepcidin - Is it a Positive or Negative Acute Phase Reactant?

A

Positive Acute Phase Reactant - More FFiSH in the C
Hepcidin - ↓ iron absorption (by degrading ferroportin) and ↓ iron release (from macrophages) → anemia of
chronic disease.

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51
Q

CRP - Is it a Positive or Negative Acute Phase Reactant?

A

Positive Acute Phase Reactant - More FFiSH in the C
CRP - Opsonin; fixes complement and facilitates phagocytosis. Measured clinically as a nonspecific sign of ongoing inflammation.

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52
Q

Albumin - Is it a Positive or Negative Acute Phase Reactant?

A

Negative Acute Phase Reactant

Albumin - Reduction conserves amino acids for positive reactants.

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53
Q

Transferrin - Is it a Positive or Negative Acute Phase Reactant?

A

Negative Acute Phase Reactant

Transferrin - Internalized by macrophages to sequester iron.

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54
Q

When is ESR elevated?

A

Most anemias, Infections, Inflammation, Cancer, Renal disease and Pregnancy

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55
Q

When is ESR lowered?

A

Sickle cell anemia, Polycythemia, HF, Microcytosis

and Hypofibrinogenemia

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56
Q

When is Procalcitonin elevated?

A

Infections - especially of bacterial origin

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57
Q

Wound healing - Tissue mediators:

FGF - Role

A

Stimulates angiogenesis

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58
Q

Wound healing - Tissue mediators:

TGF-β - Role

A

Angiogenesis, fibrosis

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59
Q

Wound healing - Tissue mediators:

VEGF - Role

A

Stimulates angiogenesis

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60
Q

Wound healing - Tissue mediators:

PDGF - Role

A

Remodeling and smooth muscle cell migration.

Stimulates fibroblast growth for collagen synthesis.

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61
Q

Wound healing - Tissue mediators:

Metalloproteinases - Role

A

Tissue remodeling

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62
Q

Wound healing - Tissue mediators:

EGF - Role

A

Stimulates cell growth via tyrosine kinases

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63
Q

Bacterial causes of Granuloma:

A

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis, Mycobacterium Leprae, Bartonella Henselae, Listeria monocytogenes, Treponema pallidum.

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64
Q

Fungal causes of Granuloma:

A

Endemic mycoses (eg; Histoplasmosis)

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65
Q

Protozoa causes of Granuloma:

A

Schistosomiasis

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66
Q

Immune-mediated (Non-Vascular) Etiologies for Granuloma:

A

Sarcoidosis, Crohn’s disease, PBC , subacute Thyroiditis

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67
Q

Vasculitis - Etiologies for Granuloma:

A

Wegener’s Granulomatosis, Churg-Strauss, Giant cell arteritis, Takayasu arteritis

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68
Q

Foreign bodies - Etiologies for Granuloma:

A

Berylliosis, Talcosis, Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

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69
Q

Hereditary Etiology for Granuloma:

A

Chronic Granulomatous disease

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70
Q

Basic Scheme of Neoplastic Progression:

A

Normal cells/Adaptations → Dysplasia → Carcinoma in situ → Invasive carcinoma → Metastasis

71
Q

Carcinoma in situ/ preinvasive

A

Irreversible severe dysplasia that involves the entire thickness of epithelium but does not penetrate the intact basement membrane

72
Q

Invasive carcinoma

A

Cells have invaded basement membrane using collagenases and hydrolases (metalloproteinases).
Cell-cell contacts lost by inactivation of E-cadherin.

73
Q

Anaplasia

A

complete lack of differentiation of cells in a malignant neoplasm.

74
Q

Grade

A

Degree of cellular differentiation and mitotic

activity on histology.

75
Q

Stage

A

T = Tumor size/invasiveness, N = Node

involvement, M = Metastases, eg, cT3N1M0. (more prognostic value than grade)

76
Q

What allows tumors to have Growth signal

self-sufficiency?

A

Mutations in genes encoding:Proto-oncogenes, Growth factor receptors, Signaling molecules, Transcription factors and Cell cycle regulators

77
Q

What allows tumors to have Anti-growth signal

insensitivity?

A

Mutations in tumor suppressor genes and Loss of E-cadherin function

78
Q

What allows tumors to have Limitless replicative potential?

A

Reactivation of telomerase

79
Q

What allows tumors to have Immune evasion?

A

1) ↓ MHC class I expression by tumor cells → cytotoxic T cells are unable to recognize tumor cells.
2) Tumor cells secrete immunosuppressive factors (eg, TGF-β) and recruit regulatory T cells to
down regulate immune response.
3) Tumor cells up regulate immune checkpoint molecules, which inhibit immune response.

80
Q

What is the Warburg effect?

A

Shift of glucose metabolism away from mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation toward glycolysis.

81
Q

Which Type of Cancers metastasize hematogenously?

A

All Carcinomas and 4 specific Types of Sarcomas: Hepatocellular Carcinoma, Renal cell carcinoma, Follicular Thyroid Carcinoma and Choriocarcinoma.

82
Q

Which Type of Cancers metastasize in lymphogenous manner ?

A

All Sarcomas
(EXCEPT FOR 4 specific Types: Hepatocellular Carcinoma, Renal cell carcinoma, Follicular Thyroid Carcinoma and Choriocarcinoma)

83
Q

What are the 3 Immune-checkpoint proteins that are targeted by Immunotherapies?

A

PD-L1
PD-1
CTLA-4

84
Q

What are the 3 Immune-checkpoint proteins that are possible to be overexpressed by tumor cells for evasion?

A

PD-L1
PD-1
CTLA-4

85
Q

Top 3 Mortality rates for Cancer in Men:

A

Cancer mortality in Men

  1. Lung
  2. Prostate
  3. Colon/rectum
86
Q

Top 3 Incidence rates for Cancer in Men:

A

Cancer Incidence in Men

  1. Prostate
  2. Lung
  3. Colon/rectum
87
Q

Top 3 Incidence rates for Cancer in Women:

A

Cancer Incidence in Women

  1. Breast
  2. Lung
  3. Colon/rectum
88
Q

Top 3 Mortality rates for Cancer in Women:

A

Cancer mortality in Men

  1. Lung
  2. Breast
  3. Colon/rectum
89
Q

Top 3 Mortality and Incidence rates for Cancer in Children:

A

Cancer mortality and Incidence in Children:

  1. Leukemia
  2. CNS
  3. Neuroblastoma
90
Q

Brain as a site of Metastasis - Primary Tumor origin of Metastasis:

A

Lung > Breast > Melanoma, Colon, Kidney

91
Q

Liver as a site of Metastasis - Primary Tumor origin of Metastasis:

A

Colon&raquo_space; Stomach > Pancreas

Cancer Sometimes Penetrates liver

92
Q

Bone as a site of Metastasis - Primary Tumor origin of Metastasis:

A

Prostate, Breast > Kidney, Thyroid, Lung

Painful Bones Kill The Lungs

93
Q

Oncogene:

ALK - Associated Neoplasm

A

Lung Adenocarcinoma

94
Q

Oncogene:

BCR-ABL - Associated Neoplasm

A

CML, ALL

95
Q

Oncogene:

BCL-2 - Associated Neoplasm

A

B-Lymphoma

96
Q

Oncogene:

BRAF - Associated Neoplasm

A

Melanoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, papillary

thyroid carcinoma, hairy cell leukemia

97
Q

Oncogene:

c-KIT- Associated Neoplasm

A

GIST

98
Q

Oncogene:

c-MYC - Associated Neoplasm

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

99
Q

Oncogene:

HER2/neu - Associated Neoplasm

A

Breast and gastric carcinomas

100
Q

Oncogene:

JAK2 - Associated Neoplasm

A

Chronic myeloproliferative disorders

101
Q

Oncogene:

KRAS - Associated Neoplasm

A

Colon cancer, lung cancer, pancreatic cancer

102
Q

Oncogene:

MYCL1 - Associated Neoplasm

A

Lung tumor

103
Q

Oncogene:

N-myc - Associated Neoplasm

A

Neuroblastoma

104
Q

Oncogene:

RET - Associated Neoplasm

A

MEN 2A and 2B; papillary thyroid carcinoma,

pheochromocytoma

105
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

APC - Associated Neoplasm

A

Colorectal cancer (associated with FAP)

106
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

BRCA1/BRCA2- Associated Neoplasm

A

Breast, ovarian, and pancreatic cancers

107
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

CDKN2A- Associated Neoplasm

A

Melanoma, pancreatic cancer

108
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

MEN1- Associated Neoplasm

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 - Prolactinoma, VIPoma and Parathyroid Adenoma

109
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

NF1/2- Associated Neoplasm

A

Neurofibromatosis 1 / 2 - Schwannoma, Pheochromocytoma, Meningiomas, Ependymomas

110
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

Rb- Associated Neoplasm

A

Retinoblastoma, Osteosarcoma

111
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

TP53- Associated Neoplasm

A

Most human cancers, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
(multiple malignancies at early age, aka, SBLA
cancer syndrome: Sarcoma, Breast, Leukemia,
Adrenal gland)

112
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

VHL- Associated Neoplasm

A

von Hippel-Lindau: Hemangioblastomas, Renal cell carcinomas, Pheochromocytomas

113
Q

Tumor Suppressor Gene:

WT1- Associated Neoplasm

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

114
Q

Carcinogens - Aflatoxins (Aspergillus):

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Aflatoxins (Aspergillus) from Stored grains and nuts

Hepatocellular carcinoma

115
Q

Carcinogens - Alkylating agents:

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Alkylating agents from Oncologic chemotherapy

Leukemia/lymphoma

116
Q

Carcinogens - Arsenic:

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Arsenic from Herbicides and metal smelting

Angiosarcoma, Lung cancer, Squamous cell carcinoma

117
Q

Carcinogens - Asbestos

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Asbestos from Old roofing material, shipyard

Bronchogenic carcinoma > Mesothelioma

118
Q

Carcinogens - Aflatoxins (Aspergillus):

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Aflatoxins (Aspergillus) from Stored grains and nuts

Hepatocellular carcinoma

119
Q

Carcinogens - Alkylating agents:

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Alkylating agents from Oncologic chemotherapy

Leukemia/lymphoma

120
Q

Carcinogens - Arsenic:

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Arsenic from Herbicides and metal smelting

Angiosarcoma, Lung cancer, Skin Squamous cell carcinoma

121
Q

Carcinogens - Asbestos

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Asbestos from Old roofing material, shipyard

Bronchogenic carcinoma > Mesothelioma

122
Q

Carcinogens - Nitrosamines

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Smoked foods - Nitrosamines

Intestinal Type Gastric Adenocarcinoma

123
Q

Carcinogens - Radon

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A 
Byproduct of uranium decay, accumulates in basements - Radon
Lung cancer (2nd leading cause after cigarette smoke)
124
Q

Carcinogens - Aflatoxins (Aspergillus):

Exposure and Associated Cancer

A

Aflatoxins (Aspergillus) from Stored grains and nuts

Hepatocellular carcinoma

125
Q

Oncogenic microbes - EBV: Associated cancer

A

EBV:
Burkitt lymphoma, Hodgkin lymphoma,
nasopharyngeal carcinoma, 1° CNS lymphoma

126
Q

Oncogenic microbes - HBV, HCV: Associated cancer

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

127
Q

Oncogenic microbes - HHV-8: Associated cancer

A

Kaposi sarcoma

128
Q

Oncogenic microbes - HPV: Associated cancer

A

Cervical and penile/anal carcinoma (types 16,

18), Laryngeal Carcinoma (Other Head and Neck Cancers)

129
Q

Oncogenic microbes - H pylori: Associated cancer

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma

130
Q

Oncogenic microbes - HTLV-1: Associated cancer

A

Adult T-cell Leukemia/Lymphoma

131
Q

Oncogenic microbes - Liver fluke (Clonorchis sinensis): Associated cancer

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

132
Q

Oncogenic microbes - Schistosoma haematobium: Associated cancer

A

Squamous cell bladder cancer

133
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

Alkaline phosphatase

A

Alkaline phosphatase: Metastases to bone or liver, Paget disease of bone, seminoma (Exclude hepatic origin by checking LFTs and GGT levels)

134
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

α-Fetoprotein

A

α-Fetoprotein: Hepatocellular carcinoma, Endodermal sinus tumor, Mixed germ cell tumor, Ataxia-telangiectasia, Neural tube defects.

135
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

hCG

A

hCG: Hydatidiform moles and Choriocarcinomas
(Gestational trophoblastic disease), testicular
cancer, mixed germ cell tumor.

136
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

CA 15-3/CA 27-29

A

CA 15-3/CA 27-29: Breast Cancer

137
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

CA 19-9

A

CA 19-9: Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma

138
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

CA 125

A

CA 125: Ovarian Cancer

139
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

Calcitonin

A

Calcitonin: Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma

140
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

CEA

A

CEA: Colorectal Carcinoma and Pancreatic cancers.

There are other minor associations

141
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

Chromogranin

A

Chromogranin: Neuroendocrine tumors

142
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

LDH

A

LDH: Testicular germ cell tumors, ovarian

dysgerminoma. Can be used as an indicator of tumor burden.

143
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

Neuron-specific enolase

A

Neuron-specific enolase: Neuroendocrine tumors (eg, small cell lung cancer, carcinoid tumor, neuroblastoma)

144
Q

Serum tumor markers - Important Associations:

PSA

A

PSA: BPH, Prostatitis and Prostatic Adenocarcinoma

145
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Neuroendocrine cells Tumors

A

Chromogranin and Synaptophysin

146
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Epithelial cells Tumors

A

Cytokeratin

147
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Muscle cells Tumors

A

Desmin

148
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Neuroglial Tumors

A

GFAP

149
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Neuronal Tumors

A

Neurofilament

150
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Prostatic epithelium Tumors

A

PSA

151
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Neural Crest Cells Tumors

A

S-100

152
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Hairy Cell Leukemia

A

TRAP- Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

153
Q

Important immunohistochemical stain:

For Mesenchymal Tissue Tumors

A

Vimentin

154
Q

P-Glycoprotein (Aka MDR1) - In which tumors and what is the consequence?

A

Classically seen in adrenocortical carcinoma.

Pumps out toxins,including chemotherapeutic agents - Multidrug Resistant

155
Q

What are the tumors that present Psammoma bodies on Histology?

A

PSAMMOMa Bodies : Papillary thyroid carcinoma, SSToma (Islets Carcinoma), Meningioma, Mesothelioma, Ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma and prolactinoma(MILK).

156
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with:
Dermatomyositis

A

Dermatomyositis - Adenocarcinomas, especially ovarian

157
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with:
Acanthosis nigricans

A

Acanthosis nigricans - Gastric Adenocarcinoma (and DM)

158
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with:
Sign of Leser-Trélat ( multiple seborrheic keratoses)

A

Sign of Leser-Trélat - GI adenocarcinomas

159
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with:
Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy - Lung Adenocarcinoma

160
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Hypercalcemia←PTHrP

A

Hypercalcemia←PTHrP: Squamous cell carcinomas of lung, head, and neck; renal, bladder, breast, and ovarian carcinomas and Lymphoma.

161
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Cushing syndrome←ACTH

A

Cushing syndrome←ACTH: Small cell Lung Carcinoma

162
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: SIADH

A

SIADH: Small cell Lung Carcinoma

163
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Polycythemia←EPO

A

Polycythemia←EPO:Pheochromocytoma, Renal cell carcinoma, Hepatocellular Carcinoma, hemangioblastoma, leiomyoma

164
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Good syndrome/Hypogammaglobulinemia

A

Hypogammaglobulinemia: Thymoma

165
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Anemia with low reticulocytes

A

Anemia with low reticulocytes: Thymoma

166
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Trousseau syndrome

A

Trousseau syndrome: Adenocarcinomas, especially pancreatic

167
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Marantic Endocarditis

A

Marantic Endocarditis: Adenocarcinomas, especially pancreatic

168
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis

A

Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis: Ovarian teratoma

169
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Opsoclonus-myoclonus ataxia
syndrome

A

Opsoclonus-myoclonus ataxia
syndrome: Neuroblastoma (children), small cell lung
cancer (adults)

170
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration

A

Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration: Small cell lung cancer (anti-Hu), gynecologic and breast cancers (anti-Yo), and Hodgkin lymphoma (anti-Tr)

171
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Paraneoplastic encephalomyelitis

A

Paraneoplastic encephalomyelitis: Small cell lung carcinoma

172
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

A

Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome: Small cell lung carcinoma

173
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes - Most Commonly associated tumors with: Myasthenia gravis

A

Myasthenia gravis: Thymoma

174
Q

Cachexia - What is it and What are the mediators?

A

Weight loss, muscle atrophy, and fatigue that occur in chronic disease - Mediated by TNF-α, IFN-γ, IL-1, and IL-6.

5200: Structural Integrity (19 decks)

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