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1
Q

After pressing the EMER ENTRY push button on the door control panel, how long, without pressing the inhibit button, until the door unlocks? If you pressed INHIB, how long would it inhibit it for?

A
  1. ) Without any action, the door will open after 30 seconds
  2. ) After pressing INHIB, the system is inhibited for 500 seconds
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2
Q

What conditions will provide a green light on the nose wheel prior to pushback? What makes the light turn red?

A
  1. ) GREEN = steering disengaged (externally), parking brake OFF, no manual braking.
  2. ) RED = External steering switch in the engaged position, parking brake ON, manual brakes applied.
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3
Q

As per the SOPM, minimum fuel is considered_____lbs. Emergency fuel is ______lbs.

A

MINUMUM: 2,250 lbs.

EMERGENCY: 1,500 lbs

note: these are landing numbers, not actual fuel on board. (Don’t wait to declare emergency fuel until you have 1,500 lbs onboard. Declare when that is your projected landing fuel).

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4
Q

How do you calculate Vap?

A

Vref + (1/2 headwind component + all of gust)

  • Minimum addition of 5 knots (unless stall protect ice speeds or CAT II)
  • Maximum addition of 20 knots
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5
Q

Live animals can be placed in the _____ cargo bin.

A

Forward

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6
Q

Where will battery temperature information be displayed?

A

Electrical synoptic page on MFD

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7
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff?

A

15 knots

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8
Q

Define a status message.

A

indicates information/status messages. The pilot can

use the system efficiently when the appropriate action is accomplished.

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9
Q

Define an advisory message.

A

Indicates operational or airplane conditions that
require crew awareness. Subsequent or future crew action may be
required.

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10
Q

Define a Caution message.

A

indicates an abnormal operational or airplane
system conditions that require immediate crew awareness and should
require a subsequent corrective or compensatory action.

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11
Q

Define a warning message.

A

indicates an emergency or airplane system condition

that requires immediate corrective or compensatory crew action.

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12
Q

What conditions result in the aural message “TAKEOFF OK”?

A
  • Flaps are in a takeoff setting
  • Flaps are set to the same setting in the MCDU takeoff configuration page
  • Parking brake OFF
  • All spoiler panels are stowed
  • Pitch trim in the green takeoff trim range
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13
Q

What does it mean when an EICAS message has a chevron next to it?

A

It is a ROOT message

“EICAS messages which may generate more messages with them are
called Root EICAS messages and they are highlighted by a preceding
chevron “>”.
In most cases the corrective action will be to perform only the
procedure associated with the ROOT EICAS message”

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14
Q

What is green dot?

A

Green dot indicates the driftdown speed when Slat/Flap is UP and the
ideal Slat/Flap extension speed for the current airplane weight.
It provides a minimum margin of 1.3 g over stick shaker speed,
or 40° of bank angle, for wings leveled condition during any
flight phase and Slat/Flap setting.

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15
Q

What is the ADS reversion logic?

A

CA data comes from ADS 1. FO comes from ADS 2.

If ADS 1 fails, it automatically reverts to ADS 3.

If ADS 2 fails, it automatically reverts to ADS 3.

*If another reversion occurs, it will be cross side. (ADS 1 reverts to ADS 2. ADS 2 reverts to ADS 1).

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16
Q

What are the minimum battery voltages for Batt 1 and Batt 2 during the safety and power up checklist?

A
  1. 5 Volts

* If less than 22.5, but not below 21.0V, follow recharging procedure.

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17
Q

What is the AC power source priority?

A

“O.I.O.C”

  1. ) Onside (Same engine, same bus)
  2. ) Inside (APU)
  3. ) Outside (GPU)
  4. ) Cross-side (Opposite side bus)
AOM: 
"The source priority order for powering the airplane is:
– Respective IDG.
– APU generator.
– GPU (on ground without APU).
– Opposite IDG."
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18
Q

What EICAS message would indicate the RAT has NOT deployed during an electrical emergency?

A

BATT DISCHARGING or RAT FAIL

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19
Q

What busses are energized during an electrical emergency before the RAT deploys?

A

All DC ESS BUSES and the AC STBY BUS. (Powered by the batteries)

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20
Q

If the RAT fails, how long will the batteries be able to power all essential loads?

A

10 minutes

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21
Q

What AC busses are energized during an electrical emergency after the RAT deploys? What items are on these busses?

A

AC ESS bus and AC STBY bus

AC ESS Bus: AC FUEL PUMP 2A, ACMP 3A, SF-ACE 1 FLAP CH 1, SF-ACE 2 SLAT CH 2

AC STBY Bus: ENGINE 1 EXCITER 1A, ENGINE 2 EXCITER 2A

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22
Q

What purpose does a transformer rectifier unit (TRU) serve?

A

TRUs convert 115 VAC power into 28 VDC

A transformer steps voltage down, a rectifier converts AC to DC

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23
Q

What purpose does an inverter serve?

A

The inverter converts 28 V DC power from the batteries to 115 V AC power to supply the STANDBY AC BUS when an AC power source is not available.

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24
Q

What is the difference between OFF and DISC on the IDG selectors?

A

OFF: opens the IDG contactor isolating the IDG from the
respective AC BUS.

DISC: mechanically disconnects the IDG.

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25
What, operationally, is powered even while the batteries are off?
- Courtesy ceiling lights - Engine fire bottles and SOV's - Water and waste system controller - Refueling panel
26
What will cause the RAT to deploy automatically?
Total loss of all AC power sources
27
How long does the RAT take from deployment to generating adequate AC power?
8 seconds
28
What happens when you pull an engine fire handle?
- Closes the fuel SOV - Closes the hydraulic SOV - Closes the bleed SOV - Closes the cross bleed SOV
29
What happens when you twist a fire handle?
Rotate to the left, it blows bottle A, rotate to the right, it blows bottle B
30
What does the APU emergency stop button do?
Shuts the APU fuel SOV
31
What does the APU fire extinguisher button do?
- Discharges APU fire bottle - Shuts down APU through APU FADEC - Closes APU fuel SOV
32
What happens if smoke is detected in the FWD cargo compartment?
– Air circulation fan is turned off – The high-rate fire extinguishing bottle is armed – The forward cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve is commanded closed -EICAS warning message
33
What happens if smoke is detected in the AFT cargo compartment?
- The high-rate fire extinguishing bottle is armed. | - EICAS warning message
34
What is the logic of the cargo fire bottle system for an annunciated cargo fire?
- The high-rate bottle will be discharged on the first push, on ground or in air. - The low rate will be deployed automatically after 1 minute (in-air). - If on ground, the low rate requires a second press.
35
How many fire bottles are there for the FWD and AFT cargo bays?
-2, a high rate and a low rate. (total, not per compartment)
36
How long does the high rate cargo fire bottle take to finish dumping? How long does the low rate take?
High rate: 1 Minute Low rate: 75 minutes
37
Can you fight an APU fire, Engine fire, or Cargo fire with the airplane powered down?
Only could fight the engine fires, nothing else. The hot buses don't supply APU or cargo.
38
Do we have any memory items to fight a fire?
Smoke/FIRE/Fumes - O2 masks don 100%
39
What is the purpose of the fuel scavenge ejector pumps?
They pull fuel from the main tanks to the collector tanks to ensure that the collector tanks always have enough fuel to supply the engines.
40
What is the purpose of the main ejector pumps?
They pull from the collector tanks to supply the engines with fuel.
41
With the knob in AUTO, when will the AC fuel pump 1 and 2 turn on?
– Onside engine during engine starts. – Cross side during crossfeed operations. – APU starting or running without engine 2 running (AC pump 2) – Main ejector pump fail. (The only "backup" logic for fuel pumps is the main ejector pump fail. All other conditions for them turning on are as needed.)
42
With the knob in AUTO, when would the DC fuel pump turn on?
APU start with no AC power connected. (very rare, but also the DC fuel pump will kick on during engine 2 start if you are doing a battery start procedure in the QRH.)
43
What does the XFEED knob do?
It opens the crossfeed valve, and commands the cross side AC pump ON to push fuel to the other side through the crossfeed valve.
44
How many fuel tanks does the 175 have?
2 in wing fuel tanks. Each tank is divided into 3 sections: surge, main, and collector.
45
Which fuel pumps are in the collector tank?
1 main ejector pump, 1 AC fuel pump, DC fuel pump (right side)
46
Which fuel pumps are in the main tanks?
3 scavenge ejector pumps in each main tank. (supplies fuel from main tank to collector).
47
Minimum fuel temp (limitation)
-37C
48
When will a fuel imbalance EICAS message appear? When will it go away?
800 lbs. Goes away at 100 lbs.
49
In a dual engine failure, which fuel pump would provide fuel to relight an engine?
AC Fuel Pump 2 (Once the RAT is powered up. It is on AC ESS BUS.)
50
When will the FADEC automatically abort an engine start?
- Hung start - Hot Start - No light off
51
When would the APU automatically shut down on the ground?
On the ground: (UFO SHELF) ALL apply to ground - Underspeed - FADEC fault - Overspeed - Sensor fail - High oil temp - EGT high temp - Low oil pressure - Fire
52
When would the APU automatically shut down in flight?
In flight: (UFO) - Underspeed - FADEC fault - Overspeed
53
What happens if the dump button is pressed while the mode selector is in AUTO?
- Packs and recirc fans OFF - Outflow valve opens at a rate of 2,000 FPM until 12,400' - At a cabin altitude of 12,400' the outflow valve closes.
54
What happens if the dump button is pressed while the mode selector is in MAN?
-Packs and recirc fans commanded OFF | OFV must be operated manually
55
What is the purpose of the LFE selector knob?
To manually set the destination LFE if it does not work automatically.
56
What does the outflow valve do?
It regulates how much pressure is let out of the cabin to modulate cabin pressure.
57
What does the positive pressure relief valve do?
It protects the airplane’s structure against damage due to positive overpressure.
58
What does the negative pressure relief valve do?
It protects the airplane structure against damages due to a negative differential pressure.
59
What does the cabin pressure controller (CPC) do?
It modulates the outflow valve to maintain desired cabin pressure.
60
When does ACMP 1 and 2 turn on in AUTO?
a. Takeoff: Flaps > 0 and either TOGA or groundspeed greater than 50 knots b. Landing: WnotOW, flaps > 0 c. Onside EDP or engine fail d. ACMP 2 only: engine 1 started and parking brake released (but ACMP2 will then shut off if parking brake applied for 6 minutes; if drop the brake, ACMP2 will start again)
61
In AUTO, when does ACMP 3B activate?
Whenever pump 3A fails in flight.
62
What aircraft functions utilize the hydraulic system?
- Landing gear - Brakes - Nosewheel steering - Flight control surfaces (including spoilers) - Reversers
63
What is the purpose of the PTU?
The PTU assists the landing gear retraction or extension, should a right engine or right EDP failure occur.
64
In AUTO, when would the PTU activate?
IF: – Flaps not set to zero or Landing Gear not up and locked; – EDP 1 not fail; – Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity above 12%. PTU will then activate if there is an EDP 2 or engine 2 failure. NOTE: PTU will not be activated if the airplane is on ground.
65
Which hydraulic pumps are available during a dual IDG failure?
Assuming no AC power, EDP 1 and EDP 2 would still be functional. So would 3A because of the RAT powering the AC ESS BUS.
66
Which hydraulic pumps would be available during a dual engine failure?
Assuming no APU, system 3A only.
67
What is the purpose of the hydraulic PBIT?
The Hydraulic PBIT provides a functional test of the flight control actuators.
68
What initiates a hydraulic PBIT test? What interrupts it? How long does it take?
Initiated: Only on the ground, when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized. Interrupted: Movement of any flight control surface. Duration: 1 minute
69
What is the purpose of an electrical PBIT?
The Electrical PBIT provides detection of out-of-tolerance conditions and failures in the FCMs, P-ACEs and SF-ACEs.
70
What initiates an electrical PBIT? What interrupts it? How long does it take?
Initiated: Once any AC source is established on power up. Interrupted: a. If any electric hydraulic pump is turned ON b. If the FCP switches are cycled c. If AC power is interrupted Duration: 3 minutes
71
Which flight controls are hydraulically actuated? Which are electrically actuated?
Hydraulically: Ailerons, Elevators, Rudder, Spoilers Electrically: Slat/Flap, Horizontal Stab
72
What 3 conditions would cause SPDBRK LEVER DISAGREE message?
Speedbrakes deployed and: - speed gets lower than 180 knots - flap setting greater than flap 1 - TLA pushed past 70 degrees
73
What is the hierarchy of elevator trim input priority?
1. ) Backup trim 2. ) CA yoke trim 3. ) FO yoke trim 4. ) FCM (autopilot)
74
Which flight controls are considered primary? Which are considered secondary?
Primary: – Ailerons and the multi function roll spoilers. – Elevators. – Rudder. ``` Secondary: – Horizontal stabilizer. – Flaps and Slats. – The multi-function spoiler (when used as speed brakes or ground spoilers). – Dedicated ground spoilers. ```
75
What is the purpose of the FCM?
To provide the various ACEs with high level functions (normal mode only). They compile ADS date such as speed and altitude etc. and make augmented high level functions to the ACEs.
76
When you make an elevator input in normal mode, what path does that signal take? What about in direct mode?
Normal mode: Control input - ACE - FCM - ACE - PCU Direct mode: Control input - ACE - PCU
77
What are some high level functions? Where are they stored?
High level functions: – Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed. – Auto-thrust compensation with elevator. – Angle-of-Attack (AOA) limiting with elevator offset. – Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting. – Yaw damper and turn coordination via AFCS. – Rudder flight authority. – Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speedbrake deployment. – Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer due to speed brakes actuation. They are stored in the FCM.
78
When is an FDR test required? What does a successful test look like?
Whenever an originating flow is performed. No EICAS fail messages
79
How many COM radios do we have? How many NAV?
COM: 3 (the 3rd one is for ACARS) NAV: 2
80
What areas on the 175 are protected from ice and rain?
- Wings - Engine cowlings - Windows (cockpit) - ADS probes - Potable drain mast
81
When would windshield heat turn on?
When there are at least 2 AC sources. (Also, when a single AC power source is first established, it runs an on-side window heat test for 120 seconds) (If only 1 AC source is powering the plane in flight, only the CA gets window heat)
82
When will anti ice valves open when set to ALL? When will they close?
OPEN: - The engine valves will open upon engine start. - The wing valves will open at 40 knots wheelspeed. CLOSE: -Both will rely on ice detection for operation after 1700' AFE or 2 min after takeoff.
83
When is the earliest anti ice valves could open during a flight if the takeoff anti ice setting is OFF?
-1700' AFE or 2 min after takeoff (assuming ice detection)
83
When is the earliest anti ice valves could open during a flight if the takeoff anti ice setting is OFF?
-1700' AFE or 2 min after takeoff (assuming ice detection)
84
There are 3 HSI colors, what are they and what do they mean?
Green: ILS/VOR NAV Magenta: FMS Amber: Cross side data
85
What purpose does the IRS serve?
Other than seizing your assets, ``` – Primary airplane attitude in pitch and roll; – Magnetic and true heading; – Body linear acceleration; – Body angular rate; – Inertial velocity; – Navigation Position; – Wind Data; – Calculated data. ```
86
How long does the IRS take to align? Can it be done in flight?
Up to 17 minutes; yes
87
What sources of navigation are available during an electrical emergency?
FMS 2 IRS 1 NAV 1
88
How long does a PBE supply you with oxygen?
15 min
89
How can you tell if a PBE is good?
Check for BLUE indicator | pink means its gone bad
90
What types of fire extinguishers do we have onboard?
- Water (class A fires) | - Halon (Class A, B, and C fires)
91
How long will the emergency lights last?
10 minutes
92
After loss of cabin pressure, sufficient oxygen is provided for all cockpit crewmembers for an emergency descent from _____ to ______ in _______ with mask regulator on 100% and continuing cruise at 10,000' for ______ minutes with the mask in normal mode.
41,000' to 10,000' in 22 minutes cruise at 10,000' for an additional 98 minutes in NORM mode

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