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CDC SET A > B2 SA > Flashcards

B2 SA Flashcards

1
Q

What explosive do we use as the comparison for measuring explosive power?

A

TNT.

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2
Q

What general requirements must material used to manufacture military explosives meet?

A

Must be cheap, plentiful, and not vital to any other phase of the war effort.

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3
Q

What is the brisance of a military explosive?

A

The shattering or fragmentation effect.

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4
Q

What term describes the tendency of a substance to produce vapors?

A

Volatility.

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5
Q

When a military explosive does not react with the metal that encases it or with another explosive, it is said to have what characteristic?

A

A natural compatibility.

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6
Q

What is meant by explosive toxicity?

A

An explosive’s poisonous characteristics.

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7
Q

What is hygroscopicity?

A

The moisture-absorbing property of an explosive.

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8
Q

What is the autocombustion rate of low explosives?

A

A few inches per minute to 1,300 feet per second.

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9
Q

What term do we use to describe the tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion?

A

Deflagration.

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10
Q

What condition is essential for an explosive to detonate rather than to merely deflagrate?

A

It must be confined.

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11
Q

What are the basic components of an explosive train?

A

Detonator, booster, and bursting charge.

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12
Q

What is the relatively small and sensitive initial component that begins the functioning of the explosive train?

A

Primer.

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13
Q

What are the two means by which we can activate a detonator?

A

The action of a primer or by a non-explosive impulse.

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14
Q

What is the purpose of a delay in an explosive train?

A

A delay controls the timed delay in the functioning of the train.

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15
Q

What does an explosive booster do?

A

Amplifies the detonation received from the detonator to detonate the main charge.

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16
Q

Which effect of a general-purpose bomb does the most damage: blast or fragmentation?

A

Blast.

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17
Q

What effect causes greater penetration of the explosive charge?

A

Munroe effect.

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18
Q

What happens when you increase the standoff distance of an explosive?

A

Its penetrating capability is increased.

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19
Q

What are the four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics?

A

(1) Candlepower.
(2) Color.
(3) Weather.
(4) Light.

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20
Q

What type of weather reduces the visibility range of pyrotechnics?

A

Moist weather, rain.

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21
Q

How do we classify pyrotechnics?

A

According to their purpose as illuminants, signals, combinations of signal and illuminants, and simulators.

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22
Q

What are the two effects of signals?

A

Light and smoke.

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23
Q

How can you identify pyrotechnic ammunition?

A

By its nomenclature, lot number, model designation, painting, marking, national stock number, and Department of Defense identification code.

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24
Q

What is the total burn-time for the AN–MK6 Mod 3 signal?

A

Approximately 40 minutes.

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25
Q

What is the candlepower rating of the AN–MK13 flare?

A

3,000 candlepower.

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26
Q

Which day/night signal is designed to be used with only one hand?

A

The MK124 Mod 0.

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27
Q

What is the A/P 25S–5A distress kit designed to do that the A/P 25S–1 is not?

A

Penetrate a heavy foliage canopy.

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28
Q

What is the candlepower of the M127A1 ground illumination signal?

A

50,000.

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29
Q

What are the five main assemblies of the M131 ground illumination signal?

A

(1) Launcher.
(2) Igniter.
(3) Delay.
(4) Parachute.
(5) Illumination composition.

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30
Q

What is the M131 signal designed to do?

A

To produce a distinctive red light above the ground fog, haze, or overcast.

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31
Q

What safety equipment is required for handling the MK50 Mod 0 flare?

A

Protective mask and butyl rubber gloves.

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32
Q

Which military weapons do we classify as “small arms”?

A

Those with a bore diameter (inside diameter of the barrel) of 0.50 inch or less.

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33
Q

What terms do we use to describe the measurement of small arms?

A

Gauge and caliber.

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34
Q

Which cartridge is the exception to shotgun gauging?

A

The .410 shotgun cartridge.

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35
Q

What color is the tip of an AP bullet painted?

A

Black.

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36
Q

Ball ammunition is used against what type of targets?

A

Personnel or light materiel targets.

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37
Q

What is the purpose of tracer rounds?

A

To illuminate the path of the bullets so the gunner can correct his/her aim.

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38
Q

What is noncombat ammunition used for?

A

Training and weapons testing.

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39
Q

Which type of round do we use for weapons load training?

A

Dummy.

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40
Q

What is a small-arms cartridge?

A

A complete assembly of all components necessary to fire the weapon once.

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41
Q

What causes a bullet to spin?

A

The rifling in the gun barrel.

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42
Q

What determines the core/filler of a bullet?

A

The ammunition’s purpose.

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43
Q

What is the term for the recess groove part of the bullet into which the cartridge case is crimped during assembly?

A

Cannelure.

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44
Q

What are the classifications of Air Force grenades?

A

Service, practice, and training.

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45
Q

What can functional hand grenades be used for?

A

Inflict casualties or damage and for screening and signaling.

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46
Q

What are the tactical classifications of service grenades?

A

Fragmentation, irritant, riot control, screening smoke, signaling smoke, and incendiary.

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47
Q

What is the explosive filler for M26-series grenades?

A

0.39 pound of composition B.

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48
Q

Why is the base of the M34 grenade tapered?

A

So that the grenade can be mounted on an M1A2 grenade projection adapter.

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49
Q

What are the uses of the M25-series grenades?

A

Riot and disturbance control.

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50
Q

Which type of grenades are used with the M1A2 grenade projection adapter?

A

Fragmentation grenades.

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51
Q

Which type of grenades are used with the M2A1 grenade projection adapter?

A

Chemical grenades.

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52
Q

Why must M34 grenades be stored fuze end up?

A

To avoid possible leakage of the filler.

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53
Q

What are some of the things that you look for in inspecting grenades?

A

Damaged, rusted, or poorly marked inner or outer containers. Unauthorized fuzes and for deformed or missing safety pins. Look for leaking or exuding fillers; cracks, damage, or corroded grenade body or fuze; loose fuze; lot number of fuze or grenade unknown; missing markings.

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54
Q

What is the killing agent of the M18A1 antipersonnel mine?

A

700 steel balls.

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55
Q

What is the effective kill range of the M18A1 mine?

A

100 meters.

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56
Q

What safety precaution must you observe with the detonation of a claymore mine?

A

Personnel up to 100 meters to the sides and rear of these mines should take cover for protection.

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57
Q

What is the special feature that makes the M14 nondetectable by magnetic mine detectors?

A

The M14 is constructed of practically all plastic components.

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58
Q

What are the two limitations of 60 mm light mortars?

A

They have a short range and a small-explosive charge.

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59
Q

What type of mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?

A

Medium mortar (the 81-mm).

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60
Q

What is required to move heavy mortars?

A

Trucks or tracked mortar carriers.

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61
Q

What initiation source do we primarily use to detonate high explosives?

A

Blasting caps.

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62
Q

What are the two ways in which blasting caps can be fired?

A

Electrically or nonelectrically.

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63
Q

What is the purpose of the yellow painted bands covering military safety fuses?

A

To estimate the length for tactical situations, the single bands are designated for 1-minute lengths and the double bands are designated for 5-minute lengths.

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64
Q

What is the rate of detonation for detonating cord?

A

Between 20,000 and 21,000 feet per second.

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65
Q

What is the purpose of the M60 igniter?

A

It is used to light a safety/time fuse.

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66
Q

For what do we use a flash vented squib?

A

It is used to ignite pyrotechnic or incendiary compositions or black powder.

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67
Q

What is the purpose of the initiator well on the trinitrotoluene (TNT) demo block?

A

Receiving the initiating explosive/charge.

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68
Q

What is the advantage of military dynamite over commercial dynamite?

A

Military dynamite is safer to store, transport and handle.

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69
Q

What is the purpose of the M1A4 priming adapter?

A

It is used to secure electric or nonelectric blasting caps in a threaded activator well of a demolition charge.

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70
Q

What is the M1 clip used to hold together?

A

Two strands of detonating cord.

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71
Q

What do we use a galvanometer for?

A

To check electrical circuits and their components.

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72
Q

How do we classify bomb fuzes?

A

By their position, action, and method of arming.

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73
Q

Name the three main types of fuze action.

A

(1) Impact.
(2) Time.
(3) Proximity.

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74
Q

What determines the detonation of a proximity fuze?

A

The bomb reaching the preset height of function above the target.

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75
Q

What are the two main types of fuze arming?

A

(1) Mechanically timed.

(2) Electronically timed.

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76
Q

What are the most common safety devices found in bomb fuzes?

A

Seal wires, cotter pins, safety blocks, and the detonator safe feature.

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77
Q

What fuze safety device is installed at the time of manufacture?

A

Safety block.

78
Q

When is the sealing wire from an M904 nose fuze removed?

A

Prior to takeoff.

79
Q

What is the purpose of the empty delay cavity on the M904 and M905 fuze?

A

It acts as an interrupter to the explosive train of the fuze during handling

80
Q

Which adapter booster do we use with the M904 fuze?

A

T45 adapter booster.

81
Q

What provides the rotational force required to arm the M905 fuze?

A

ATU–35-series drive assembly.

82
Q

What happens to the FMU–54/B fuze if the fin malfunctions?

A

The fuze will not arm.

83
Q

What provides ground handling safety for the FMU–54?

A

The safing pin.

84
Q

Name at least three different electrical fuzes.

A

(1) FMU–81.
(2) FMU–124.
(3) FMU–139.
(4) FMU–143.
(5) FMU–152.

85
Q

How many FZU–2/B boosters are required when an FMU–81/B fuze is installed in the tail of a bomb?

A

1

86
Q

Which fuze has only one safety device that is installed through the safety release shaft and safety device assembly?

A

FMU–124.

87
Q

Which two fuzes are used by both the Navy and the Air Force?

A

FMU–139 and FMU–152.

88
Q

What provides electrical power in the FMU–139A/B fuze?

A

FZU–48 initiator

89
Q

What provides electrical power in the FMU–143 series fuze?

A

FZU–32 initiator.

90
Q

What capability does the FMU–152 series fuze provide?

A

Hardened target capability that provides safing, in-flight cockpit selection, and arming fuzing functions for general purpose and penetrating, unitary warheads.

91
Q

What can be determined if the gag rod indicator is showing red and protruding from the safety pin housing of an FMU–152 series fuze?

A

That the fuze is armed.

92
Q

What type of sensor is the DSU–33?

A

Doppler ranging radar proximity sensor.

93
Q

Which tail fuzes are used with the DSU–33?

A

FMU–139 and FMU–152.

94
Q

Which dispenser(s) uses the FZU–39/B proximity sensor?

A

The SUU–64/B, SUU–65/B and SUU–66B.

95
Q

What are the function height settings for the FZU–39/B?

A

Ranges from 300 to 3,000 feet.

96
Q

Which booster does the FMU–113/B fuze use?

A

The FZU–2/B booster.

97
Q

What indicates the FMU–113/B fuze is armed?

A

Any position of the armed indicator that is red.

98
Q

What are the combined effects of the MK80 series bombs?

A

Blast, penetration, and fragmentation.

99
Q

Which MK80 series bomb weighs approximately 500 pounds?

A

MK 82 series.

100
Q

How can an MK82 series bomb produce a mining or penetrating effect?

A

By using delayed action fuze.

101
Q

Which BLU series bomb uses the MK83 Mod 4 bomb body?

A

The BLU–110.

102
Q

What is the NEW of the MK84 bomb?

A

945 pounds.

103
Q

What are penetrator bombs designed to do?

A

Designed to be used on hardened targets. Examples are HAS, reinforced concrete buildings, underground command and control facilities, and runways.

104
Q

What are the four penetrator bombs the Air Force uses?

A

(1) BLU–109 series.
(2) BLU–113 series.
(3) BLU–118 series.
(4) BLU–122 series.

105
Q

What is the BLU–109/B penetrator bomb capable of doing?

A

It can penetrate 4 to 6 feet of reinforced concrete.

106
Q

What penetrator is a 4,000-pound class penetrator bomb?

A

BLU–113.

107
Q

Which penetrator is used as the warhead for the GBU–28 A/B and GBU–28 B/B?

A

BLU–113.

108
Q

What penetrator bomb is designed to be more lethal in confined spaces?

A

BLU–118.

109
Q

What is the payload of the M129 series bomb?

A

110 paper rolls.

110
Q

What bomb was developed to drop leaflets from high-performance aircraft?

A

PDU–5/B.

111
Q

The BLU–126/B LCDB designed to be used in what type of situations?

A

Situations where friendly forces and/or civilians are close to the target.

112
Q

What is the NEW of the BLU–126/B LCDB?

A

27 pounds.

113
Q

Why are practice bombs used instead of regular live bombs during training?

A

To provide low-cost target practice for the flight crews of fighter and bomber aircraft.

114
Q

When would you use the CXU–3A/B spotting charge?

A

When the danger of starting brush or forest fires is high.

115
Q

What practice bomb simulates the MK82 high–drag bomb?

A

The BDU–48/B.

116
Q

The MK106 practice bomb simulates what live bomb?

A

MK82 bomb in a high drag configuration.

117
Q

Which CBU–87 series bomb comes equipped with a dummy proximity sensor?

A

The CBU–87/B.

118
Q

Explain how a CBU–87 functions once deployed.

A

When the mechanical timer expires or the height of function setting for the proximity sensor is reached, an explosive bolt functions allowing the fins to cant and spin the dispenser. When the dispenser reaches a preset rpm, the linear-shaped cutting charge functions and splits the dispenser into three sections from front to rear.

119
Q

What bomblets are used in the CBU–87?

A

BLU–97/B or BLU–97A/B anti-materiel/anti-tank bomblets

120
Q

What is the only difference between the BLU–97/B and BLU–97A/B bomblets?

A

The only difference between 97/B and 97A/B bomblets is that in the A/B model the fuze assembly uses an all mechanical secondary firing system.

121
Q

How does the CBU–89/B differ from the CBU–87/B?

A

They are physically the same except the CBU–89/B does not have canted fins, an explosive bolt, and it uses the SUU–64 dispenser.

122
Q

How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in the CBU–89?

A

72 each BLU–91/B bomblets and 22 each BLU–92/B mines.

123
Q

The BLU–91/B bomblets are designed for what specific type of target?

A

Combat tanks.

124
Q

Besides setting off a tripline, what else would cause a BLU–92/B mine to detonate?

A

Mine disturbance, low battery voltage, or the expiration of the self-destruct timer

125
Q

How many and what type of bomblets are loaded in a CBU–105?

A

10 each BLU–108/B submunitions.

126
Q

The CBU–105 series is designed for what type of target?

A

Tanks and armored support vehicles.

127
Q

How does a BLU–108 submunition device destroy a detected target?

A

Fires an explosive forged penetrating projectile at the target.

128
Q

Which CBU series is considered to be wind-corrected munitions?

A

CBU–103, CBU–104, and CBU–105.

129
Q

How does the WCMD function?

A

The WCMD tail kit provides guidance and navigation during free flight. Correction for wind effects, ballistics dispersion and launch transients for munitions delivered from high altitude are communicated with the carrier aircraft prior to weapon separation. The control actuation assembly cants the fins to spin the dispenser during flight.

130
Q

How are 20 mm cartridges classified?

A

According to their purpose.

131
Q

How is an API round initiated?

A

On impact.

132
Q

What is the semi-armor piercing, high-explosive and incendiary PGU-28 series round used for?

A

Aircraft and light materiel targets.

133
Q

What are the combat effects of a HEI round?

A

It is a combined explosive and incendiary effect.

134
Q

Name two uses for 20 mm dummy ammo.

A

(1) Testing feeder assemblies.

(2) Drill/familiarization

135
Q

The 20 mm cartridge case is usually made of what material?

A

Brass.

136
Q

What is the purpose of the bourrelet?

A

It acts as a forward-bearing surface to prevent the projectile from wobbling as it passes through the bore.

137
Q

What do the other chemicals in double-base propellant do?

A

They minimize smoke and flash, increase stability, and permit uniform loading during manufacture.

138
Q

Which 20 mm round requires a fuze to detonate the projectile?

A

The HEI round.

139
Q

What is the safety feature of the M505 fuze?

A

The fuze is bore safe.

140
Q

How can we identify 20 mm ammunition?

A

By model number, lot number, and manufacturer’s symbol, all of which are marked or stamped on the side of the projectile.

141
Q

What container are 20 mm rounds stored in?

A

The M548 container (linkless or linked belt).

142
Q

What Air Force aircraft fires the 25 mm round?

A

The AC-130 gunship.

143
Q

What is 25 mm PGU–23/U ammunition used for?

A

Target practice for pilot proficiency training.

144
Q

What does the PGU–25/U high-explosive incendiary round consist of?

A

A steel cartridge case, an M115 percussion primer, an ignition booster, a projectile, and an M505 fuze.

145
Q

What is 25 mm cartridge case made of?

A

Steel.

146
Q

A functioning M115 percussion primer is used with which 25 mm round(s)?

A

All 25 mm rounds except for dummy rounds.

147
Q

What fuze is used in the 25 mm HEI round?

A

M505

148
Q

What markings can you find on the cartridge case of 25 mm ammo?

A

Model number, type, and lot number.

149
Q

What are 25 mm rounds packaged into for storage?

A

CNU–405/E ammunition shipping and storage containers.

150
Q

How do we classify 30 mm ammo?

A

According to its purpose.

151
Q

PGU–15 ammunition is used for what purpose?

A

Pilot training, weapon testing, and aircraft system checkout.

152
Q

What impact fuze is used on the 30 mm HEI round?

A

M505A3.

153
Q

What are the two purposes of the fumer charge in the APIT rounds?

A

(1) Reduce air drag during flight to the target.

(2) To give a visible trace of the flight path.

154
Q

What does the projectile retaining screw in the PGU–16/A dummy round do?

A

It holds the projectile in the cartridge and simulates the weight of the propellant and the center of gravity of the round.

155
Q

The 30 mm cartridge case is made of what material?

A

Aluminum.

156
Q

What type of propellant does the 30 mm round use?

A

Double-base.

157
Q

How can you identify 30 mm ammo?

A

By its model number, lot number, part number, and color coding.

158
Q

What color(s) are 30 mm API and APIT rounds painted?

A

Both rounds have a black projectile with a red band and white markings.

159
Q

How are 30 mm dummy rounds identified?

A

Bronze or gold projectile with black markings.

160
Q

How is ammunition for M2A1 cannon classified?

A

According to the type of projectile and/or fuze.

161
Q

Which round has a red tracer composition and an M69 dummy fuze?

A

40 mm AAA target practice tracer (TPT) round.

162
Q

What fuze does the PGU–9 C/B round use?

A

FMU-154/B fuze.

163
Q

What is the minimum specification no arm distance for the FMU–154/B?

A

140 feet.

164
Q

What are all 40 mm airborne artillery ammunition packed in for storage/transporting?

A

MK1 ammunition boxes.

165
Q

How are USAF 105 mm rounds classified?

A

As fixed complete rounds depending on their use/function.

166
Q

What are some uses for the 105 mm high explosive (HE) round?

A

Conventional fire support for harassment and interdiction, fragmentation, mining, and blast effect.

167
Q

What point detonating fuze is used with the PGU–44/B?

A

FMU–153.

168
Q

If the proximity mode fails, how does the FMU–160/B fuze detonate?

A

By impact (point detonating backup).

169
Q

What is the NEW of the PGU–43/B TP round?

A

0.3 pound TNT supplementary charge.

170
Q

What round is designed to remove a projectile lodged in the bore of a 105 mm cannon?

A

The 105 mm clearing round.

171
Q

Which military aircraft carry countermeasure flares?

A

All major USAF tactical fighters, bombers, and cargo aircraft.

172
Q

What is used to safe an ALA-17 flare set for handling?

A

Shorting ring.

173
Q

What is the maximum number of MJU–7-series flares that the MJU–12 flare magazine holds?

A

15.

174
Q

Why is the SD–206 Smokey Devil flare simulator used?

A

Instead of burning, it provides a yellowish smoke to simulate a flare for training purposes.

175
Q

Which countermeasure system consists of a towed decoy?

A

AN/ALE–50 TDS.

176
Q

What is the maximum number of decoys that can be carried on a B–1B?

A

Eight.

177
Q

What is the purpose of chaff munitions?

A

They are used to scramble enemy radar signal returns.

178
Q

RR–188 series chaff is restricted to what type of flying missions?

A

Training.

179
Q

Which type of flare is designed to ignite in the air, then burn on the ground?

A

Target marker flare.

180
Q

How do most illumination flares extend their burn time while airborne?

A

By using large parachutes

181
Q

What color light does the LUU–5/B provide?

A

Green.

182
Q

Which illuminating flare produces an off-white light at two-million candlepower for an average of 5 minutes?

A

LUU–2 series.

183
Q

The LUU–19 series flare provides what primary type of illumination?

A

Light/energy in the near–infrared region spectrum for night vision use.

184
Q

Name three examples of a CAD.

A

(1) Initiators.
(2) Thrusters.
(3) Catapults.

185
Q

When are mechanically-operated initiators fired?

A

When the initiator pin is withdrawn by a force of 20 to 35 pounds

186
Q

Once an initiator supplies the pressure needed for the firing mechanism, what jobs can thrusters perform?

A

Position ejection seats, stow control columns, and open the canopy or escape hatch locks.

187
Q

What are catapults specifically designed to do?

A

Eject the pilot’s seat and the pilot from an aircraft under emergency situations.

188
Q

What do removers do?

A

Jettison the canopy forcibly from the aircraft.

189
Q

What is a propellant-actuated device (PAD)?

A

A device that uses a propellant that is an integral part of the device to provide a source of gas pressure to perform its intended function.

190
Q

What are impulse cartridges used for?

A

To furnish explosive power to separate munitions, fuel tanks, launchers, dispensers, racks, etc., from an aircraft.

CDC SET A (10 decks)

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