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CDC SET A > A1 > Flashcards

A1 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the three general functional areas (subdivisions) of the 2W career field.

A

Munitions systems, aircraft armament, and nuclear weapons.

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2
Q

Due to the AFECD being general in nature, what duties and responsibilities are not included in the AFECD for a specific specialty?

A

Unique base or command responsibilities.

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3
Q

Why is it important for you to be familiar with the duties of all the subdivisions of the 2W career field?

A

Because all the subdivisions of the 2W career field interrelate with each other to carry out the mission.

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4
Q

Identify the responsibilities of 2W1X1 and 2W2X1 subdivisions.

A

(1) Aircraft armament (2W1X1) - responsible for the loading of nuclear and nonnuclear air munitions, explosives, and propellant devices on aircraft.
(2) Nuclear weapons (2W2X1) - performs and manages maintenance, inspection, storage, handling, modification, accountability and repair of nuclear weapons, weapon components, associated equipment, and general or specialized test and handling equipment

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5
Q

Before becoming an apprentice, what AFSC is assigned to Airmen in basic training?

A

9T000.

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6
Q

There are several requirements that an individual must have prior to becoming a munitions systems specialist, but what are some things they should not have?

A

Should not have a record of emotional instability or domestic violence.

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7
Q

When can an apprentice munitions troop perform a task unsupervised?

A

Once trained and qualified, except where prohibited by safety or security requirements.

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8
Q

Whose ultimate responsibility is it to attain/maintain core tasks and job qualifications in a given specialty for an individual?

A

The individual’s.

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9
Q

At what skill level can a munitions specialist expect to perform supervisory positions within the unit?

A

The craftsman, 7-skill level.

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10
Q

What are general duties and responsibilities of a 2W071, craftsman?

A

Supervises assigned personnel/operations, inspect processes/munitions end items, and plan munitions activities. Experience is mandatory in supervising or performing functions of receipting, identifying, inspecting, storing, reconditioning, issuing, delivering, maintaining, testing, assembling guided or unguided munitions, and maintaining documentation for munitions management actions.

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11
Q

What is the minimum grade of a 2W091, superintendent?

A

Senior master sergeant (E-8)

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12
Q

What AFSC and title are assigned to a 2W0 who has reached the top of the career field ladder?

A

The 2W000, CEM.

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13
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the management of the CFETP?

A

AFCFM.

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14
Q

What topics are discussed during a U&T Workshop ?

A

Career field trends, new munitions, new training requirements, and needed changes to the current CFETP.

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15
Q

What is the minimum length of time a trainee must spend in on-the-job training before being upgraded to the 5-skill level?

A

12 months.

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16
Q

Why would a journeyman who has previously completed his/her CDCs continue to use them?

A

To prepare for WAPS testing.

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17
Q

What type of degree can an ammo troop obtain through the CCAF?

A

Associate in Applied Science Degree in Munitions Systems Technology.

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18
Q

What is the most used section of the CFETP?

A

The STS.

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19
Q

What web-based program is used by munitions units for tracking an individual’s training records?

A

The TBA.

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20
Q

How are MAJCOMs located in the US organized differently than MAJCOMs overseas?

A

On a functional basis in the United States; on a geographical basis overseas.

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21
Q

A supported command develops support plans and annexes for contingency operations specifically for whom?

A

Combatant commanders.

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22
Q

During contingency operations, who establishes lower echelon ammunition control points?

A

MAJCOMs.

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23
Q

What ammunition entity supports smaller geographic areas within the theater?

A

RACP.

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24
Q

Which MAJCOM is responsible for munitions sustainment?

A

AFMC.

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25
Q

What is the biggest center that the AFMC operates?

A

GACP.

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26
Q

What is the primary mission of the global ammunition control point, munitions division?

A

To execute product support management and supply management for USAF munitions and related assets.

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27
Q

Which organization/agency operates the TMCP?

A

The GACP, Armament Division located at Robins AFB.

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28
Q

Who appoints personnel authorized to process, ship, and receive AA&E?

A

Squadron commander.

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29
Q

Who must select and appoint munitions inspectors?

A

Munitions supervision.

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30
Q

What is the title of the person who is responsible for the effective management of the munitions stockpile?

A

MASO.

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31
Q

Who must appoint the CAS system administrators?

A

MASO.

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32
Q

Who verifies that all the element master training plans cover peacetime and contingency tasks?

A

Munitions section/flight chief.

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33
Q

Who has overall responsibility to enforce supply discipline in a typical munitions element?

A

Element NCOIC.

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34
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section assembles, disassembles, delivers, inspects, and maintains conventional munitions, missiles, containers, and dispensers?

A

Production section.

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35
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section plans, schedules, controls, and directs munitions activities and in-processes accountable transactions in CAS when relayed from other munitions activities?

A

Systems section.

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36
Q

Munitions control personnel notify security forces of what non-emergency information?

A

Movements or facility content changes that affect security classification or risk category.

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37
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what section stores, handles, inspects, ships, receives, accomplishes local dispositions, coordinates transportation, and accounts for conventional munitions, containers, dispensers, and training items?

A

Materiel section.

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38
Q

In a typical munitions activity, what element performs quality control checks, validates, and files all accountable munitions documents?

A

Munitions operations element.

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39
Q

List the command structure of a typical wing in descending order.

A

Wing, group, squadron, flight, section, and element.

40
Q

Which type of wing is capable of self-support in functional areas like maintenance, supply, and munitions?

A

Operational wing.

41
Q

Which organization is a level just below the wing with approximately 400 to 1,000 people?

A

Group.

42
Q

How is a typical munitions unit broken down?

A

Into three sections—production, systems, and materiel; may also have a total of nine elements.

43
Q

What is the purpose of the logistics system?

A

To create and sustain force generation capabilities whenever and wherever needed to conduct military operations. On the broadest level, logistics is a key aspect of program management to acquire and sustain weapons systems.

44
Q

If a maintenance squadron exceeds 700 authorized positions, who may authorize it to be split up into an equipment maintenance squadron and a component maintenance squadron?

A

MAJCOM.

45
Q

What organizational section/element monitors and assesses the quality of maintenance activities?

A

QA.

46
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining the central TO file?

A

QA personnel.

47
Q

What is an OPLAN?

A

Any plan, except for the single integrated operational plan, for the conduct of military operations.

48
Q

Within which annex listed in the OPLAN would you find nonnuclear munitions requirements?

A

Annex D, Logistics.

49
Q

What does the IGESP translate?

A

The IGESP translates major command operation planning concepts into base-level capabilities to support forces.

50
Q

Why does munitions supervision develop the MEP?

A

Munitions flight supervision develops the MEP to provide detailed guidance for conducting munitions operations when the IGESP is not sufficient or does not exist.

51
Q

What are the five phases of deliberate planning?

A

(1) Initiation.
(2) Concept development.
(3) Plan development.
(4) Plan review.
(5) Supporting plans.

52
Q

When developing a munitions employment plan, what is the most efficient way to identify resources available at a deployed location?

A

By performing a site survey.

53
Q

What is the formula used to compute the daily consumption rate of munitions for an OPLAN?

A

Primary aircraft authorization × sortie rate × standard configuration load × expenditure per sortie factor.

54
Q

What four orders are used to direct preparation, planning, deployment, and execution of plans in response to crises?

A

(1) Warning order.
(2) Planning order.
(3) Alert order.
(4) Execute order.

55
Q

What order initiates the supporting and supported command to develop a course of action?

A

The WARNORD.

56
Q

When is an ALERTORD issued?

A

When the situation requires continued execution planning after the warning or planning order is issued.

57
Q

Who is authorized to issue the EXORD?

A

The secretary of defense.

58
Q

Who within your unit ensures personnel assigned to a deployment meet eligibility and training criteria?

A

UDM.

59
Q

What information can be found on an attached MSL for a palletized load?

A

TCN, SRAN, DoDAAC, dimensions, weight, and point of contact.

60
Q

What type of inspection is the foundation of the AFIS?

A

Internal inspection.

61
Q

Who typically performs external inspections for a unit within a wing?

A

Outside agencies, like MAJCOM IG teams.

62
Q

To whom can the MICT communicate discrepancies?

A

Throughout the chain of command from supervisors to the secretary of the Air Force.

63
Q

From what media or location can MICT be accessed?

A

The AF Portal, or by going straight to the URL web address.

64
Q

What do protection levels do for Air Force resources?

A

Identifies specific items you must secure and the level of security dedicated to those resources.

65
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would cause significant harm to the war-fighting capability of the US?

A

PL2.

66
Q

What protection level is assigned to resources for which the loss, theft, destruction, misuse, or compromise would damage the US war-fighting capability?

A

PL3.

67
Q

Name the two security areas where an ammo troop will likely perform his/her duties.

A

Restricted areas and controlled areas.

68
Q

What is required for an individual to gain access into a restricted area?

A

Specific written permission under the authority of the commander and positive identification for entry control procedures (e.g., security badge/AF Form 1199, entry authority list).

69
Q

What resources are generally stored within a controlled area?

A

PL4 resources (e.g., category I, II, or III sensitive conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives).

70
Q

Give an example of when a national defense area may be used.

A

(1) Unplanned emergency dispersal of aircraft to civilian airports.
(2) Emergency landings of aircraft carrying nuclear weapons.
(3) Temporarily stopped nuclear weapon ground convoys.
(4) Aircraft crashes or other unplanned emergency events.

71
Q

Where do authorized individuals go to gain access to a secure area?

A

Through an ECP.

72
Q

What munitions items are assigned a controlled inventory item code (CIIC), and what is the intended purpose of these codes?

A

All munitions items are assigned a CIIC; to identify the degree of security that must be applied to an item while the item is in storage or in transit.

73
Q

What are the four categories of the CIICs?

A

Classified, sensitive, pilferable, and unclassified.

74
Q

Who has worldwide management responsibility for a specific munitions item and is the only one who can change the CIIC for the applicable item?

A

The item manager.

75
Q

What type of items fall into the sensitive category, and what type of protection and control is required?

A

Includes such items as narcotics/controlled substances, precious metals, high value assets, and hazardous items (e.g., ammunition, explosives, demolition material). This type of material requires a high degree of protection and control due to statutory requirements or regulations.

76
Q

When an item is assigned a pilferable code, what does that indicate about the item?

A

That the item has a ready resale value or civilian utility application and is especially subject to theft.

77
Q

What risk category includes explosive hand or rifle grenades?

A

High risk category II.

78
Q

What are the two conditions required for an OPSEC vulnerability?

A

(1) There is a weakness that could reveal critical information.
(2) There is an adversary with both the intent and the capability to exploit that weakness (i.e., a threat).

79
Q

What are three operations indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

(1) Stereotyped activities such as test preparations and range closures.
(2) Abrupt changes or cancellations of schedules.
(3) Increased telephone calls, conferences, and longer working hours (including weekends).
(4) Rehearsals of operations/exercises.
(5) Unusual or increased trips and conferences by senior officials.

80
Q

What are three communications indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

(1) Use of specialized and unique communications equipment.
(2) Changes to power sources.
(3) Increases and decreases in communications traffic.
(4) Call signs.
(5) Transmitter locations.

81
Q

What are three administrative indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

(5) Schedules.
(6) Orders.
(7) Flight plans.

82
Q

What are three logistics and maintenance support indicators of OPSEC vulnerability?

A

Prepositioned equipment.
Maintenance activity.
Unique sized and shaped boxes, tanks, and other containers.

83
Q

What are the major goals of the AF nuclear surety program?

A

To achieve maximum safety consistent with operational requirements; to maintain our record of zero accidental or unauthorized nuclear yields and to reduce the potential for, and the possible effects of, nuclear mishaps.

84
Q

What provides the necessary direction and procedures for implementing a personnel reliability program?

A

DoDI 5210.42, Nuclear Weapons Personnel Reliability Program (PRP).

85
Q

What are the two PRP positions?

A

Critical and controlled.

86
Q

Who is responsible for the certification of personnel into the PRP?

A

The certifying official (commander).

87
Q

What are at least three mandatory selection requirements a person must meet prior to being placed in a PRP position.

A

The certifying official (commander).
Must not have a history of drug abuse.
Have the required security clearance or investigation.

88
Q

What are the requirements for individuals who make up a two-person concept team?

A

Individuals are certified under PRP, know the nuclear surety requirements of the task they perform, can promptly detect an incorrect act or unauthorized procedure, have successfully completed nuclear surety training, and are designated to perform the required task.

89
Q

What are the team member’s responsibilities in the two-person concept?

A

To enforce the two-person concept until relieved by authorized personnel or until the nuclear weapon or critical component is secured, take immediate, positive steps to prevent or stop incorrect procedures or unauthorized acts, and report deviations immediately to the appropriate supervisor.

90
Q

When are you authorized to deviate from the two-person concept?

A

(1) When the nuclear weapon system safety rules specifically authorize a deviation.
(2) During an emergency that presents an immediate threat to the safety of personnel.

91
Q

What are three personnel restrictions to watch for while performing two-person duties?

A

(1) Two interim-certified individuals may not form a two-person concept team.
(2) A person who does not qualify as a member of a two-person concept team may enter a no-lone zone to perform a task only if escorted by a two-person concept team.
(3) Entry controllers may not form a two-person concept team with people inside the no-lone zone.

92
Q

What is a no-lone zone?

A

An area where no lone individual is authorized and where the two-person concept must be enforced because it contains nuclear weapons, nuclear weapon systems, or critical components.

93
Q

What reporting flag word is used to identify nuclear weapon safety deficiencies that do not fall into the accident or incident categories?

A

Dull Sword.

94
Q

What events or conditions involving nuclear weapons should be reported as a Dull Sword?

A

(1) Minor damage to a nuclear component resulting from errors committed during assembly, testing, loading, or transporting while in Air Force custody.
(2) Malfunction, failure, or anomaly that results in damage to nuclear weapons systems due to sources of electrical energy (lightning, over voltage, power fluctuations).
(3) Exposure of nuclear weapons or nuclear components to any abnormal environment (earthquakes, floods, tornados, etc.) that would question item’s serviceability.
(4) Damage, malfunction, failure, or irregularity to items listed in the Master Nuclear Certification List.

95
Q

Which items are most often reported as a Dull Sword from the AMMO community?

A

Nuclear certified support equipment such as: vehicles, trailers, and forklifts.

CDC SET A (10 decks)

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