Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CDC SET A > B1 SA > Flashcards

B1 SA Flashcards

1
Q

What safety precaution must you take before installing or changing a drill bit of an electric drill?

A

Remove or disconnect the drill from the power source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What do you do before drilling in metal or other hard surfaces?

A

Use a center punch to mark the exact center of the hole to be drilled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What minimum personal protective equipment shall be used for all jobs using a bench grinder?

A

Eye and face protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How fast should an electric saw blade be spinning before it contacts the material to be cut?

A

At full speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List four safety precautions when dealing with pneumatic tools?

A

(1) Inspect the air hose for cracks or other defects. If you identify defects, make repairs, or replace the hose before using.
(2) Before connecting the air hose to the air outlet fitting, open the control valve momentarily. Then connect the hose to the fitting and open the valve again momentarily—this ensures the hose is clear of water and other foreign material.
(3) Stop the flow of air to a pneumatic tool by closing the control valve at the compressed air outlet before connecting, disconnecting, adjusting, replacing, or repairing a pneumatic tool.
(4) When using sockets, make sure they are designed specifically for pneumatic tools (impact sockets). Non-pneumatic accessories cannot withstand the stresses of pneumatic equipment and can result in damaged equipment and injury to personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many psi are used for safe efficient operation of a pneumatic tool?

A

90 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What ensures the socket or attachment does not fly off an impact wrench?

A

Spring-loaded ball bearing or socket lock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the torque regulator do for a pneumatic impact wrench?

A

Reduces the possibility of shearing or damaging threads when installing nuts and bolts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Familiarity of what two things are prerequisites for safe operation of lifting devices?

A

The manual and equipment to be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What will be worn if there is a potential for injury from falling objects or moving equipment?

A

Protective helmets and safety-toed boots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are four items that can be used in conjunction with wire-rope slings when lifting munitions?

A

(1) Forklift.
(2) Jammer (bomb lift truck).
(3) Over-head hoist.
(4) Crane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where can general guidance be found for safe operating procedures using lifting devices?

A

AFI 91-203 and/or the specific manual for the lifting device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What information do the multimeter’s annunciators display?

A

The polarity, the condition of the meter’s battery, whether you are in manual or auto-range, and negative annunciator for the bar graph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two modes of operation for a Fluke 8025-series multimeter?

A

RANGE and HOLD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What mode of the Fluke 8025-series multimeter is most useful when taking measurements in a circuit where it may be necessary to keep your eyes on the test leads after they are positioned?

A

HOLD mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

State the maximum load capacity of the MHU–141 trailer.

A

5,500 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which TO contains information on the MHU–141 trailer?

A

TO 35D3–2–27–1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the turning radius of the MHU–141 trailer?

A

200 inches or 40 degrees in either direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain the purpose of the breakaway cable on the MHU–141 trailer.

A

It’s an added safety feature to stop the trailer in the event of an accidental breakaway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

State the maximum load capacity of the MHU–110 trailer.

A

15,000 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which TO contains information on the MHU–110 trailer?

A

TO 35D3–2–26–1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What allows you to stow the towbar of an MHU–110 trailer in a vertical position?

A

A spring-loaded latch device on the front axle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary brake system for the MHU–110 trailer?

A

Hydraulic/surge brake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU–226 trailer?

A

12,000 lbs for conventional loads and 8,000 lbs for nuclear loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many openings are on the deck of the MHU–226 trailer?

A

Three.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How many storage boxes are on the MHU–226 trailer?

A

Five.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the MHU–226 equipped with that aids in having a tighter steering radius?

A

Four-wheel steering (double Ackerman).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name the three types of trailers you may encounter.

A

(1) Vans (closed).
(2) Flatbed (open).
(3) Rollerized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the actual length of a 40 foot trailer when you include the gooseneck?

A

51 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The rollerized trailer is designed for what specific purpose?

A

To handle cargo loaded on 463L aluminum aircraft pallets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Who has the responsibility to detect deficiencies on trailers?

A

The using vehicle operator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a transport module and how is it used for the 2W0X1 career field?

A

Essentially, a large container, designed to secure atop the MHU–141, MHU–226 or MHU–110 munitions trailer for the transport of small built-up munitions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the maximum transport capacity of the BDU–33/MK 106 transport module?

A

40 or 80 rounds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When loading or unloading any module, what common safety practice is an absolute necessity?

A

Positive, two-hand control of munition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What should you do to ensure transport module doors remain closed to prevent munitions from falling out?

A

Ensure the safety pins and/or latches are engaged after loading, unloading, and periodically check these devices between stops.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What types of items will personnel usually load and unload onto fighter or bomber aircraft using lift trucks?

A

Munitions and suspension equipment (e.g., pylons, heavy stores, beams, multiple ejector racks).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which wheels on the lift truck are steerable?

A

The two rear wheels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the standard lifting capacity of the MJ–1 lift truck?

A

3,000 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Explain the major difference between the hydrostatic drive system and the automatic transmission.

A

The automatic transmission can roll in gear, whereas the hydrostatic drive system will not move unless the operator actuates the necessary controls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What allows you to operate the hydraulic system of a MHU–83 if the engine or hydraulic pump fails?

A

Using the hand pump.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What particular fine adjustment would cause whatever is loaded to slope or lean using the boom position controls of an MHU–83?

A

Tilt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the maximum capacity of an MHU–83 lift truck using the fork adapter assembly?

A

6,000 lbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When loading or unloading with a bomb-lift truck, the directional control lever should be in what position and why?

A

Neutral with the parking brake set; to ensure the lift truck does not inadvertently move.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

List three normal uses of the MC–7 air compressor.

A

(1) To power pneumatic tools.
(2) To provide compressed air used in cleaning and drying equipment components.
(3) To provide compressed air to run vacu-blast operations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why should the diesel-powered MC–7 only be operated with the cover doors closed?

A

Operation with the doors open can cause damage to the hearing of operating personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Compressed air has caused injuries at what minimum amount of air pressure?

A

10 to 15 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What publication governs the use of protective equipment for an air compressor operator?

A

AFI 91–203.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

For what purpose does a munitions systems specialist use a bobtail vehicle for?

A

Used primary as a tow vehicle for moving munitions trailers to and from the flight line.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Explain the unique feature of the pintle hook.

A

It can be unpinned and moved in, out, or sideways to make coupling up a trailer easier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the turning radius of a bobtail tow vehicle?

A

18-22 feet depending on model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the maximum towing capacity of the bobtail?

A

40,000-70,000 lbs. depending on the model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Explain the term “operator maintenance.”

A

The systematic care of a vehicle, including daily cleaning, servicing, and inspecting for maintenance discrepancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

For what type of driving are the high-range gears of a cargo truck used?

A

Normal driving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the primary purpose of the MB–4 tug?

A

To tow or push aircraft weighing up to 140,000 lbs. gross weight.

55
Q

Moving the differential shift lever into the locked position does what for the MB–4 tug?

A

Engages the all-wheel-drive feature.

56
Q

What are the two main components of the pintle assembly?

A

A lunette ring and a pintle hook.

57
Q

What are pintle towing assemblies secured with to prevent the pintle hook from opening?

A

A safety locking pin.

58
Q

When correctly operating a commercial tractor with a manual transmission, at what time(s) would you utilize the clutch?

A

Should only be used for starting and stopping.

59
Q

What are the two purposes of the emergency airline?

A

It supplies air to the trailer air tanks and controls the emergency brakes on your trailer.

60
Q

Name three safety rules to follow when backing up a tractor/trailer combination.

A

(1) Start in the proper position.
(2) Use mirrors on both sides.
(3) Backup slowly and use a spotter.

61
Q

Describe what the term “off-tracking” means in regards to tractor/trailer operations.

A

Off-tracking is the path trailer or rear wheels follow as they go around a corner. The rear wheels follow a different path than the front wheels.

62
Q

Where are smaller nontactical forklifts most effective?

A

On hard surfaces in and around storage warehouses.

63
Q

What are the two types of tactical forklifts?

A

Rough terrain and adverse terrain.

64
Q

Explain the shutdown procedures of a rough-terrain forklift.

A

To stop the engine, release the load and, at the same time, decrease the engine speed. Allow the engine to run at half speed or slower with no load for four or five minutes before closing the throttle and stopping the engine. When the engine stops, place the ignition switch in the OFF position.

65
Q

Name the two special-purpose forklifts.

A

Variable-reach forklift and swingmast forklift.

66
Q

What is the weight capacity of the forklift referred to as the superstacker or sideloader?

A

50,000 lbs.

67
Q

What are the forklift tine height requirements while traveling with a load?

A

Raised only as far as necessary to clear the road surface.

68
Q

Why should you drive backwards with bulky loads?

A

Better vision.

69
Q

How far from combustible material must a forklift be parked?

A

10 feet.

70
Q

Which aircraft will the LALS service?

A

F–15, F––16, and F–22 aircraft.

71
Q

The LALS is divided into what four modes?

A

(1) Replenishment mode.
(2) Aircraft servicing mode.
(3) Transport mode.
(4) Stowage mode.

72
Q

What are the five weapons replaceable assemblies on the LALS?

A

(1) Storage container assembly.
(2) Transfer unit assembly.
(3) Conveyor assembly.
(4) Trailer chassis assembly.
(5) Pneumatic system assembly.

73
Q

What weapons replaceable assembly is mounted on the top of the storage container assembly and merges the ammunition into a single stream to be handed off to the conveyor assembly?

A

The transfer unit assembly.

74
Q

What is the UALS used for?

A

To transfer 20 mm M-50-series ammunition into an aircraft gun system.

75
Q

What maximum speed should you drive a Bobtail truck when towing an UALS?

A

15 mph.

76
Q

What is the purpose of the scoop disk of the inner drum?

A

Transfers rounds and cases from the entrance cover assembly to the outer drum partitions and from the outer drum partitions to the exit cover assemblies.

77
Q

What is an important safety precaution to remember about the interface unit?

A

The interface unit has an exposed three-gear cluster that turns when mated to the aircraft access/transfer unit or the replenisher assembly.

78
Q

How is the cranking initiated on the UALS?

A

Either a half-inch speed wrench or a pneumatic drive assembly inserted into the drive receptacle.

79
Q

How is the 20 mm ammunition loading system replenisher operated?

A

Manually or pneumatically.

80
Q

Which TO gives a full description of the replenisher?

A

TO 35D30–4–11–1.

81
Q

Which subassembly of the replenisher supports and transports spent cases and unfired rounds from the loader to the separate downloading gates?

A

Conveyor element.

82
Q

Explain the function of the delinker loader.

A

Strips M14 or M22 links from the ammunition, and then feeds the rounds into the replenisher conveyor. The delinker unit automatically downloads any unfired rounds returning from the ammunition loader, unless manually released to recycle them.

83
Q

Name the two 30 mm ammunition loading systems currently being used in the Air Force.

A

GFU–7/E and the GFU–10/E.

84
Q

Which container is used to house the 30 mm ammunition in link tube carriers?

A

CNU–309/E.

85
Q

What does the container interface tool provide?

A

Properly guides and layers the LTC in the containers.

86
Q

The GFU–10/E universal ammunition loading system can load and unload 30 mm on any aircraft that is capable of carrying what gun pod?

A

GPU–5A.

87
Q

Which TO contain specific information on the two munitions assembly conveyors in use by the 2W0 career field?

A

TO 35D2–17–1 and TO 35D2–17–11.

88
Q

Which munitions trailers are generally used to efficiently transport a packaged MAC?

A

The MHU–110 or the MHU–226.

89
Q

What is used to route electrical and pneumatic power to the MAC?

A

ICB.

90
Q

What piece of powered equipment can supply pneumatic power to the MAC?

A

MC–7 air compressor.

91
Q

What is used to level the gantries once the MAC is assembled?

A

An adjustment bar.

92
Q

Explain the purpose of the restraint strap used on the MAC.

A

The strap is used at a workstation to prevent the bomb body from turning while torque is applied.

93
Q

How many munitions items can be raised, moved, and lowered onto dollies from the on-load gantry/hoist?

A

Up to three at a time.

94
Q

Explain what happens to the dollies once they become empty.

A

They are placed on the return rail for reuse.

95
Q

What is the minimum space requirement (in feet) for the A/E32K–9, MAC II?

A

50 x 150 feet.

96
Q

What should be the first thing you disconnect during disassembly of the MAC?

A

The interface control board.

97
Q

What methods are used to positively identify nuclear certified equipment?

A

Make positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents for the item and verify the item is located in MNCL.

98
Q

Explain two ways to locate a piece of equipment in the MNCL.

A

Locate the national stock number or the item nomenclature on the nameplate. Use either the MNCL to locate the trailer by the NIIN (last nine digits of the NSN), or by using the item nomenclature on the nameplate and using the MNCL to alphabetically locate the item.

99
Q

What test equipment requires nuclear certification?

A

Equipment used to test and verify the proper functioning of critical circuits, assemblies, and devices associated with nuclear bombs and warheads in all nuclear systems. Also, special test or certification equipment used to operationally certify a critical component.

100
Q

List five examples of general-purpose hand tools that do not require certification.

A

(1) Manually operated hydraulic pallet jacks.
(2) Pliers.
(3) Wrenches.
(4) Vacuum cleaners.
(5) Screwdrivers.
(6) Magnifiers.
(7) Pry bars.

101
Q

Explain what damage to the MB–1 tie-down/chain assembly warrants replacing the assembly.

A

Replace the tie-down device if it has any cracks or bent/worn parts. Replace the chain if you find any deformed, cracked, or damaged links.

102
Q

What preparation is required for MB–1 tie-down device installation?

A

To prepare the tie-down device for installation, fully extend the hook and open the chain recess.

103
Q

Why is it important to evenly tighten the chain assemblies around the container and not completely tightening one at a time?

A

The tension on one chain may be great enough to dislocate the container before the remaining assemblies are tightened.

104
Q

If you are unable to remove the tension on the MB–1 chain assembly by using the locking lever and reverse spinning the take-up wheel, what should you do?

A

Safely pull the chain inward toward the MB–1 tie-down device to release some tension, and pull out the MB–1 quick-release lever.

105
Q

Why are you not allowed to use an extension (cheater) to close the load-binder handle?

A

Using a cheater bar can place too much pressure on the container and trailer tie-down points.

106
Q

Which technical order instructs you to use two CGU–1/B straps for one MB–1 tie-down assembly?

A

TO 11N–45–51C.

107
Q

How does the DOD normally transport nuclear weapons?

A

By truck or air.

108
Q

What types of aircraft are normally used for DOD nuclear weapons shipments?

A

C–17 or C–130 aircraft.

109
Q

List three things to consider when planning a nuclear weapons movement.

A

(1) Current intelligence estimates of general and local threats associated with the point of origin, routes, enroute stops, and destination.
(2) The type of weapons and method of shipment.
(3) The availability of security forces and resources.

110
Q

Who is notified in the event of an accident or delay involving a shipment of nuclear weapons?

A

The shipping and receiving commanders.

111
Q

How often are DOE couriers certified?

A

At least annually.

112
Q

Why would a DOE convoy seek sanctuary (Safe Haven) at a military base?

A

As a result of a hostile or emergency situation.

113
Q

What type of operational movement happens inside the WSA?

A

An intra-area movement.

114
Q

List two examples of outside WSA weapon movements.

A

(1) Hot cargo pad for a special-assignment airlift mission.

(2) Flight line for alert aircraft uploads.

115
Q

What must a military member possess to be a vehicle operator in a convoy?

A

Vehicle operators must be fully qualified in the operation of the particular vehicle, have in their possession a valid operator’s license, and be certified to transport weapons.

116
Q

What communication check is used in the event of duress during a convoy?

A

A secure duress code word or signal.

117
Q

What regulation lists criteria for transporting explosives specifically for Air Force installations?

A

AFMAN 91–201.

118
Q

How are munitions and explosives affected by quantity distance criteria while in the transportation mode?

A

Quantity distance criteria does not apply to munitions and explosives in the transportation mode.

119
Q

When is it acceptable to push or pull munitions containers?

A

Containers designed with skids may be pushed or pulled for positioning.

120
Q

When, if ever, is it acceptable to roll un-palletized conventional high explosive bombs or other explosives?

A

Do not roll un-palletized conventional high-explosive bombs or other explosives unless authorized by the item TO. If authorized by the item TO, the lugs or other projections must be removed. Munitions protected by dunnage rails may be rolled.

121
Q

When possible, how should you position an explosive laden vehicle at a loading/unloading operation site?

A

Position munitions cargo vehicles to permit loading and unloading from either side of the cargo bed.

122
Q

When, if ever, is it acceptable to leave explosives laden vehicles unattended?

A

Except as required in the event of an electrical storm, do not leave explosives laden vehicles unattended unless they are parked in a properly designated area, such as the weapons storage area, holding yard, or flight line munitions holding area.

123
Q

What is the purpose of DOT placards?

A

To provide a general warning to all personnel of hazardous cargo and furnish specific guidance for emergency response forces in case the vehicle is involved in an accident, fire, spill, or other serious incident.

124
Q

What website provides information on which hazard class/division placard to use?

A

The JHCS is the source of information to check to make sure you have the proper hazard class and division. Once you know the hazard class and division, you can then check Title 49 CFR to determine the correct placard to use.

125
Q

When would you placard materiel handling equipment such as forklifts?

A

Placard materials handling equipment only when used in the same manner as a transport vehicle or trailer.

126
Q

When may compatibility group letters be omitted from a placard?

A

When used on base only.

127
Q

What information does TO 11–1–38 provide?

A

TO 11–1–38 provides information on the correct positioning of munitions, provides tie-down procedures, and lists the equipment you need for each trailer and its various configurations.

128
Q

If there is a conflict between the illustrations in TO 11–1–38 and the written directions, which takes precedence?

A

Written procedures.

129
Q

What requirements must be met to tandem tow trailers?

A

(1) Always connect the trailer with the greatest GVW to tow vehicle.
(2) The lowest minimum turning radius (of the two trailers) must be maintained.
(3) Rear trailer will be off-loaded first.
(4) Maximum towing speed of loaded trailers shall be 10 mph and 15 mph for unloaded trailers.
(5) Specific item technical order requirement for tandem towing shall apply.

130
Q

What information is required to be reviewed prior to proceeding to the load matrix cards?

A

All information in the general notes starting on the first card of each trailer and weapon-type section.

131
Q

Explain the characteristics of the CGU–1/B tie-down assembly.

A

The CGU–1/B web-strap tie-down assembly is made of nylon webbing and has a rated load of 5,000 lbs.

132
Q

Which chapter of TO 11–1–38 covers loading of various munitions on a MHU–141 trailer?

A

1

133
Q

Which chapter of TO 11–1–38 includes all load matrix cards for a MHU–110 trailer?

A

2

134
Q

What chapter of TO 11–1–38 provides configuration procedures for the MHU–226 trailer?

A

3

CDC SET A (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions