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KV Flashcards

1
Q

Why does the emergency/parking brake need to be on prior to beginning an external inspection?

A

To check the brake wear indicators

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2
Q

Just because the parking brake is on, does this guarantee that there is sufficient pressure to check the brake wear indicators?

A

No. The accumulators may have bled off pressure (amber) and you would need to pressurize them.

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3
Q

If hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brakes, how can it be restored prior to beginning a walk around?

A

Pressurize system 1 and 2.

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4
Q

On the external inspection, the ADSPs are covered in frost. What action must be taken?

A

FO must turn on ADSP heat on their originating flow.

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5
Q

Other than frost being visible on the ADSP probes, what are other reasons why it would be required to activate ADSP probe heat to ON?

A
  • OAT is 0 or below with moisture of any kind
  • FFOD with temps below -18C
  • Erroneous speed indications or AFCS faults or failures present on PFD or EICAS
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6
Q

Are there nacelle strakes on both sides of the engine?

A

Yes

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7
Q

How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing during preflight?

A

3

close to fuselage, just outboard of the engine, center of the wing. All in a line and under the wing in the center

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8
Q

What document would you refer to regarding missing static wicks?

A

CDL

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9
Q

Where do you find the CDL?

A

AFM

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10
Q

When is a cold weather preflight inspection required?

A
  • OAT 5 or less
  • Wing fuel temp 0 or less
  • Icing conditions exist
  • RON with possibility of frozen contaminates
  • Residual ice from inbound flight
  • Cold soak suspected in fuel tank
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11
Q

What is the difference between a regular preflight and a “cold weather inspection?”

A

TACTILE INSPECTION. That is the keyword they are looking for. Its essentially no different, but you need a TACTILE INSPECTION. Simply determining if you need to deice or not. Just make sure that the leading edge, upper surfaces, and tail section are free of snow and ice.

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12
Q

What checklist must be completed prior to completing the deicing process?

A

Before start checklist

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13
Q

When does the timer for the holdover time (HOT) begin?

A

Final application of fluid commences

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14
Q

What does a holdover time represent?

A

How long the fluid will offer protection

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15
Q

What would make a holdover time long versus short?

A

How intense the precipitation is. Heavier precip shortens HOT.

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16
Q

When determining HOT in the HOT app, do you use official ATIS observations or the tables?

A

Always use official weather observations. If you don’t have any, use the tables. (can be found in the HOT app and in the GDPM.)

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17
Q

Name some factors that influence the effectiveness of the anti-icing fluid

A
  • change in precipitation type or intensity
  • change in ambient temp or aircraft metal temp
  • position of the aircraft relative to the jet blast or prop wash of a leading aircraft
  • change in wind velocity or direction
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18
Q

When is a pre takeoff check required? What is a pre takeoff check?

A

Required just prior to takeoff, IF you are within the HOT.

Simply look out the window at the wing and see if it’s still clear of contamination.

NOTE: (If you can’t tell for sure if it’s clear, aircraft must be de-iced again)

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19
Q

What is a pre-takeoff contamination check and when is it required?

A

It is where you walk back into the passenger compartment and look at the wings on both sides from a PAX window.

It is required whenever the HOT is expired, or becomes invalid due to changing conditions.

NOTE: Must always be performed in heavy precip regardless of HOT
NOTE: Must be performed within 5 minutes of takeoff.

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20
Q

If you got deiced and the holdover time is expired, can you just do a pre-takeoff contamination check and go with no other considerations?

A

Yes you can go assuming the wings look clear, however the big consideration here is you only have 5 minutes to depart before you would need to check on the wings again.

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21
Q

You just got deiced. Its heavy snow. You are about ready to takeoff, well within the HOT. Can you just do a pre-takeoff check and go?

A

No, you must do a pre-takeoff contamination check.

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22
Q

On the EFP section of the release for the departure runway, it says “RT H240.” What altitude would you initiate the right turn to heading 240? How long do you hold that heading?

A
  • Climb straight ahead to 1,000’ AFE. Then turn right to 240 degrees
  • Fly this heading to safely attain an altitude and position where radar vectors can be provided, or MEA or MSA is reached. (any of the above are acceptable. Most likely a radar vector would be the easiest.)
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23
Q

How does a simple special engine failure takeoff path differ from a standard engine failure?

A

A turn to a NAVAID or HDG is required prior to reaching 1,000’

(a better way to say that is the turn is initiated at some point other than reaching 1,000’) such as a radial or DME, instead of just turning at 1,000’.

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24
Q

When reported, what should be used to determine landing performance values?

A

RCC

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25
Q

When RCC’s are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance?

A

Contaminant type and braking action reports.

NOTE: (If braking action reports are also missing, you can use RCAM-Braking Action Table found in Weather tab.)

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26
Q

RCC reported 5/4/3. What RCC value do you use to calculate performance data for landing?

A

RCC 3. Use most restrictive.

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27
Q

What does TALPA stand for? What is it?

A

Takeoff And Landing Performance Assessment

It’s an FAA standardization effort to help keep runway condition reports consistent and accurate. FICON NOTAMS are part of this.

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28
Q

What is RCAM? How do we use it?

A

Runway Condition Assessment Matrix

It’s a document in the EFB-Weather. Used to assess conditions on a runway and map them into usable RCC value or braking action report. (i.e. you have a runway reporting 1/4” dry snow and no other data. No RCC, no braking action. Just the snow report. So you would use the RCAM to generate your own RCC value or braking action value.)

NOTE: This is a different document from the Runway Condition Decision Matrix, which is used to determine if you should even land/takeoff or not.

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29
Q

What is the definition of a contaminated runway?

A

-More than 25% of the runway surface area is covered by more than 1/8th inch of standing water, slush, wet/dry snow, or ANY DEPTH of ice or compacted snow.

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30
Q

30% of the runway is covered in 1/16th of compacted snow. Is it considered contaminated?

A

Yes. This is because its over 25% and ANY depth of compacted snow (or ice). If it were dry snow for example, it would be considered “wet” not contaminated. Because its less than 1/8th inch yet still greater than 25% of the runway.

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31
Q

50% of the runway is covered by 1/18th of ice. What is the runway considered?

A

It is considered contaminated, because it is ice. Depth does NOT MATTER for ice and compacted snow. It satisfies the requirement of being over 25% of the runway, and it is ice. Depth regarding ice and compacted snow does not matter.

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32
Q

What is the definition of a dry runway?

A

A runway that is neither wet nor contaminated

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33
Q

What is the definition of a wet runway?

A

-More than 25% of the runway is covered by any visible dampness or water that is less than 1/8th inch in depth.

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34
Q

There are no runway reports, but you look out at the runway and see that it’s been raining earlier (it has stopped raining.) The runway looks damp but its sunny now. What should you use for runway condition for your takeoff numbers?

A

Wet.

Defined as more than 25% of the runway covered by ANY visible dampness or water less than 1/8th inch. That means if it looks wet, it is wet. YOU HEAR ME SENIOR CAPTAINS?!

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35
Q

When powering up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to do the SOPM recharging procedure?

A
  • 22.5V
  • Between 21.0-22.4 SOPM recharging procedure
  • Below 21.0, write up, call MX
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36
Q

When powering up the aircraft, what minimum voltage is required? When would you need to do the SOPM recharging procedure?

A
  • 22.5V
  • Between 21.0-22.4 SOPM recharging procedure
  • Below 21.0, write up, call MX
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37
Q

After EICAS powers up, how long do you wait before starting the APU?

A

30 seconds

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38
Q

Can takeoff or landing occur with a FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS?

A

Yes, as long as its below 794 actual imbalance.

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39
Q

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature?

A

-37 degrees C

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40
Q

How do engine starter limitations change from on the ground and in flight?

A

The crank time (motoring plus start time) changes from 90 seconds on the ground to 120 seconds in the air.

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41
Q

Taxiway NOTAM says closed to aircraft with a wingspan over 100’. Are we OK to taxi on that taxiway?

A

Yes. The wingspan is 93’11”

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42
Q

What is the minimum runway width to use? What about minimum clearway?

A

Minimum runway width = 100’

Minimum clearway = 80’

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43
Q

You are at an uncontrolled airport. You see the shortest taxi route appears to be via Alpha and Bravo to the ramp. The FO points out that taxiway Alpha is 40’ wide. Can you go on Alpha?

A

No, the minimum taxiway width needs to be 50’ wide.

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44
Q

An IDG fails in flight. QRH says start the APU. You are at FL330. Are you good to start it?

A

No, you need to drop down to FL300 before starting it. Then you could go back up to FL330 if you wanted to.

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45
Q

It is very cold, and you need to start the APU in the morning. OAT is -43C. Can you start the APU?

A

Yes. The limitation is -54C

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46
Q

You are coming in to land on a wet runway. The crosswind component is 28 knots. Can you land?

A

Yes, the limitation for a wet runway is 31 knots. (FO can’t land, but you can).

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47
Q

You are setup to land on a short runway, flaps full. The WX goes down to CATII so you rebrief and setup the RA mins for it. Any other considerations?

A

Must resend numbers for flaps 5 and use flaps 5 for CAT II.

Plus you also need CAT II speeds

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48
Q

Is it permissible to turn off the landing lights while in IMC on an approach to better see the runway?

A

Yes, that is in the SOPM.

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49
Q

What is the PM’s callout on an approach if the descent rate exceeds 1,000 FPM?

A

“Sink Rate”

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50
Q

How far off glide path until the PM is required to say “glide path”?

A

Greater than 1 dot

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51
Q

On an approach, when is the PM required to say “Bank”?

A

Whenever the bank angle is greater than 25 degrees

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52
Q

At 500’, speed must be _______ and thrust____ to be considered stable.

A

within the confines of the speed bug

thrust above idle

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53
Q

When would you declare minimum fuel? What does this tell ATC?

A

Whenever fuel has reached a state where you will be landing at or less than reserve fuel. (SOPM says 2250. Reserve is 45 minutes, which is closer to 2500..)

It communicates to ATC that you cannot accept any delays. Urgency, not emergency. It does not give you priority handling.

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54
Q

When would you declare emergency fuel? What does this communicate to ATC?

A

Whenever you will be landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel onboard. (1500 lb.)

It communicates an emergency condition to ATC, which gives you priority handling.

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55
Q

You are sitting in the cockpit at the gate when you get an EICAS: BATT 1 OVERTEMP. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: Associated battery-OFF
  2. ) ORC
  3. ) QRH
  4. ) Write up
  5. ) Call MX
  6. ) Follow MX direction
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56
Q

You are starting an engine and notice the ITT is rapidly rising towards 815 with no signs of slowing down. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: Affected engine start/stop selector- STOP
  2. ) QRC
  3. ) QRH
  4. ) Write up
  5. ) Call MX
  6. ) Follow MX direction
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57
Q

On taxi, the plane begins veering off to the right. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: Steer disc switch- Press. Steer with differential braking and rudder.
  2. ) Once you are stopped with the brake set, notify ATC.
  3. ) QRC
  4. ) QRH
  5. ) Write up
  6. ) Call MX
  7. ) Follow MX direction
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58
Q

After takeoff, the cockpit begins filling with smoke. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: O2 masks don, EMER, crew communication-establish. Pressurization dump….push in
  2. ) QRC
  3. ) Declare emergency, transfer controls if needed, begin heading back to land.
  4. ) QRH
  5. ) NTSBO
  6. ) Land, most likely evacuation QRC.
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59
Q

You are flying at FL350. All of a sudden you get the triple chime and EICAS CAB ALT HI. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: O2 masks, don 100%. Crew communication….establish
  2. ) QRC- Cab Alt Hi,
  3. ) Declare emergency-advise ATC you will be commencing an emergency descent
  4. ) QRC- Emergency Descent
  5. ) QRH- Either Cab Alt Hi or Emergency Descent NAP. Both are the exact same checklist
  6. ) Land, write up, call MX
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60
Q

You are cruising along and the autopilot disconnects. After taking manual control, it becomes obvious that the ailerons are jammed. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: Aileron disconnect handle-Pull
  2. ) QRC
  3. ) Declare emergency, PF becomes whoever’s side is free.
  4. ) QRH
  5. ) Once you land, write up, call MX
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61
Q

On climb you are hand flying. You push forward to level off, but it feels stuck. The control column is jammed up. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: Elevator disconnect handle- Pull
  2. ) QRC
  3. ) Declare emergency, whoever’s side is free is now PF
  4. ) QRH
  5. ) Once you land, write up, call MX
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62
Q

You are in cruise. The autopilot disconnects and the plane begins violently yawing and banking to the left. You see the yaw trim is going full send to the left. What do you do?

A
  1. ) Memory item: A/P Disc Button- press and hold
  2. ) QRC
  3. ) Declare emergency, PF stays PF
  4. ) QRH
  5. ) Once you land, write up, call MX

NOTE: Same exact procedure for a roll trim runaway

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63
Q

The majority of aviation accidents have been caused by what?

A

Human Factors, usually relating to breakdown of communication

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64
Q

What four CRM skills is OO choosing to focus on?

A
  1. ) Communication
  2. ) Workload Management
  3. ) Situational Awareness
  4. ) Problem solving / decision making
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65
Q

List 3 of the 5 CRM issues that are included in nearly every ASAP report

A
  • Unable to manage distractions
  • Inability to recognize task saturation
  • Nonspecific WANT briefings
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66
Q

FOM lists 4 tools to mitigate distraction, explain 2

A
  • Recognize and verbalize when becoming distracted

- Good planning during low workload to help with future high workload

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67
Q

Every threat briefed must include a _____.

A

Mitigation strategy.

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68
Q

Every threat briefed must include a _____.

A

Mitigation strategy.

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69
Q

Name 4 cues of task saturation

A
  • missed checklist items
  • missed callouts
  • missed ATC readbacks
  • missed configuration changes
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70
Q

Are you required to follow the lateral and vertical track of a visual approach at night?

A

Yes

70
Q

If a discrepancy is written up in FliteView while enroute, which airport would be selected? Departure or arrival?

A

Arrival, assuming you will land there. Always select the airport where MX will receive the plane.

71
Q

On a night visual, you need to follow the lateral and vertical guidance of an approach. Can you join inside the FAF?

A

No, must be outside the FAF

72
Q

Does an entry into FliteView eliminate the need to call MX?

A

Yes, so be clear with the description. (However, its common practice to follow up with a call to MX).

73
Q

A write up should immediately change the aircraft status to OTS Red. If it does not, check what?

A

Check EFB connectivity

74
Q

ACARS is inop. Can a weight and balance be calculated?

A

Yes, use the manifest on FliteView

75
Q

If AeroData is down, can you still use the FliteView manifest function?

A

Yes

76
Q

You are out on line and need to do a manual manifest. You forgot how to do it. Where can you find instructions?

A

FliteView user guide

77
Q

A mechanical irregularity is discovered after blockout but prior to takeoff. When would you be authorized to depart?

A

-QRH resolves issue (PIC must write up when arrived at destination)

or

-PIC writes up immediately, call MX, and MX directs corrective action which fixes it. MX puts aircraft back in service, dispatch release amended if needed.

NOTE: Either method is acceptable

78
Q

You are assigned a SID on the PDC. It says, “climb via SID.” Top altitude is FL220 on the SID, but your filed altitude is 17,000’. Which one do you level at?

A

Level at 17,000’. That is your clearance limit.

79
Q

What does the SOPM require pilots to check prior to departure regarding the FMS and flight plan?

A
  1. ) Check each waypoint on the Plan page
  2. ) Then have one person read the fixes, speeds, and altitudes for each fix from takeoff to TOD, the other person cross checking in the FMS.
80
Q

If a checklist is interrupted, you must___

A

Start it over from the beginning

81
Q

At 1,000’ HAT, the stabilized criteria is:

A
  • In landing configuration
  • Before landing checklist complete
  • Within lateral/vertical profile
  • Speed +15 to -5 of Vap.
82
Q

Stabilized criteria by 1,500’ HAT or FAF, whichever occurs first:

A
  • Gear down
  • Flaps 3
  • Speed not greater than 180 KIAS
83
Q

At 500’ HAT, the stabilized criteria is:

A
  • Airspeed within confines of bug

- Thrust above idle

84
Q

Is it optional to include the 10-7 safety alert section at a safety alert airport in your WANT briefing?

A

It is required

85
Q

In IFR we know you can’t turn until 1,000 AFE unless the SID specifies or the TLR says “all engines operating turns above XYZ OK.” In VFR its ok to turn at 400. But what exactly is IMC/VMC for this purpose?

A

Weather less than 1,000 and 3SM is IFR. Greater is VFR.

86
Q

Flap retraction altitude (FRA) is always 1,000’ AFE unless___

A

A special procedure prescribes otherwise

87
Q

Describe the standard engine failure takeoff path. What are the differences between IMC and VMC?

A

Climb straight ahead to 1,000’, turn to heading (or to NAVAID to hold standard inbound track). Climb to a minimum safe altitude and accept RADAR vectors anytime after 1,000’.

IMC: Must do above procedure
VMC: Must always climb straight ahead to at least 1,000’, but you can maneuver visually after. OR you can comply with IMC procedure.

NOTE: Only practical difference between “below 1,000’” versus “above 1,000’” is that there is emphasis on just making sure you fly straight out until 1,000’ if below. If above 1000’ just start the turn right away.

88
Q

How many types of Special Engine Failure Takeoff Path Procedures are there? What are they?

A

Only 2 SPECIAL types.

  1. ) Simple-Special
  2. ) Complex-Special

NOTE: Default is STANDARD engine failure takeoff procedure. A special is only generated when a standard will not provide terrain clearance.

89
Q

Why would there be 2 types of SPECIAL engine failure procedures outside of a standard one? Why not just have Standard and Complex special? In other words, what is the difference between a standard engine failure takeoff procedure and a simple-special?

A

Because the only difference between a standard and a simple-special is that the turn to a HDG or NAVAID occurs below 1,000’.

A complex special is a whole massive procedure with lots of specific steps.

90
Q

On a simple-special engine failure departure procedure, there is often an altitude listed. For example REACHING 14.0 DME or 4600’, LT DIRECT VOR. Are these altitudes AGL or MSL?

A

MSL.

91
Q

For engine failure procedures, when direct a VOR is part of the procedure, we know that the hold is inbound track, standard (right) turns. (unless otherwise stated.) But what about leg length of the hold?

A

1 minute legs

92
Q

On a simple-special engine failure departure procedure, the VIA segment is usually blank unless you won’t be flying runway heading until the specified turn point. If there is a heading listed under VIA, when would you commence the turn to that heading?

A

50’ AFE or 1/2 the aircraft wingspan

If engine failure occurs higher than this, turn right away.

93
Q

What is a complex-special departure procedure?

A

A procedure that is too complex to fit in a simple-special table. Follow step by step in IMC or VMC.

NOTE: Often have “all engines operating” considerations for obstacle clearance as well.

94
Q

Is it OK to use intersection departure data when you are actually using the full length?

A

Yes, the performance manual specifically says this.

95
Q

On a NOTAM, you see RWY 26L-E2000F. What does this mean?

A 
26L: Runway 26L
-: Shortened 
E: East end of the runway is shortened 
2000: Shortened by 2,000' 
F: Feet

“The East end of Runway 26L is shortened by 2000 feet.”

96
Q

If a runway is shortened, it is given a random 3 letter code to differentiate between the full length and the new shortened runway. For example: 17/BCB. We are going to takeoff on this shortened runway 17 today. What is required that we enter into ACARS when sending for takeoff numbers?

A

You are required to enter “17/BCB” in this case. This will give accurate performance numbers for the shortened runway, instead of full length.

NOTE: Same concept applies to obstacle NOTAMS. You might see “17CRANE” or “07R-SHIPS” and would need to add that in. (Should be obvious on TLR)

97
Q

What is max V1? What is the point?

A

It is the maximum V1 speed which allows for the airplane to stop before the end of the runway. All we have to do is ensure that the V1 speed given by aero-data is no greater than max V1.

NOTE: Max V1 will only appear on a TLR if there is an operational limit, such as an MEL/CDL penalty. If you do ever see Max V1, just make sure the actual V1 speed is not greater than Max V1.

98
Q

The TLR is valid when OAT is ________ than planned OAT.

A

No less than 10 degrees under planned. For example, if planned OAT is 20C, the TLR is invalid at any temp below 10C.

99
Q

The TLR is valid when the altimeter setting is _________ PQNH (planned altimeter setting).

A

No less than .10” below PQNH. For example, if PQNH is 29.82, the TLR is invalid if actual altimeter is less than 29.72.

100
Q

What is PMRTW? When is it used?

A

Planned maximum runway takeoff weight.

Weight used for V speed calculations when using optimized V2 speed (O2).

(cant find anything in performance handbook but was told by APD that O2 is typically a higher than usual V2 speed in order to help with windshear conditions on takeoff).

101
Q

What is O2? (regarding a TLR).

A

Optimized V2 speed.

This will be based off of PMRTW.

102
Q

What is PTOW?

A

Planned takeoff weight.

This is the lower of the MRTW or the MFPTW.

103
Q

What is MFPTW? Why is this significant compared to all other maximum weights?

A

maximum flight planned takeoff weight.

This is the absolute maximum takeoff weight that factors in everything.

It factors MTOW (85,517 lb.), METW (maximum enroute, for drift down or takeoff alternate purposes), MLDW (74,957 lb.), plus fuel calculations.

FINAL TAKEOFF WEIGHT CAN NEVER EXCEED MFPTW

104
Q

Can actual takeoff weight exceed PMRTW?

A

Yes.

The big one is that it can never exceed MFPTW.

105
Q

Can takeoff weight exceed MFPTW?

A

No. MFPTW is the big one that factors everything in and is your true absolute limit for takeoff weight.

106
Q

What is the point of a TLR? We don’t even use it right?

A

The TLR is provided primarily as planning/briefing tool. It also serves as a backup if ACARS went down.

If ACARS went down on the ground, you’d use the iPad… If it went down in flight, you’d use the QRH.

It is practically only used for planning and situational awareness. I.E. “ok this TLR says we’re planned for A/I-ALL and it also says windshear. Oh that’s a good idea, should send for windshear numbers”

107
Q

On the TLR takeoff performance section, what is MT?

A

Maximum temperature.

NOTE: For full power takeoffs, if OAT is higher than this, a revised TLR is required.

108
Q

Is the TLR based on any winds? Can you use the TLR in a tailwind?

A

TLR is based on ZERO wind.

So you do not use the TLR for takeoff with a tailwind.

109
Q

We know that regarding technical performance deep in the TLR, the “end all” absolute maximum takeoff weight is MFPTW. However, when looking at the actual takeoff performance section (the one with the runways and V speeds), the weight shown there is “MTOW” (maximum takeoff weight.) Why is this formatted this way and can you takeoff above this weight?

A

It is formatted this way to simplify everything and give you a practical, usable max weight. So, do not takeoff heavier than what is listed for MTOW.

110
Q

What does method 1 mean on a release?

A

It means that the performance has been calculated for single engine operations from V1 to destination, and determined to have a 6,000’ clearance over the most critical obstruction when operating at planned conditions.

In English: You can fly from V1 to destination, single engine, no problem. No need for any DD alternates.

111
Q

What does it mean to see method 2 on a release?

A

From V1 to destination is not able to be made safely single engine. Therefore drift down alternates are provided, breaking up the flight into different sections on where you would be safe to divert to, if an engine did fail.

112
Q

Regarding a DD alternate, when would you turn toward the alternate in a single-engine condition.

A

Abeam. Don’t go direct if the engine fails, yet.

The data is calculated that you wait until you are abeam the DD alternate, on your original flight path, then once abeam turn toward the DD alternate.

113
Q

You have had an engine failure in cruise, on a method 2 flight. You appropriately wait until you are abeam the DD alternate and then go direct. But now you are appearing to be very high on the VNAV path as you approach the airport. Do you follow VNAV or stay in drift down mode?

A

Stay in drift down mode. The performance is calculated so that you finish the drift down maneuver over the field. Basically, once you get to the field geographically, hold over the field and drift down until you reach your single engine service ceiling. Then consider joining an approach to land. This is important, because you might hit terrain if you decided to descend early while still 100 miles away from the airport or so.

114
Q

If you are near TOD, and lose an engine, what is likely the best airport to land at?

A

The destination. FAR 121.565 says “the PIC shall land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time.”

Key here is point of time versus point of distance. There might be an airport closer, but continuing to the destination is still faster. Every situation is different, just understand point of time versus point of distance.

115
Q

The performance handbook has lengthy paragraphs describing engine failure situations while dispatched under method 2. What is the simple way to describe all situations?

A

The flight plan has terrain single engine accounted for, so when in doubt, back track along the route. For example, if you want to go back to departure airport, follow your routing back. If you want to go to alternate, consider following route to destination, then alternate.

In summary: FAR too complex and dynamic to memorize answers to every possible situation. Ask ATC for minimum vectoring altitudes and get help when determining where you should go from dispatch and ATC.

116
Q

On a landing performance section of a TLR, you see “14R/09R”. What does this mean?

A

LAHSO numbers for landing runway 14R, and holding short of 09R.

Just like intersection takeoff numbers, but this time for landing. Same “/” format.

117
Q 
What do these abbreviations mean on a landing report: 
DRY/R6
WET/R5
CS/R4
SN/R3
SW/SL/R2
ICE/R1
A 
Dry-RCC 6
Wet-RCC 5
Compacted Snow-RCC 4
Snow-RCC 3
Standing Water/Slush- RCC 2
Ice- RCC 1
118
Q

What does HW or TW mean on a landing report?

A

Headwind or Tailwind.

119
Q

On the release, you see CSTID030 under the cruise section. What does this mean?

A

Cost index 30.

Where do you find the cost index table? In the AOM Volume 1. It is basically a speed. The higher the number, the faster you go. The lower means more fuel saving. So cost index 30 is more emphasis on fuel saving as the scale tops out at 100.

120
Q

What fuel is included in MINTO?

A
  1. ) Enroute burn
  2. ) Hold Fuel
  3. ) Go-around/alternate (most distant)
  4. ) Reserve
121
Q

What fuel is included in release fuel?

A
  1. ) MINTO
  2. ) Taxi out
  3. ) Contingency

(Basically all fuel except for taxi in. This number is what you need to see onboard before calling for to the line.)

122
Q

On the dispatch release, you might see something like FPL-SKW5477 - IS. What does “IS” mean?

A

IFR flight (I)

Scheduled (S)

123
Q

On the release, what does -E175L/M-SDE3GIRW/LB1 mean?

A
  • E175L
  • M is medium wake turbulence

and……….

All the other shit is basically equipment like DME, ILS, ACARS, PDC, RVSM, GPS, IRU, ADS-B, etc.
🖒

124
Q

On the release, what is -N0424F260

A

Filed airspeed is 424 knots

Filed altitude is FL260

125
Q

On the release you see

  • KSEA1607
  • KPDX0037

What do these mean?

A
  • Scheduled to depart KSEA at 1607

- Time enroute to KPDX is 37 minutes

126
Q

On the release, what is

-PBN/D1T1 SUR/260B REG/162SY CODE/A0FAC3

A
  • Performance based navigation
  • DME/DME/IRU configuration (D1)
  • RNP with RF leg capable (T1)
  • SUR/260B means ADSB
  • REG is aircraft registration
  • CODE is the unique code for the ADSB in that exact airframe
127
Q

For international flights, you will see EET on the release. What does that mean?

example: EET/CZYZ0020

A

Estimated entry time. (entering CZYZ Canadian airspace 20 minutes after departure).

128
Q

How is reserve fuel calculated?

A

45 minutes of burn, at a the top of descent burn rate. Never less than 2450.

129
Q

How is hold fuel calculated?

A

At planned landing weight, 10,000’ above the destination.

130
Q

How is contingency fuel calculated?

A

At planned landing weight, 15,000’ above the destination airport.

131
Q

On the release, what does EFB, TFB, and EFR mean?

A
  • Estimated fuel burn to next fix (EFB)
  • Total fuel burn since departure (TFB)
  • Estimated fuel remaining (EFR)
132
Q

On the release there is a *TURB ADVISORY section. This gives you EDR (eddy dissipation rate) scales for turbulence severity. The scale is 1-10. What approximate range does light, moderate, severe, and extreme begin at?

A 
0-2= Light
3-4= Moderate
5-8= Severe 
8-10= Extreme
133
Q

Rumors are that KV questions may come up from the last 3 years of CQ study guide KV questions. In the interest of time saving, CQ2021 KV questions are already made in my CQ2021 study card deck. CQ2020 KV questions are under my initial Skywest Condor Edition “KV” deck.

A

See CQ2021 KV study deck

and

Skywest condor edition-KV

134
Q

What precipitation types are you not allowed to takeoff or land in?

A
  • Heavy freezing drizzle

- Moderate or heavy freezing rain

135
Q

For an engine failure at or after V1, there are bank limits. What are they?

A

Limit bank to:

  • 15° at V2
  • 20° at V2 + 5
  • 25° at V2 + 10
136
Q

After a V1 cut, what is the speed range to climb at until reaching acceleration altitude?

A

V2 to V2+10

137
Q

EO AUTO arms itself (white) when an engine fails on takeoff. When does it become active (magenta)?

A

At acceleration altitude.

It gives you magenta FLCH and bugs Vfs.

If it fails, select FLCH and bug Vfs manually.

138
Q

During a V1 cut, what does the flight director pitch for, in terms of speed?

A
  • If your speed is below V2, it pitches for V2
  • If your speed is between V2 and V2 +10, it maintains current speed
  • If your speed is higher than V2 + 10, it pitches for V2 + 10.
139
Q

On an MEL, there are sometimes 3 different letters. (D), (T), and (L). What does each mean?

A

D= Dispatch. (things like max FL or other dispatch related concerns)

T= Tracking. (special considerations such as time restriction, duty cycles, or something like FFOD crew must test XYZ.)

L= Log Entry. (requires a log of some sort of test or function. Like, crew tests AC pump 2 before flight. You would need to log it in the eAML.)

140
Q

LAHSO on wet runways is prohibited. True or false

A

True

141
Q

Ceiling and visibility required for a LAHSO

A

1500’ and 5SM (no PAPI/VASI)

1,000’ and 3SM (PAPI or VASI)

142
Q

Cannot accept a LAHSO if windshear reported within the last ____ minutes.

A

20

143
Q

To accept a LAHSO, are there any wind requirements?

A

Yes. Less than a 3 knot tailwind required.

144
Q

Can you LAHSO at night?

A

Yes. Only if it has FAA approved LAHSO lighting

145
Q

Where do you go to find out how much passengers weigh during summer versus winter, child, infant, adult, bag weight, carry on, large bag versus small bag, etc…

A

EFB- GENERAL- WB OPS SP 4100

look for “average passenger weights” section

146
Q

Can we operate outside of VOR service volumes while enroute and off an airway?

A

Yes, ops spec B031 says we can use approved GPS to supplement off airway operations.

147
Q

In a nutshell, what are the RVSM equipment requirements? (B046)

A
  • 2 independent, cross coupled, altimeter systems
  • One secondary altitude reporting transponder
  • Altitude alert system
  • Autopilot (engaged while level in RVSM).

(RVSM is FL290-410)

148
Q

How to qualify for a special pilot in command qualification airport? (C050)

A

Either:

1.) PIC or SIC has made entry into that airport in real life or level D sim within the last 12 months

or

2.) PIC has qualified using pictorial means (read the airport info page).

NOTE: DO NOT CONFUSE WITH SPECIAL AUTHORIZATION AIRPORTS (C067). These airports require supervised entry! I.E. Eagle, Sun Valley, etc.

149
Q

What if you need to convert statute miles to RVR. Where do you look for a conversion chart?

A

FOM “RVR Conversion Visibility Chart.” No interpolation allowed, use the more restrictive value if applicable.

150
Q

For approaches, visibility values below ____SM are not authorized and shall not be used.

A

1/2.

Must use RVR

(this explains why when you see a CAT 1 with a ballnote, it does not say “3/8 SM”. It says 1800 RVR.)

151
Q

What do you need to see to operate below MDA or DA(H)?

A

SEE:

  1. ) Runway, runway markings, or runway lights
  2. ) Approach light system (For CAT 2 if its ALSF-2 looking for red side row bars. For ALSF-1, looking for red terminating bars.)
  3. ) Threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
  4. ) TDZ, TDZ markings, TDZ lights
  5. ) VASI or PAPI
  6. ) Runway end identifier lights (REIL)

BE ABLE TO:

  1. ) Maintain prescribed flight visibility minimums
  2. ) Maneuver to land using normal maneuvers
152
Q

What is a standard hold?

A

Right turns, 1 minute legs.

Above 14,000’- 1.5 minute legs.

153
Q

We know that you normally have to add 100 and 1/2 for high minimum captain time. (exemption 17203 relieves us of that under most conditions). Let’s say that you must use high minimums because 17203 cannot be used. But the visibility is in RVR. How do you determine the conversion?

A

Ops Spec C054 has a chart specifically for this. It converts published landing minimums into high minimum captain RVR requirements, no math required.

If you forget, type “high minimum pilot-in-command” and you should find it.

154
Q

When do you need an alternate filed?

A
  1. ) 1-2-3 rule
  2. ) Destination is in Alaska and has only 1 runway
  3. ) Destination lacks an instrument approach
  4. ) Freezing precipitation of ANY kind forecast at destination. (includes FZFG and UP unknown precip).
  5. ) RCC less than 3
  6. ) Crosswind component forecast to be out of limits for runway conditions
  7. ) Thunderstorm activity
155
Q

When do you need a takeoff alternate? What is required of that alternate?

A

If the departure airport weather is too low to return and land.

It needs to be 1 hour away, still air, 1 engine inoperative.

156
Q

How does dispatch determine if they can use an airport as an alternate?

A
  1. ) Airports with 1 navigational facility, providing a straight-in approach: Add 400’ and 1 SM to plate minima.
  2. ) Airports with at least 2 navigational facilities, each providing straight in approaches: Add 200’ and 1/2 SM to HIGHEST plate minima.

Can compare both methods, and select the lowest one. That becomes your alternate minimums.

NOTE: Must round up to the nearest 100’. So 620’ MDA would round up to 700’.

157
Q

Where would you find a description of how to fly a noise abatement departure procedure? (2 different types)

A

AOM 1

158
Q

You want to know if an airport is approved to land at. Maybe its approved for fueling, but not as an alternate. Where can you go t find a complete list of all airports that the 175 is approved to go, and the list specifies exactly if that airport is regular, fueling, or alternate?

A

OpsSpec C070.

Keyword search “Airports authorized”

159
Q

How far out can you accept a visual approach?

A

No further than 35 miles out.

160
Q

Regarding departing VFR, there is one main ops spec rule (Other than of course departing VFR you need to have at least 1,000’ and 3 and be able to climb VMC). What is it?

A

Need to pick up IFR clearance no further than 50NM out from departure airport.

161
Q

Its a foggy morning. You cant remember what RVR non standard takeoff minimums are. (or you just are taking a KV and need to know where to find the table). Where can you find the non standard takeoff minima?

A
  1. ) OpsSpec C078 (Textual, not easy to read)
  2. ) FAR/FOM Cross reference-C078 Lower than Standard Takeoff Minimums (This one has a better chart I think).
    - -Screen shot that chart and save it in the pictures of your ipad, will use it.
162
Q

Airspace speed limits- Class B, C, D.

A

Class B- No restrictions inside, 200 below

Class C and D- 200 knots within 4NM below 2500 AGL

163
Q

Hold Speed limits FAA

A

6,000’ and below- 200
6,001’-14,000’: 230
14,001+: 265

164
Q

Procedure turn speed limit

A

200 knots

165
Q

SKW minimum hold speeds

A

Below 6000: 200

Above 6000: 210

166
Q

Slow down to holding speed ____ minutes prior to arriving at the holding fix, and report to ATC when ____.

A

3 minutes; entering the hold. (report includes fix, zulu time, altitude).

167
Q

Easy mental way of eyeballing type of hold entry

A

Anytime you cross the fix and are inside the hold - Teardrop

Anytime you cross the fix and are outside the hold - Parallel

Anytime you cross the fix and are going with the hold - Direct

168
Q

A conservative rule of thumb for the 175 regarding fuel consumption is ______lbs of fuel per every ______ minutes, which is about _____ miles (in cruise).

A

1,000 lbs of fuel per 15 minutes

which is about 100NM. assuming you are cruising at 400 knots TAS.

This rule of thumb assumes 4,000 lbs an hour.

169
Q

You are holding 60 miles away from your destination. You are going to do a quick BAR calculation. How can you instantly determine B?

A

Its about 600 lbs. Because 60 miles away, is 600 lbs. (1,000 lbs every 100 miles). Assuming a rough estimate, but its actually extremely accurate. Super easy way to do BAR.

170
Q

FO is under 100 hours. When must you make the takeoff/ landing?

A
  • Special airports (C067)
  • Visibility less than or equal to 3/4SM or 4000RVR
  • Braking action less than good. Or less than RCC 6.
  • Crosswind component more than 15 knots
  • Windshear reported
171
Q

Is there a time requirement to get 100 hours?

A

No, unlike initially where you had to get 100 hours in 120 days, no time requirement for CA.

172
Q

PIC under 100 hours restrictions:

A
  • Must add 100 and 1/2 to departure airport approach for purposes of takeoff alternate
  • Must add 100 and 1/2 to CAT 1 approach minimums (except now we have exemption 17203)
  • CAT II not authorized
  • Exemption 17347 not authorized
  • Alternate landing minimums to be used are not less than 300 and 1 (WTF FAA?)
173
Q

Explain exemption 17203

A

High mins captains are authorized to use lowest applicable CAT I minimums IF:

-Autopilot engaged to DH or missed
-RVR not less than 4,000 or 3/4 SM
-IF RCC less than 5 or “good,” crosswind may not be more than 15 knots.
(Double check interpretation for yourself, but that is how I understand it. Basically normal crosswind limits apply, so long as RCC is not less than 5.)

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