CBT System Exam Questions Flashcards
1
Q
If the autopilot and auto throttles are on, pressing the TOGA button____.
A
- Sequences the missed
- GA becomes active VNAV armed
- FMS becomes NAV source
- Sets GA thrust
- Track becomes active and LNAV armed
(All of the above)
2
Q
FPA vertical mode commands a specific____
A
Flight path angle (not pitch, but angle relative to the horizon)
3
Q
Pressing the AP/TRIM DISC button on the control wheel once disconnects the autopilot and immediately silences the aural warning “AUTOPILOT.” True or false?
A
False, need to press it twice to cancel aural.
4
Q
While the TCS is pressed on the yoke, the flight director is synced with the flight path angle. True or false?
A
True
5
Q
Press the _____ button on the guidance panel to arm approach lateral and vertical modes.
A
APP
6
Q
Is PTH an FMA vertical mode?
A
Yes
7
Q
Pressing VNAV turns VNAV on/off. When VNAV is on, the vertical mode is displayed in magenta on the FMA. True or false?
A
True
8
Q
FMS Speeds may be used from takeoff to landing, including single engine. True or false?
A
True
9
Q
To follow the flight director guidance, put the FPA (little green airplane) on top of the FD (magenta airplane). True or false?
A
True
10
Q
The FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator), displayed at the top of the PFD, shows______
A
Automation modes and status
11
Q
If the PAX Cabin knob is set to ATTND, the flight attendant has control of the cabin temperature. True or false?
A
True
12
Q
Dry ice can only be placed in the ______ cargo bin.
A
Forward
13
Q
Choose the onboard sources of bleed air:
a. ) APU, Engine 1 and 2
b. ) pack 1 and 2
c. ) vacuum pump 1, ram air inlets, outflow valve.
A
A. APU, and engine 1 and 2.
14
Q
If the pressurization mode button is in auto, the LFE is automatically set based on the flight plan destination. True or false?
A
True
15
Q
Pressing the pressurization dump button____
A
- Opens outflow valve 2,000 FPM
- Commands packs off
- Commands recirculation fans off
16
Q
The buttons on the AIR COND/PNEUMATIC control panel are in the AUTO position if pressed in and dark (no white striped bar). True or false?
A
True
17
Q
The maximum altitude that the aircraft can operate single PACK is____
A
31,000 ft
18
Q
Packs are automatically turned off during engine start (if the button is in the AUTO position). True or false
A
True
19
Q
The APU can supply bleed air for engine and wing anti-ice. True or false?
A
False
20
Q
The _______ protects the airplane’s structure from damage due to over or under pressure.
A
Safety Valves
21
Q
The emergency cockpit and cabin lights have a dedicated battery that lasts for about _____ minutes.
A
10 minutes
22
Q
“The design philosophy of the airplane states that under normal flight operation of its systems, the push buttons and annunciators on the overhead, main, glair shield, and control pedestal panels must be dark. No visual or aural warnings indicate normal operation of the systems.” True or false?
A
True
23
Q
Live animals can be placed ______
A
In the FWD cargo compartment only.
24
Q
The ERJ 175 is equipped with _____
Question answers are ADSB weather, weather radar, or 4G weather
A
Weather radar is correct answer
25
When the waste system tank is full_____
(Select all that apply:
-toilets are disabled
-pilots must push the potable water dump button
-any additional waste will be dumped overboard)
Toilets are disabled
26
When powering down the airplane, make sure that the APU is showing ____ before turning off the batteries.
OFF
(Not mentioned on the exam, but skywest wants us to wait an additional 80 seconds to receive APU FUEL SOV CLOSED EICAS message, before turning off the batteries)
27
The APU provides____
Electrical power and bleed air
28
The maximum altitude that the APU can be used to provide bleed air (pressurization) is______
15,000 ft
29
The maximum altitude that the APU can be started is_____
30,000 ft
30
The maximum altitude that the APU can be used for engine starting is_____
21,000 ft
31
On the MCDU, the radio frequencies can be changed by:
A.) typing frequency on the scratchpad then selecting the desired radio frequency to change
B.) selecting the frequency to be changed then using the tuning knob on the MCDU
C.) all of the above
C.) all of the above
32
Radio frequencies are primarily controlled with the _____
MCDU radio page
33
Pressing the PAX ADRESS button allows direct communication to the passengers regardless of what is selected on the audio control panel. True or false?
True
34
A successful FDR test consists of pressing the FDR test button and verifying that no FDR EICAS messages appear. True or false?
True
35
On the MCDU radio page, the top green frequencies are active, and the bottom white frequencies are standby. True or false?
True
36
When using the oxygen mask, the MIC button on the audio control panel must be selected to MASK to allow for communication. True or false?
False, it should do that automatically when the mask is pulled out. But you can push the button out if auto mode fails.
37
The emergency flight attendant call button, when pressed_____
- sounds triple hi lo chime
- flashes red light on the rainbow bar
- green light inside button flashes
- all of the above
-all of the above
38
The top row of buttons on the audio control panel selects the _______ channel. The second row of buttons on the audio control panel selects the ______ channels.
Transmitting (talking); reception (listening)
39
It is possible to tune radios with the PFD and CCD. True or false
True
40
The control wheel (yoke) PTT switch should be selected to _____ to communicate with ramp personnel.
HOT
41
On the ground, an engine can be started without AC power. True or false?
True
42
The hot battery bud can power certain items when the airplane is powered down. What items are powered? Select all that apply:
- cabin overhead lighting
- navigation lights
- engine fire fighting
- pressure refuel panel
Engine fire fighting
Pressure refuel panel
(Those 2 were scored as correct, although you absolutely could argue that cabin overhead lighting is on the hot bus… AOM II)
43
In case of total AC power loss in flight,
A.) the backup battery will provide power for 30 minutes
B.) only the batteries will power the aircraft
C.) the RAT should automatically deploy and provide limited AC power
C.) RAT will deploy
44
The OFF selection on the IDG selector knob mechanically disconnects it from associated engine. True or false
False
45
Sources of AC include:
- IDGs
- RAT
- GPU
- APU
- All of the above
All of the above
46
When should crews start the APU during normal operations?
10 min prior to push or as necessary for passenger comfort.
47
IDGs provide which type of electrical power?
AC
48
The TRUs convert DC to AC power. True or false
False
49
The E-175 has what types of circuit breakers?
Thermal and electronic
50
What is the minimum battery voltage required for normal operation?
22.5 Volts
51
When inspecting the crew O2 mask, ensure that ____ is selected.
100%
52
When crew O2 is indicating Cyan on the status page, enough O2 is available for ______ crew members.
2
53
The emergency medical kit (EMK) can only be used by qualified medical personnel (such as EMTs and doctors). True or false
True (FA can open it but can’t use the medical equipment)
54
When inspecting the PBE, the humidifier should be _____, which is normal.
Blue
55
Halon fire extinguishers are used to fight which of the following types of fires?
- Flammable solids such as wood, paper, plastic
- Electrical equipment
- Flammable liquids such as oil and gas
- All of the above
-All of the above
56
ATTCS must be ON for takeoff. True or false
True
57
What landing scenario would require reverse thrust?
- contaminated runway
- low vis landings
- cross wins conditions
Contaminated runway
58
Before each flight, engine oil is checked and must be indicating______ to fly
Green (not amber)
59
Crossbleed start requires what range of PSI?
40-45PSI
60
What is the primary means to set engine thrust?
N1 gauge
61
What is the first engine start attempt time limitation?
- 120 seconds
- 60 seconds
- 90 seconds
- 30 seconds
90 seconds.
| This is a derp question because they don’t specify if on the ground or in the air. Scored correctly as 90 seconds
62
The thrust levers command the FADEC electronically. True or false?
True
63
When the thrust reversers are open, a green REV appears on the EICAS between the N1 and ITT gauges. True or false?
True
64
What is the minimum oil pressure after engine start?
25 PSI (green)
65
What condition would NOT warrant the use of MAX thrust?
- short field takeoff
- stall recovery
- wind shear escape maneuver
Short field takeoff
66
When fire extinguisher handle is pulled, what valves close? Select all that apply:
- Bleed SOV
- Fuel SOV
- Hydraulic SOV
- Fuel Xfeed valve
- Bleed SOC
- Hydraulic SOV
- Bleed SOV
(Also the cross BLEED valve closes. It isn't an answer choice. But one of the answer choices is crossFEED which is incorrect. You still need to access fuel from both tanks if you are single engine, but you wouldn't want fire coming through the bleed valve.)
67
If an APU fire is detected, how long before the shutoff valve automatically closes?
10 seconds (ground ONLY)
68
What areas of the aircraft have built in fire protection? Select all the apply:
- engines
- main passenger cabin
- Cargo compartments
- APU
- LAV trash cans
- engines
- cargo compartments
- APU
- LAV trash cans
69
When must a fire detection system test be performed?
On the crew’s first flight of the day in a particular airplane.
70
How do we fight an annunciated FWD cargo fire?
Press the annunciated guarded fwd cargo fire extinguisher button once to discharge halon.
(Dumb question considering you’d get in trouble for doing that on a checkride. They want us to utilize MEAN acronym, not wing it. This is the best answer out of all of the possible ones, it’s very obvious)
71
The takeoff configuration checks that the pitch trim is in the green range. If outside the green range, “NO TAKEOFF, TRIM” will be heard when adding power for takeoff. True or false?
True
72
In flight, the speed brakes will automatically stow if:
-(all are correct)
- airspeed slower than 180 knots
- flaps 2 or greater
- thrust levers greater than 70 degrees TLA
73
Stall protection is accomplished with ____
Stick shaker and AOA limiting (higher level function of elevator)
74
The hydraulic PBIT begins to run when ______ and takes _______ minutes to complete.
All 3 systems are pressurized;
Takes 1 minute to complete.
75
If the spoilers go into direct mode, ground spoilers are still available but must be manually deployed. True or false?
False
| If you lose higher level functions, ground spoilers are gone, regardless of spoiler lever position
76
The hydraulic PBIT can be interrupted if a flight control surface is moved. True or false?
True
77
Yaw trim is automatically accomplished when the autopilot is on. True or false?
False
78
The stick shaker will activate if the airplane is pitched to the PLI and/or the airspeed indicates in the low speed awareness (red) region. True or false?
True
79
The electric PBIT can be interrupted by turning on a hydraulic pump. True or false?
True
80
All of the flight controls are fly by wire except for ______
Ailerons
81
The electric and hydraulic PBIT tests, when successfully completed, last for _____ hours.
50
82
In _______ Mode, the flight controls have higher level functions like AOA limiting.
Normal
83
The maximum speed for slat/flap 1 is
230 knots
84
The _____ provides higher level functions to the flight controls
FCM (flight control module)
85
The electric PBIT begins to run when _____ and takes ______ minutes to complete.
AC power is established;
3 minutes
86
The aircraft is equipped with ____ IRS units that supply pitch, bank, and slip/skid information to the PFD. If one fails, reversion is______.
2; Automatic
87
Green dot (on the airspeed indicator) shows:
A.) drift down speed
B.) at least 1.3G over shaker (40 degree bank)
C.) ideal flap extension speed
D.) all of the above
D. All of the above
88
ILS Information can be displayed on the IESS. True or false?
True
89
When selected speed and bug speed are displayed in magenta, this is called ______ speeds and the ______ is setting the speed.
FMS; FMS
90
The FPA (flight path angle) shows:
The actual path of the plane relative to the horizon.
91
To perform a crossfeed, set the crossfeed switch to:
The low side
92
The ERJ 175 has 2 in-wing fuel tanks, each divided into a collector, main, and surge tank. True or false?
True
93
The primary pump used to transport fuel from the tank to the engine is the ______.
Main ejector pump
94
An unpowered airplane can be refueled because the pressure refuel panel is on the hot battery bus. True or false?
True
95
When the crossfeed sector is set to LOW 1, __________ (what happens)
The AC Fuel Pump on the high side (2-right side) turns on, and both engines are supplied fuel from the high tank (2- right side)
96
The PTU:
Assists the landing gear retraction or extension, should a right engine or right EDP (engine driven hydraulic pump) failure occur.
(The right side supplies the hydraulic pressure for the gear, so the PTU is able to rob pressure from the left side to operate the gear if you lose the hydraulic pump on the right side)
97
To check the hydraulic reservoir temperature, pressure, and quantity, go to the :
Hydraulic synoptic page on the MFD.
98
In System 3, ______ is the primary hydraulic pump.
3A
99
For single engine taxi on engine 2, ACMP 1 will automatically turn on (with ACMP 1 set to AUTO). True or false?
False
100
The emergency parking brake has a dedicated accumulator that provides enough pressure for 6 emergency/parking brake applications. (With system 1 and 2 depressurized). True or false?
True
101
Before pressing a guarded switch such as the EDP shutoff button when directed by the QRH, both pilots must confirm that it is the correct switch. True or false?
True
102
ACMP 1 and 2 must be turned on manually for takeoff and landing. True or false?
False
103
The backup hydraulic pumps for systems 1 and 2 are the:
ACMP 1 and ACMP 2. (ACMPs = AC motor pumps)
104
The primary hydraulic pumps for systems 1 and 2 are the:
EDPs (engine driven pumps)
105
For normal flight operations, the hydraulic control panel knobs and buttons are in _____
12 o’clock position, auto/dark
106
Windshield wipers may get stuck if operated on a dry window. True or false?
True
107
The tail is equipped with anti icing. True or false?
False
108
The ADS probes heater turns on automatically when______
an engine is started
109
When the buttons on the ice protection panel are pushed in (dark), operation is automatic. True or false?
True
110
The portion of the leading edge (slats) protected by the ice and rain protection system is heated using______ .
Bleed air
111
The maximum windshield wiper speed is:
250 knots
112
The windshield heat comes on automatically when_____.
2 AC power sources are in use.
(Not to be confused with the initial 120 second windshield heat test that is initiated when the airplane is initially powered up)
113
Potable water may be dumped by pressing the dump button ____
A.) on the ground or in flight
B.) in flight only
C.) on the ground only
B.) in flight only
114
Status information about the ice protection system is shown on the MFD anti-ice synoptic page and on the EICAS. True or false?
True
115
When the ice protection mode knob is set to AUTO, the ice protection will turn on in flight if the ice detector detects ice and the aircraft has climbed above 1700 AFE or the aircraft has been airborne for 2 minutes, whichever occurs first. True or false?
True
116
To reconnect the nosewheel steering,
The tiller must be pressed down
117
Brake temps must be indicating _____ before takeoff
Green
118
The pilot can verify that the steering is off by:
A STEER OFF on EICAS
119
The DN LOCK REL button should be pressed ______
Only as directed by a QRH or if gear retraction is necessary for obstacle clearance.
120
When the auto brakes are set to RTO, maximum braking is applied when _____
When speed is above 60 knots and thrust levers are in IDLE or REV
121
For auto brakes, RTO is a takeoff setting, and LO/MED/HI are landing settings. True or false?
True
122
Once engaged, the aircraft can be steered:
A.) with differential braking only
B.) with rudder pedals or hand wheel steering (tiller), but not both at the same time
C.) with rudder pedals and tiller at the same time
B.) with rudder pedals or tiller, not at the same time
123
Taxi shall be conducted with all 3 hydraulic systems pressurized. True or false?
True
124
If engine 2 or EDP 2 fail, the _____ assists in landing gear extension and retraction.
PTU
125
The steering can be disconnected by the pilot by:
Pressing the steering disconnect switch on the yoke
126
When the EMER/parking brake is set, the pilot can verify adequate pressure by looking at:
The EMERGENCY/PRKG BRAKE light (below the auto brake knob)
127
When the auto brakes are set to LOW/MED/HI, they begin to apply braking ___ seconds after landing (WOW sensed) and release braking______
2 seconds;
When the brake pedals are pressed (more than 20%)
128
The landing gear electrical override switch:
Bypasses gear sensor and evaluation computers, and commands a hydraulically actuated gear extension.
129
The landing gear and brakes are _______ actuated.
Hydraulically
130
The emergency/parking brake has a dedicated accumulator that can provide ____ applications of the brake when systems 1 and 2 are depressurized.
6
131
The FMS determines airplane position using
- GPS
- VOR/DME
- IRS
- All of the above
All of the above
132
The IRS can align on the ground or in flight. True or false?
True
133
The _____ is the primary navigation system
FMS
134
Navigation source information on the PFD is shown in ______ if FMS, _______ if VOR/LOC, and _______ if cross side.
Magenta, green, amber
135
Radar range and tilt are adjusted using
The CCD outer and inner knobs
136
Warning system messages are displayed on the ______
EICAS
137
The takeoff configuration button checks that the following are in takeoff configuration
Parking brake, pitch trim, slats/flaps, and spoilers
138
Warning system EICAS messages are prioritized with the most urgent messages being displayed at the top of the list. True or false
True
139
The aircraft is equipped with wind shear detection and escape guidance. True or false
True
140
Individual inhibit buttons, such as GND PROX G/S INHIB button can inhibit certain functions of the EGPWS. True or false
True
141
The master warning pushbutton (red) blinks and a triple chime sounds when _____
A new warning message is displayed on the EICAS.
142
If a stick shaker is activated, autopilot disengages. True or false?
True
143
The EGPWS provides visual and aural warnings to help pilots avoid:
CFIT
144
Warning messages (red) require immediate crew action and are the highest priority. True or false?
True
145
The aircrafts relative height above terrain is represented on the MFD with ______ and the indication representing the highest terrain is ______.
Colors; red
