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CDC SET A > Unit End > Flashcards

Unit End Flashcards

1
Q

Which career field subdivision loads nuclear and nonnuclear air-to-air munitions, explosives, and propellant devices on aircraft?

A

Aircraft armament.

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2
Q

What are the first steps needed prior to starting 5-skill level upgrade training?

A

Complete basic training, be assigned to the career field, and complete technical school.

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3
Q

Which level of security clearance must an Airman of the 2X0X1 specialty be capable of receiving?

A

Secret.

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4
Q

At what skill level does an ammo troop perform tasks associated with day-to-day munitions operations as either a crewmember or as a crew chief?

A

Journeyman.

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5
Q

Reaching the 7-skill level signifies advancement from a journeyman to a…

A

craftsman.

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6
Q

Which minimum grade must be reached to be qualified as a munitions superintendent (2W091)?

A

Senior master sergeant (E–8).

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7
Q

In the munitions systems career field, what is expected of a 9-skill level superintendent?

A

Take measures to ensure the highest degree of munitions capability and accountability.

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8
Q

Where can you find general skill level training requirements and career path progression information?

A

Part I of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

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9
Q

Which course must be completed before a craftsman can be upgraded to a superintendent?

A

Air Force Combat Ammunition Planning and Production course as a SNCO.

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10
Q

What is the most used section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan for upgrade training?

A

The Specialty Training Standard.

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11
Q

Which system allows ammo trainees and trainers to electronically document individual training records?

A

Training Business Area (TBA).

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12
Q

Which agency or organization develops command supplements or directives for implementation?

A

Major command (MAJCOM).

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13
Q

Which agency is a tactical echelon that provides operational leadership and supervision directly under the MAJCOM level of command?

A

Numbered Air Force.

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14
Q

Which command has cradle-to-grave responsibility of a weapon system?

A

Air Force Materiel Command.

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15
Q

Which organization has the mission to execute product support and supply management for Air Force munitions and related assets?

A

Air Force Global Ammunition Control Point.

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16
Q

Which Air Force entity consisting of at least 1,000 personnel, is composed of groups, squadrons, and flights?

A

Wing.

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17
Q

Which type of wing performs a support function rather than an operational mission?

A

Air base.

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18
Q

Which type of wing does a training wing represent?

A

Specialized mission.

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19
Q

When a munitions squadron is authorized, which additional AF specialty is often added as a flight within?

A

Armament systems.

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20
Q

Which area in the maintenance group manages the technical order improvement program?

A

Quality assurance

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21
Q

Who appoints in writing personnel authorized to process, ship, and receive arms, ammunition, and explosives (AA&E)?

A

Squadron commander.

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22
Q

Who manages the munitions portion of the war consumable distribution objective for the assigned stock record account number?

A

Munitions accountable systems officer

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23
Q

Who must ensure customers outside the munitions unit are notified of suspended or restricted ammunition?

A

Munitions accountable systems officer

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24
Q

Who is responsible for the management, supervision, and training of all assigned shop personnel?

A

Element noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)

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25
Q

Which element within the production section usually have their own inspectors assigned to inspect for munitions residue and to verify expenditures from the flightline?

A

Conventional maintenance.

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26
Q

Which element within the production section monitors and maintains data for Tactical Munitions Reporting System (TMRS)?

A

Precision guided munitions.

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27
Q

Which element within the production section works closely with munitions control and weapons expeditors for flightline support activity?

A

Line delivery.

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28
Q

Which section within the munitions flight plans, schedules, controls, and directs all munitions activities?

A

Systems.

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29
Q

Which munitions element is not required at deployed locations or for units that do not support aircraft?

A

Combat plans/training/mobility.

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30
Q

Which munitions element maintains inspection/test results of lightning protection and grounding systems?

A

Munitions plans and scheduling.

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31
Q

Which munitions element maintains and validates all auditable munitions records?

A

Operations.

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32
Q

Which munitions element determines and assigns condition codes to munitions assets?

A

Inspection.

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33
Q

Which annex of an operations plan (OPLAN) identifies nonnuclear munitions requirements?

A

D.

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34
Q

The plan that is primarily developed for locations with a permanent Air Force presence and translates MAJCOM operation planning concepts into base level capabilities to support contingency forces is…

A

in-garrison expeditionary site.

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35
Q

Which plan is primarily developed for locations without a permanent Air Force presence and may contain only the minimum data necessary to make initial bed down decisions?

A

Expeditionary site.

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36
Q

Who at the base level develops the munitions employment plan?

A

Munitions supervision.

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37
Q

When developing a munitions employment plan, the action that is the most efficient way to gather information is to…

A

conduct a site survey.

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38
Q

The War Consumable Distribution Objective contains information on munitions anticipated to be expended during…

A

conflict.

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39
Q

In reference to implementing an operation or plan, which order gives the combatant commander all essential execution planning information when the situation requires process acceleration?

A

Planning.

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40
Q

In reference to implementing an operation or plan, the order that provides the combatant commander an approved…

A

alert.

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41
Q

In reference to implementing an operation or plan, which order is issued by the Secretary of Defense and directs the deployment and/or employment of forces?

A

Execute.

42
Q

Who acquires and maintains the pallet couplers, plastic coverings, tiedown straps, and dunnage for building deployment packages?

A

Deploying units.

43
Q

The frequency of training required for pallet build-up personnel is…

A

initial and annually.

44
Q

Within which wing(s) is a Commander’s Inspection Program (CIP) required for conducting internal inspections?

A

All Air Force.

45
Q

A reason for an external inspection by an outside agency is…

A

to validate and verify the wing’s internal inspection process.

46
Q

Management internal control toolset (MICT) program is a…

A

continual real-time evaluation tool.

47
Q

The physical security protection level nuclear weapons fall under is…

A

1

48
Q

Under which physical security protection level do facilities storing conventional munitions and Air Force accounting and finance vault areas fall under?

A

4

49
Q

What are the two security areas a munitions systems specialist will normally encounter?

A

Restricted areas and controlled areas.

50
Q

The person that provides written permission for authorizing personnel entry into a restricted area is the…

A

commander.

51
Q

How many entry control points should be set up for each restricted area?

A

1

52
Q

Which system is normally used to gain entry to a munitions storage area?

A

Badge.

53
Q

Controlled inventory item codes are used to…

A

identify the degree of security while the munitions item is in storage or transit.

54
Q

Which Department of Defense risk category consists of complete man-portable nonnuclear missiles and rockets that are in a ready-to-fire configuration?

A

Category I.

55
Q

The protection given to very-high-risk and high-risk items (Categories I and II) is an alarmed facility unless what other condition exist?

A

Facility is continuously manned or under constant surveillance.

56
Q

Which information is an operations indicator and a potential operations security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

A

Unusual or increased trips and conferences by senior officials.

57
Q

What information is a logistics and maintenance support indicator and a potential operations security (OPSEC) vulnerability?

A

Prepositioned equipment.

58
Q

The two positions that the personnel reliability program (PRP) is divided into are…

A

critical and controlled.

59
Q

To aid the commander in determining personnel reliability, what is the best indicator of an individual?

A

Past performance.

60
Q

The nuclear surety two-person concept is designed to…

A

ensure that a lone individual never has the opportunity to tamper with a nuclear weapon.

61
Q

The area that would not be considered a no-lone zone is…

A

a storage structure with all-up-round conventional bombs.

62
Q

Which reporting flag word brings nuclear surety related deficiencies to the immediate attention of the agencies that can evaluate the problems and correct them before they cause a more serious mishap?

A

Dull Sword.

63
Q

Mishaps involving Air Force owned nuclear certified equipment shall use which reporting platform?

A

Air Force Safety Automated System.

64
Q

The person(s) that provides all Air Force personnel a safe and healthy work environment in which recognized hazards have been eliminated or controlled is the…

A

commanders.

65
Q

Which major command (MAJCOM) gives technical assistance to mishap investigation boards and implements corrective action involving product/equipment safety aspects for mishap reports?

A

Air Force Materiel Command.

66
Q

Under the Air Force Occupational Safety program, which action is a responsibility of both workers and supervisors?

A

Understanding and observing safety standards.

67
Q

The method that is not one of the basic rules used for reducing back injuries is to…**

A

keep the load away from your body.

68
Q

When handling items manually, which parts of the body are most likely to receive an injury?

A

Hands and fingers.

69
Q

Where should flammable materials be stored in accordance with AFMAN 91–201 and AFI 91–203?

A

In an approved self-closing metal storage locker.

70
Q

Fire drills should to be conducted within an explosive storage area…

A

semi-annually.

71
Q

An electrical storm is considered “in the near vicinity” when it is within approximately how many miles of the munitions storage area?

A

5

72
Q

The publication you can find inspection requirements for a permanent or portable eyewash system is…

A

AFI 91–203.

73
Q

Munitions are grouped into the same hazard division when they have

A

like explosive characteristics.

74
Q

Which class/division explosions generally cause severe structural damage to adjacent objects?

A

1.1

75
Q

Some items included in explosive class/division 1.2 are…

A

20mm and 30mm ammunition.

76
Q

The munitions associated with explosive class/division 1.4 are

A

small arms ammunitions.

77
Q

One of the most difficult problems a supervisor has in training crewmembers is getting them to…

A

follow all technical order (TO) procedures.

78
Q

What is a basic principle to follow when using technical orders (TO)?

A

Know how to locate information.

79
Q

A typical technical order is broken down into what kind of sections?

A

Work packages.

80
Q

Air Force explosive safety standards are identified in…

A

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–201.

81
Q

It is essential that missile safety personnel are familiar with missile

A

transportation routes.

82
Q

Which type of munitions poses a forward firing ordnance hazard?

A

Flare/flare dispensers.

83
Q

The Air Force instruction (AFI) that governs the intrinsic radiation safety program is

A

AFI 91–108.

84
Q

Which publication is used to obtain information to measure intrinsic radiation of weapons in the stockpile?

A

TO 11N–20–7, Nuclear Safety Criteria.

85
Q

Personnel who are not normally part of an explosives operation but have duties that require their presence are referred to as…

A

casuals.

86
Q

Under what circumstance would a crew chief stop an explosive operation?

A

An unknown visitor enters the area.

87
Q

When is it acceptable to make a modification to a munitions item without referencing the technical order or getting authorization from the item manager first?

A

Never.

88
Q

Who has responsibility to conserve and protect government property and supplies on your installation?

A

All USAF members.

89
Q

What are two supply references that cover practices and procedures for US government property?

A

AFI 23–101 and DoDI 4140.01.

90
Q

For a reusable container to be considered usable, which requirements must it meet?

A

Capable of protecting unserviceable items against further deterioration.

91
Q

In regards to maintenance data collection, whose overall responsibility is it to ensure the accuracy and completion of all maintenance actions performed at the lowest level?

A

Each performing work center supervisor.

92
Q

The type of maintenance similar to performing an oil and filter change on your personally owned vehicle is known as what kind of maintenance?

A

Preventive.

93
Q

Which type of maintenance is scheduled after a specified amount of time (e.g., 30, 180, 360 days)?

A

Periodic.

94
Q

When the automated system to document maintenance data (generated work order) is not available, use the manual method by completing an…

A

AFTO Form 349, Maintenance Data Collection Record.

95
Q

When using the “CORRECTIVE ACTION” block on an AFTO Form 244, how do you correct an erroneous red dash or red diagonal entry?

A

Enter “Symbol/Initial entered in error, no discrepancy exits” and enter their minimum signature in the “CORRECTED BY” block.

96
Q

What is a basic reason for creating emphasis on air intercept missile (AIM) and air-to- ground missile (AGM) reliability monitoring systems?

A

The need to determine how well an equipment item meets its functioning requirement and how that item will perform in the future.

97
Q

Which agency maintains the Air Force’s operational air-intercept missile and air-to-ground missile inventory?

A

Warner Robins Air Logistics Center (WR-ALC).

98
Q

Which Air Force computer system operated at the base level is used specifically for updating missile records?

A

Tactical missile reporting system.

99
Q

Which of the following missiles is not tracked using the tactical missile reporting system?

A

AGM–86.

100
Q

Which program/menu in the tactical missile reporting system allows you to enter a missile’s flight hour data?

A

Missile update.

CDC SET A (10 decks)

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