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5200: Structural Integrity > Personal Pharm Cards > Flashcards

Personal Pharm Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What drugs are indicated for patient with acute gout attack

A

NSAID

Colchicine

corticosteroids/glucocorticoids (injection preferred)

^after NSAID failure

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2
Q

what drugs are indicated for preventative/chronic management of gout

A
  1. Xanthine oxidase inhibitors
    1. allupurinol, febuxostat
  2. probenecid

^reduce the urice acid level in the body

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3
Q

MOA of colchicine

A

microtubule inhibition by binding to tubulin –> white blood cell migration and phagocytosis is inhibited

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4
Q

colchicine adverse effects

A

GI:

N/V/D –> d/t loss of GI epithelium turnover which promotes BM

abdominal pain

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5
Q

what are the xanthine inhibitors

A
  1. allopurinol –> competitive inhibitor (mn: PURE competition)
  2. febuxostat –> non-competitive inhibitor
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6
Q

side effects of allopurinol

A

for this reason, many patients don’t tolerate it well. febuxostat is used as a second line of tx for patients who don’t tolerate allopurinol

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7
Q

what co-administration needs to be given with the XO inhibitors

A

cochicine because the changing ration of uric acid in the blood due to the XO inhibitors can cause acute gout attacks which colchicine will supress

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8
Q

MOA of allopurinol and febuxostat

A
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9
Q

Can we give patients aspirin for pain control of gout attack?

A

NO, not at normal dosages

it is dose dependent, see image

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10
Q

what are the best NSAIDs for gout?

A

sulindac, naproxen, indomethacin

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11
Q

probenecid side effects and administration precautions

A

Give with colchicine if acute setting

don’t use if renal problems

increased risk for developing uric acid kidney stones d/t increased secretion

Adverse Effects: GI irritation, rash, aplastic anemia; don’t give if pt has sulfa allergey

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12
Q

MOA of probenicid

whats its indication

A

blocks reabsorption of uric acid in proximal tubule –> increased excretion

indicated for gout

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13
Q

What DMARD is this based on the MOA shown

what’s its indication

A

leflunamide

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14
Q

what is the indication for prescribing leflunamide

A

RA, if the patient fails Methotrexate

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15
Q

what DMARD acts by inhibiting calcineurin?

what’s its indication

A

cyclosporin

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16
Q

indication and MOA of cyclophosphamide

A

indication: RA

MOA:

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17
Q

Staining features/virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus

A
  1. gram positive
  2. beta hemolytic
  3. coagulase positive (differentiates s. aureus and s. epidermidis)
  4. catalase positive –> converts H2O2 to water and oxygen (differentiates it from strep)
  5. ferments mannitol
  6. contains alpha toxin and beta toxin

^pretty much all positives (mn: Aureas does All the Areas)

*** the other key thing that differentiates it from strep is that it is arranged in clusters rather than chains

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18
Q

Food poisoning due to staphylococcal enterotoxin is characterized
by a short incubation period ___-___ hours

A

1-8 hours

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19
Q

True/False:

Coagulase-positive staphylococci are considered
pathogenic for humans

A

TRUE

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20
Q

treatment for penicillin G- resistant S. aureus

A

Penicillin G-resistant S. aureus strains from clinical
infections always produce penicillinase. They
constitute >95% of S. aureus isolates in communities in
the United States.

• They are often susceptible to β-lactamase-resistant
penicillins, cephalosporins, or vancomycin.
• Vancomycin-resistant strains are rare.

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21
Q

GAS (strep. pyogenes) virulence factors

A
  1. bacterial capsule is responsible for evasion of phagocytosis.
  2. protein F is required for adherence to the host cell
  3. Streptokinase lysis clots and helps invasion into tissues.
  4. C-5 peptidase lyses complement complexes evading the complement component of the immune system
  5. Streptococcal pyogenic exotoxin is responsible for generating fever and immunomodulation
23
Q

what are the 5 types of typhus infections and what was their causative agent

A
  1. Rocky Mountain spotted fever –> tickborne,
  2. scrub typhus, –> mite-borne
  3. rickettetsialpox, –> mite-borne
  4. endemic typhus, spread by a body louse
  5. murine endemic typhus spread by a flea.
24
Q

what is the abx treatment for rickettsiae infection causing typhus?

A

tetracycline/docycycline

25
Q

what is the basic differentiating factor between staph aureus and strep pyogenes ( in terms of structure)

A
26
Q

are are the two most likely late sequelae of streptococcal pyogenes infections

A
  1. rheumatic fever
  2. glomerular nephritis
27
Q
A
28
Q

which organism is most usually responsible for toxic shock syndrome

A

Staph

29
Q

the ___________ lab test differentiates between staph aureus from non pathogenic staphylococci

A

Coagulase test

30
Q
A

sulfa drug rxn

31
Q

what rare but strange MSK side effect can occur with taking fluoroquinalones

A

achilles tendon tear/rupture or swelling

32
Q
A

Answer: DHFR and DHPS

33
Q

what is an MAO

A

Monoamine oxidase

MAOI = drug that inhibites monoamine oxidase

*assoc with serotonin syndrome

34
Q
A

answer: bacteroides fragilis

35
Q
A

multivalent cations

drugs to avoid right before or after taking Calcium/tums etc: fluoroquinalones and tetracyclines

36
Q

T/F: metronidazole only works on anaerobes

A

TRUE

esp c diff, b frag, H pylori

37
Q

what drug to use to treat necrotizing fascitis

A

clindamycin (with penicillin G)

38
Q

what are pediculocides

A

drugs that kill pediculus humanus (lice) of the head (capitis) and body (corporis)

39
Q

Patient with anal itching presents. no other symptoms. microscopu of a the area shows this. What’s the diagnosis?

A

enterobius (pinworm) which is in the nematode family

40
Q

what is ascaris

A

giant intestinal roundworm

causes intestinal pain, constipation (high pitched bowel sounds)

tx: mebendazole

41
Q

mebendazole - what is it used to treat?

A

intestinal nematodes and tapeworms

42
Q

what drugs are used to treat tapeworms

A

niclosamid, praziquantel, albendazole (or mebendazole)

43
Q

praziquantel treats _______and _________

A

tapeworms (cestodes) and flukes (trematodes)

44
Q

how does niclosamide work?

A

transport chain uncoupler

45
Q

how does ivermectin work?

A

Glu Cl- channel agonistm

46
Q

ivermectin treats

A

threadworm, dog heartowrm, wuchereria (elephantiasis), lice

47
Q

limitation of treatment of lice with benzyl alcohol?

A

it only kills adult lice

48
Q

what is “rid” OTC shampoo?

A

contain pyrethrins (from chrysanthemom flower), which kill lice via Na+ channel blockers

49
Q

which drugs kill lice eggs and adults?

A

malathion

spinosad

50
Q

ketoconazole

A

an antigunal medication

MOA: blocks ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting 17,20 lyase

AE: decrease in testosterone (p/w gynecomastia in men)

off label use: Cushing’s syndrome (b/c it also blocks upstream enzymes req. for cortisol synth.)

51
Q

which drug can mimic effects of hypercortisolism

A

fludrocortisone

5200: Structural Integrity (19 decks)

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