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CDC SET A > A3 > Flashcards

A3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who appoints munitions inspectors?

A

Flight chiefs or their equivalent.

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2
Q

What skill level(s) must be earned before becoming a certified munitions inspector?

A

The 5 skill level.

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3
Q

List at least three responsibilities of a munitions inspector.

A

Any three of the following:
(1) Informs the MASO, munitions control, and munitions supervision immediately upon notification of
restricted or suspended munitions through CMRS that affect munitions serviceability.
(2) Monitor shelf/service life dates by reviewing CAS and coordinate changes/updates.
(3) Determine and assign appropriate condition codes to all munitions as directed by applicable TOs.
(4) Initiate, maintain, and process applicable documents and historical records.
(5) Ensure munitions assets are properly tagged, marked, and packed.
(6) Verifies accuracy of all inspection documentation.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the munitions surveillance program?”

A

To provide a high degree of confidence that munitions have not been adversely affected by storage
conditions, age, use, or the environment, and can be expected to perform as designed.

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5
Q

What technical order provides guidance on general inspection requirements for all inspections?

A

TO 11A–1–10, Air Force Munitions Surveillance Program and Serviceability Procedures.ners?ions?

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6
Q

Under what two conditions are inspectors required to open hermetically sealed containers?ions?

A

When the specific item technical order directs that the container be opened and when the outer appearance
of the container indicates signs of damage or corrosion that may have penetrated the container.

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7
Q

List at least three steps that must be completed for general inspection procedures.iners?ions?

A

Any three of the following:
(1) Check current item TO/WEBFLIS/JHCS for the controlled inventory item code (CIIC) and DODAC
(FSC-DODIC) to determine if the NSN and CIIC are correct.
(2) Check the ammunition lot or serial number against CMRS to ensure the item(s) has not been restricted
or suspended from use.
(3) Check the external packaging for obvious defects and that the packaging is adequate to withstand
additional handling, storage, and/or shipment.
(4) Check the external markings for the minimum required markings.
(5) Verify that enough shelf and service life remains for the item’s intended use/purpose

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8
Q

What inspection ensures the highest degree of confidence in which the inspector looks for defects
that may reduce reliability?

A

Periodic inspection (PI).

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9
Q

What type of inspection is performed at the direction of competent authorities, the MAJCOM, or
Air Logistics Center (ALC)?

A

Special inspection (SPI).

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10
Q

What must you do if two condition codes apply to the same item?

A

Use the most restrictive condition code.]

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11
Q

What condition code applies if an item is issuable with qualification

A

CC/B.

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12
Q

What condition code applies if an item is considered unserviceable until limited restoration has
been accomplished?

A

CC/E.

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13
Q

What condition code applies if an item is suspended in stock?

A

CC/J.

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14
Q

What condition code applies if an item is suspended for emergency combat use only?

A

CC/N.

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15
Q

What unserviceable tag identifies condition codes H, P, and V items?

A

DD Form 1577/1577–1.

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16
Q

Direct input is the preferred method of loading what type of information into CAS?

A

Inspection results.

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17
Q

When direct input into CAS is not used, what form is used to update item lot history?

A

AFTO Form 102.

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18
Q

What CAS program displays condition and status of stockpile and custody assets?

A

Asset Balance Inquiry.

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19
Q

What CAS program is used by local MASOs and Equipment Specialists at the Ammunition
Control Point to provide final disposition instructions on ADR actions?

A

Ammunition Disposition Request Process.

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20
Q

What CAS report is included with shipments to satisfy lot history record requirements in
accordance with TO 11A–1–10?ò

A

The lot history inspection report.

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21
Q

When you identify a supply discrepancy, what is the first thing you must determine?

A

The category it falls into. Is it a shipping or packaging type discrepancy?

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22
Q

What type of discrepancy applies if you discover any variation in quantity or condition of
materiel from that reflected on the supply documents?

A

Shipping.

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23
Q

Which publication identifies the time standards for submitting supply discrepancy reports
(SDRs)?

A

AFJMAN 23–215.

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24
Q

If problems attributable to a carrier are found during a receiving inspection, who should you
notify immediately about the discrepancies?

A

Transportation officer or the transportation management office (TMO).pancy?

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25
Q

What is the role of munitions inspectors for processing a transportation discrepancy report
(TDR)?

A

To assist TMO in identifying the information required to complete the transportation discrepancy report.[

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26
Q

What two forms are used to report transportation discrepancies of applicable CLASSIFIED or
PROTECTED shipments?

A

SF 361 and Joint Message Form.i

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27
Q

Which report is used to identify problems attributable to the manufacturer of munitions/military
weapon systems?

A

Product quality deficiency report (PQDR).

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28
Q

What TO identifies the proper marking requirements for inert and empty items?

A

TO 11A–1–53.

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29
Q

What are the general principles of an inert munitions item?

A

A munitions item or component whose explosive material has been replaced by an inert material.

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30
Q

What indicates a munitions item as practice?

A

Painted light blue, or a light blue band.

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31
Q

What are the general principles of an empty munitions item?

A

Munition items that have had their explosive material completely removed or left out during the time of
manufacture, and not replaced by other materials

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32
Q

What types of items are required to have holes drilled in the area that contained explosive
material?

A

All components stocklisted as explosive which have had their explosive material removed for training,
display, or research and development.

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33
Q

In what TO can you find procedures for inspecting empty containers?

A

TO 11A–1–60.

34
Q

What three areas must a person be knowledgeable of to inspect for munitions residue?

A

(1) The precious metals recovery program, (2) disposal of classified material, and (3) demilitarization
requirements and procedures.

35
Q

Describe what is meant by munitions residue?

A

Material remaining after a munitions item has had its explosive filler removed by either normal functioning
or demilitarization.

36
Q

What must be done to munitions residue items previously inspected if the container’s seals show
evidence of tampering?

A

Such a finding requires re-inspection and re-certification.

37
Q

Where are certificates of clearance placed for empty containers once required inspections are
completed?

A

Attached to the inside of the container, and as part of the turn-in/shipment documents.

38
Q

What is the mode of choice for shipping munitions overseas?

A

ISO container by water vessel/ship.

39
Q

During an initial inspection of an inbound shipment what do you inspect first?

A

The seals.

40
Q

What must the inchecker do if the received quantity, lot number or NSN is different from the
shipping document?

A

Circle the erroneous information on the document, enter correct information, and initial the changes.

41
Q

If any transport vehicle is found or suspected to be in a hazardous condition attributable to other
than normal circumstances what action must be taken?

A

The vehicle is moved to a “suspect vehicle’ holding area, unless it is more hazardous to move the vehicle.

42
Q

What is the governing directive for munitions shipments by military air?

A

AFMAN 24-204

43
Q

What technical order (TO) provide guidance on blocking and bracing munitions for over-the-road
travel?

A

TO 11A–1–61–1.

44
Q

Who regulates the movement of explosives by commercial aircraft?

A

The Federal Aviation Administration..

45
Q

Where can you find the criteria for inspecting the ISO container?

A

The MIL-HDBK–138B, Guide to Container Inspection for Commercial and Military Intermodal
Containers.

46
Q

What is the purpose of performance oriented packaging (POP)?

A

To keep the hazardous materials inside the container and away from people and the environment.

47
Q

In regards to UN specification POP requirements, what items are exempt under the grandfather
clause?

A

Government owned goods packaged before 1 January 1990.

48
Q

What gives you detailed instructions on how a specific item is packed and marked for
transportation?

A

The special packaging instruction (SPI).

49
Q

Which two technical orders can assist with general marking requirements for munitions item
containers?

A

The item TO and TO 11A–1–10.

50
Q

What automated source can be used to verify the proper shipping name for a munitions item?

A

Joint Hazard Classification System (JHCS).

51
Q

What is the main purpose for a shipping inspection?

A

To ensure that the munitions prepared for shipment are the same as reflected on the shipping documents.

52
Q

Who issues competent approval authority?

A

Ogden-Air Logistics Center (OO-ALC).

53
Q

When would a certification of equivalency be issued?

A

When packaging does not meet CFR 49 requirements, but certifies that packaging meets or exceeds
standards to keep asset safe.

54
Q

When we enclose shipping documents in the number one container of the shipment what must
you mark the container with?

A

“DOCUMENTS ENCLOSED.”

55
Q

What is the definition of a munitions storage magazine?

A

Any building or structure, except an operating building, used for the storage of explosives.

56
Q

What are the two general types of munitions storage magazines?

A

(1) Earth covered and (2) above ground.

57
Q

What are the major differences between standard and non-standard earth-covered magazines
(ECMs)?

A

Standard ECMs have reinforced concrete end walls and nonstandard ECMs are those igloos constructed
with other than concrete or steel arches or with other than concrete end walls.

58
Q

What is the most common type of munitions storage structure?

A

Standard earth-covered arch-type igloo.

59
Q

What device ensures the ventilator flap doors close when temperatures reach a maximum of 155
to 165 °F?

A

A fusible link.

60
Q

A firebreak of how many feet is required around ECM ventilators?

A

5 feet.

61
Q

What is the ideal and most secure way of installing a hasp on a munitions facility?

A

Welding.

62
Q

To keep locks operating properly, how often should they be opened and closed?

A

Once a month.

63
Q

What is the source document for explosives capacities and controls for your facilities?

A

The explosive site plan.

64
Q

What is quantity-distance (QD)?

A

Refers to the amount (quantity) of explosive material and the distances allowed between them and other
facilities, roads, runways, buildings, and so forth, for given degrees of protection.

65
Q

What are quantity-distance (QD) principles based on?

A

The construction and type of PES; the explosives content of the PES; the construction and type of ES; the
distance separating the PES from the ES; and orientation of the PES and the ES in the case of igloos and
modules.

66
Q

List instances when you would apply intraline distance (ILD) involving an explosives location.

A

Any two explosives operating locations.

(1) Explosives operating buildings from explosives storage locations.
(2) Activities that directly support the explosives operation or area.

67
Q

What is inhabited building distance (IBD)?

A

The minimum allowable distance between a non-related inhabited building and an explosives location.

68
Q

What type barricade also known as an “Armco revetment”, can be temporarily positioned on the
flightline for separating munitions?

A

The earth filled, steel bin barricade.

69
Q

What is the main reason for posting fire and chemical warning signs?

A

To caution and inform anyone who may have a need to enter the area, building, or room with munitions
present.

70
Q

If more than one fire symbol applies, which one should you use?

A

The symbol that applies to the most hazardous munitions in the facility.

71
Q

When would you attempt to fight a fire with fire symbol 1 assets involved?

A

Only when rescue attempt is planned, or if there is suitable separation to symbol 1 materials and fire chief
approves. Stop fighting fire immediately once personal safety is threatened.

72
Q

Name one reason the backing of fire symbols is required to be made of a noncombustible material
having the same design as the symbol.

A

In case the symbol burns off in a fire, the backing showing the design of the symbol will provide the
response forces with the information needed to determine the hazards involved.

73
Q

According to AFMAN 91-201, what exception will be made with storing special weapons or
nuclear munitions?

A

Warning symbols will not be posted.

74
Q

Where is the basic guidance for creating storage locations identified?

A

TO 11A–1–61–1.

75
Q

What identifies the standard location designator for munitions?

A

An 11 digit alphanumeric system.

76
Q

When are munitions items considered compatible?

A

If they may be stored or transported together without significantly increasing either the probability of a
mishap or, for given quantity, the magnitude of the effects for such a mishap.

77
Q

How many “lite” boxes are allowed in one storage location?

A

Only one per stock number, lot number, per condition code, per storage location.

78
Q

For what purpose was buffered storage designed and tested?

A

To increase the explosive storage capacity of limited NEW igloos, without increasing quantity distance
separation requirements.

79
Q

What is the maximum number of special weapons each vault can hold?

A

4.

80
Q

What are the four major groups of a weapons storage and security system (WS3)?

A

(1) The console group, (2) monitor-indicator group, (3) coder-transfer group, and (4) the vault control
group.

81
Q

What is the purpose of the WS3 vault control group?

A

Provides physical storage and security for special weapons and related equipment.

82
Q

What major WS3 group provides communications and processing capabilities for up to 80 vault
subsystems?

A

The console group.

CDC SET A (10 decks)

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