Unit 5 Trauma Part 1 Chapters 26-29

Question 1

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the AEMT should:
Select one:
a. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries.
b. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma.
c. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.
d. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain.

Answer 1

c. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

Question 2

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control any obvious bleeding, and then:
Select one:
a. apply a cervical collar.
b. obtain baseline vital signs.
c. assess for an exit wound. 
d. auscultate bowel sounds.

Answer 2

c. assess for an exit wound

Question 3

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include:
Select one:
a. multiple rib fractures.
b. an irregular pulse.
c. vomiting blood.
d. coughing up blood.

Answer 3

d. coughing up blood.

Question 4

Patients who fall and land on their \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may have the least severe injuries.
Select one:
a. feet 
b. head
c. side
d. buttocks

Answer 4

a. feet

Question 5

Which of the following interventions is most critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?
Select one:
a. Rapid transport to a trauma center 
b. Intravenous fluid administration
c. Early administration of oxygen
d. Elevation of the lower extremities

Answer 5

a. Rapid transport to a trauma center

Question 6

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be most suspicious that the child has experienced:
Select one:
a. neck and facial injuries. 
b. blunt trauma to the head.
c. lower-extremity fractures.
d. open abdominal trauma.

Answer 6

a. neck and facial injuries.

Question 7

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
a. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.
b. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave.
c. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.
d. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

Answer 7

d. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

Question 8

The index of suspicion is most accurately defined as:
Select one:
a. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.
b. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.
c. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
d. the way in which traumatic injuries occur.

Answer 8

c. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

Question 9

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will most likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:
Select one:
a. is wearing only a lap belt.
b. remains within the vehicle.
c. experiences multiple impacts.
d. is ejected or partially ejected.

Answer 9

d. is ejected or partially ejected.

Question 10

If a patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale score that is less than or equal to \_\_\_, he or she should be transported to a trauma center that provides the highest level of trauma care.
Select one:
a. 12
b. 14
c. 13 
d. 11

Answer 10

c. 13

Question 11

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury most likely occurred:
Select one:
a. during the primary phase.
b. as a direct result of the pressure wave.
c. during the secondary phase.
d. during the tertiary phase.

Answer 11

d. during the tertiary phase.

Question 12

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
a. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall.
b. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.
c. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.
d. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

Answer 12

a. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall.

Question 13

Which of the following findings requires transport to a trauma center that provides the highest level of trauma care?
Select one:
a. Penetrating injury to the distal femur
b. Fall of 12 feet in a 30-year-old patient
c. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14
d. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min

Answer 13

a. Penetrating injury to the distal femur

Question 14

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:
Select one:
a. doubles.
b. is not affected.
c. quadruples. 
d. triples.

Answer 14

c. quadruples.

Question 15

Two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:
Select one:
a. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.
b. falls and motor vehicle collisions.
c. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.
d. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls.

Answer 15

b. falls and motor vehicle collisions.

Question 16

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:
Select one:
a. rear-end crashes.
b. frontal crashes.
c. lateral crashes.
d. rollover crashes.

Answer 16

c. lateral crashes.

Question 17

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to:
Select one:
a. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
b. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash.
c. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.
d. determine the vehicle’s speed at the time of impact.

Answer 17

a. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

Question 18

Force acting over a distance defines the concept of:
Select one:
a. latent energy.
b. work. 
c. potential energy.
d. kinetic energy.

Answer 18

b. work.

Question 19

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will most likely strike the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ when the air bag deploys upon impact.
Select one:
a. door 
b. steering wheel
c. windshield
d. dashboard

Answer 19

a. door

Question 20

Which of the following injuries would most likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?
Select one:
a. Forehead lacerations
b. Flail chest
c. Extremity fractures
d. Aortic rupture

Answer 20

d. Aortic rupture

Question 21

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be most concerned with the possibility of:
Select one:
a. airway compromise.
b. intracranial bleeding.
c. spinal cord injury.
d. a fracture of the skull.

Answer 21

b. intracranial bleeding.

Question 22

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is most important to:
Select one:
a. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact.
b. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries.
c. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you.
d. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe.

Answer 22

c. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you.

Question 23

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant:
Select one:
a. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.
b. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard.
c. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle.
d. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.

Answer 23

d. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.

Question 24

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is most likely responsible for his back pain?
Select one:
a. Lateral impact to the spine
b. Secondary fall after the initial impact
c. Energy transmission to the spine
d. Direct trauma to the spinal column

Answer 24

c. Energy transmission to the spine

Question 25

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height?
Select one:
a. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact.
b. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact.
c. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.
d. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Answer 25

c. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Question 26

The trauma triad of death includes:
Select one:
a. normothermia, hypertension, and alkalosis.
b. hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis.
c. hypothermia, hypertension, and alkalosis.
d. hyperthermia, hypotension, and acidosis.

Answer 26

b. hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis.

Question 27

Which of the following injuries or conditions would most likely overwhelm the body's hemostatic response and result in death?
Select one:
a. Bleeding within the brain
b. Laceration to the liver
c. Ruptured aortic aneurysm 
d. Laceration to the spleen

Answer 27

c. Ruptured aortic aneurysm

Question 28

Perfusion is most accurately defined as:
Select one:
a. oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange in the lungs.
b. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.
c. removal of carbon dioxide from the body.
d. adequate supplies of glucose within the brain.

Answer 28

b. circulation of blood within an organ or tissue.

Question 29

During times of decreased perfusion, the autonomic nervous system:
Select one:
a. causes vasodilation to increase venous capacitance.
b. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body.
c. diverts all available blood flow to the kidneys.
d. decreases the heart rate so as to decrease oxygen demand.

Answer 29

b. redirects blood to the most vital organs of the body.

Question 30

During your initial attempt to control severe external bleeding from an extremity, you should:
Select one:
a. apply a pressure dressing to the wound.
b. digitally compress a proximal pressure point.
c. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.
d. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.

Answer 30

d. apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing.

Question 31

A patient with suspected internal bleeding is slightly anxious and has cool, pink skin. His heart rate is 90 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 122/60. His presentation is consistent with Class \_\_\_\_ hemorrhage.
Select one:
a. 3
b. 4
c. 1
d. 2

Answer 31

d. 2

Question 32

A 32-year-old male was involved in a motorcycle crash and sustained bilateral femur fractures as he was ejected over the handlebars of his bike. He is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. On the basis of his injury, what is the approximate volume of blood that he has lost?
Select one:
a. 3 L
b. 2 L 
c. 1 L
d. 4 L

Answer 32

b. 2 L

Question 33

The ability of a person to effectively compensate for acute blood loss is most directly related to the:
Select one:
a. patient's weight.
b. location of the injury.
c. rate of blood loss
d. patient's total blood volume.

Answer 33

c. rate of blood loss.

Question 34

Which of the following conditions would allow an adult patient to most effectively compensate for external blood loss?
Select one:
a. 750 mL of blood loss over 10 minutes
b. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes
c. 1,000 mL of blood loss over 20 minutes
d. 500 mL of blood loss over 30 seconds

Answer 34

b. 500 mL of blood loss over 15 minutes

Question 35

When assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma, the severity of internal bleeding is best determined by:
Select one:
a. ascertaining the patient’s medical history.
b. frequently taking the blood pressure.
c. monitoring for signs of shock.
d. noting the mechanism of injury.

Answer 35

c. monitoring for signs of shock.

Question 36

You should be most suspicious for serious bleeding when:
Select one:
a. a patient has a normal BP for his or her age.
b. the typical signs of shock are not present.
c. a patient has a poor general appearance.
d. the MOI suggests injury to the lower extremities.

Answer 36

c. a patient has a poor general appearance.

Question 37

After blood diffuses across the capillary membrane and perfuses the cells, it:
Select one:
a. returns carbon dioxide to the left side of the heart, starting with the veins.
b. drops off carbon dioxide and returns oxygenated blood to the heart.
c. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules.
d. forms lactic and pyruvic acids, which are used by the cells to form energy.

Answer 37

c. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules.

Question 38

If a patient is hemorrhaging, he or she is:
Select one:
a. in severe shock.
b. bleeding externally.
c. bleeding.
d. bleeding internally.

Answer 38

c. bleeding.

Question 39

A 1-year-old female sustained blunt abdominal trauma following a motor-vehicle crash in which she was not properly restrained. Significant signs and symptoms will most likely occur after as little as \_\_\_\_ mL of blood loss.
Select one:
a. 50
b. 250
c. 300
d. 100

Answer 39

d. 100

Question 40

A 19-year-old male sustained major head trauma following a motorcycle crash. During your assessment, you note the presence of blood draining from his left ear. What is the most important reason for not attempting to control the flow of this bleeding?
Select one:
a. The patient may develop a life-threatening infection.
b. Its origin is from a location that you cannot access.
c. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur.
d. It would likely skew the physician’s assessment.

Answer 40

c. An increase in intracranial pressure may occur.

Question 41

Which of the following injuries presents the greatest risk for severe internal bleeding?
Select one:
a. Rib fractures
b. Pelvic fractures 
c. Tibial fractures
d. Bilateral femur fractures

Answer 41

b. Pelvic fractures

Question 42

A hemostatic agent is useful in controlling external bleeding because:
Select one:
a. it stops the bleeding faster than a proximal tourniquet.
b. it constricts the blood vessels to stop the bleeding.
c. the gauze it is impregnated with can be wrapped tightly.
d. it causes enhanced clot formation at the wound site.

Answer 42

d. it causes enhanced clot formation at the wound site.

Question 43

When assessing a 70-year-old male with suspected internal bleeding, which of the following findings would be most pertinent?
Select one:
a. The patient regularly takes Tylenol.
b. A history of controlled hypertension
c. Dizziness or syncope upon standing
d. A history of trauma six months ago

Answer 43

c. Dizziness or syncope upon standing

Question 44

. Hemostasis is a natural response of the body in which:
Select one:
a. all body systems work together to maintain stability of the internal environment.
b. platelets lose their ability to aggregate due to severe internal bleeding.
c. blood is diverted away from the skin to areas where it is needed the most.
d. bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.

Answer 44

d. bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation.

Question 45

You are dispatched to an industrial plant for a worker who was exposed to an unknown chemical. Upon arrival, you find the patient sitting outside of the plant. He has a white, dry powder covering his right arm. Care for this patient’s exposure includes:
Select one:
a. removing the patient’s clothing and immersing his arm in a container of water.
b. brushing the chemical from the patient’s arm and then irrigating with water.
c. immediately flushing the area with sterile saline to stop the burning process.
d. removing the patient’s clothing and flushing with copious amounts of water.

Answer 45

b. brushing the chemical from the patient’s arm and then irrigating with water.

Question 46

During an explosion, a metal worker sustained a large laceration to the left side of his neck by flying debris. He is conscious, but restless; the wound is moderately bleeding. Appropriate care for this patient’s injury includes:
Select one:
a. controlling the bleeding by applying direct pressure to both carotid arteries.
b. circumferentially wrapping the neck with gauze to secure a dressing in place.
c. applying a pressure dressing to the wound and then applying a cervical collar.
d. preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing.

Answer 46

d. preventing air from entering the wound and applying a pressure dressing.

Question 47

You are dispatched to the scene of a shooting. Upon arrival, you are directed by law enforcement to the patient, a 44-year-old male, who is unconscious. He is lying in an impressive pool of blood, and you can hear gurgling from his mouth when he breathes. After your partner opens the patient's airway, you should:
Select one:
a. perform a secondary assessment.
b. suction the patient's oropharynx.
c. assess respiratory rate and quality.
d. locate the source of the bleeding.

Answer 47

b. suction the patient’s oropharynx.

Question 48

A burn occurs when the soft tissue of the skin:
Select one:
a. receives more energy than it can absorb without injury.
b. is exposed to caustic or corrosive chemicals.
c. degrades due to exposure to radioactive substances.
d. is severely damaged by thermal or friction heat.

Answer 48

a. receives more energy than it can absorb without injury.

Question 49

A 34-year-old male was involved in a motor-vehicle crash. During the crash, his vehicle caught fire. Bystanders removed the patient from his vehicle prior to your arrival. The patient is conscious with adequate breathing. He has partial-thickness burns to his face and neck, and an open femur fracture with severe bleeding. Immediate management for this patient should include:
Select one:
a. maintaining body temperature.
b. providing assisted ventilation.
c. controlling the bleeding from his leg.
d. performing a secondary assessment.

Answer 49

c. controlling the bleeding from his leg.

Question 50

Appropriate management for a patient with a serious closed injury and signs of shock includes all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. high-flow oxygen or assisted ventilation.
b. IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion.
c. prompt transport to a local trauma center.
d. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities.

Answer 50

d. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities.

Question 51

Cardiac arrest following a crush injury is most often the result of:
Select one:
a. hyperkalemia.
b. hypovolemia.
c. hypothermia.
d. renal failure.

Answer 51

a. hyperkalemia.

Question 52

The degradation of dead muscle tissue is called:
Select one:
a. rhabdomyolysis.
b. crush syndrome.
c. glycolysis.
d. hemolysis.

Answer 52

a. rhabdomyolysis.

Question 53

Appropriate management for a patient with a serious closed injury and signs of shock includes all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. high-flow oxygen or assisted ventilation.
b. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities.
c. prompt transport to a local trauma center.
d. IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion.

Answer 53

b. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities.

Question 54

A young male tripped on a garden hose, fell, and struck his head on a concrete sidewalk. He is unresponsive and has a large hematoma to his forehead. His respirations are slow and shallow. You should:
Select one:
a. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen.
b. start an IV and administer a 20-mL/kg bolus.
c. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
d. apply ice to the injury to reduce bleeding.

Answer 54

a. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen.

Question 55

The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is:
Select one:
a. absent distal pulses.
b. disproportionate pain. 
c. extremity swelling.
d. an absence of pain.

Answer 55

b. disproportionate pain.

Question 56

A 28-year-old female was the unrestrained driver of a car that struck the rear end of another car while traveling at 35 mph. She is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the anterior chest. During your assessment, you note a large ecchymotic area over the superior aspect of the anterior chest. As your partner assumes manual stabilization of her head, you should:
Select one:
a. open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver.
b. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
c. obtain vital signs to assess for signs of shock.
d. rapidly extricate her from the car and transport.

Answer 56

b. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

Question 57

Lymphangitis is characterized by:
Select one:
a. pain and edema around the wound.
b. red streaks adjacent to the wound.
c. pus draining from the wound.
d. redness and swelling of the wound.

Answer 57

b. red streaks adjacent to the wound.

Question 58

A 60-year-old male has sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest, head, and both anterior arms. On the basis of the “rule of nines,” what percentage of his body surface area (BSA) has been burned?
Select one:
a. 36% 
b. 18%
c. 27%
d. 45%

Answer 58

a. 36%

Question 59

All of the following signs are indicative of upper airway burns due to an inhalation injury, except:
Select one:
a. an altered mental status.
b. carbonaceous sputum.
c. dyspnea and hypoxia.
d. wheezing or rhonchi.

Answer 59

d. wheezing or rhonchi.

Question 60

Common signs and symptoms of radiation sickness include:
Select one:
a. thickening of the skin.
b. hair loss and skin burns. 
c. increased visual acuity.
d. hyperactive organ function.

Answer 60

b. hair loss and skin burns

Question 61

Appropriate management for a patient with a serious closed injury and signs of shock includes all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities
b. high-flow oxygen or assisted ventilation.
c. IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion.
d. prompt transport to a local trauma center.

Answer 61

a. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities.

Question 62

You respond to a domestic dispute, where a middle-aged male was stabbed in the chest by his wife. Your assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. The knife is impaled in the center of his chest. You should:
Select one:
a. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR.
b. stabilize the knife with bulky dressing, initiate CPR, and transport.
c. leave the knife in place, control the bleeding, and initiate CPR.
d. turn the patient onto his side, stabilize the knife, and begin CPR.

Answer 62

a. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR.

Question 63

You and your partner are caring for a 30-year-old female who sustained extensive partial- and full-thickness burns when she was near a gas heater that exploded. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is semiconscious with profoundly labored and stridorous respirations. Immediate management of this patient should include:
Select one:
a. covering her with dry, sterile dressings and applying oxygen.
b. insertion of a supraglottic airway to protect her from aspiration.
c. assisting her breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen.
d. 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport.

Answer 63

c. assisting her breathing with a bag-mask device and oxygen.

Question 64

During a lengthy transport of a 120-lb, 29-year-old female with partial- and full-thickness burns to 45% of her BSA, medical control orders you to begin IV fluid replacement based on the Consensus formula. What volume of IV crystalloid should you administer per hour?
Select one:
a. 620 mL
b. 780 mL
c. 720 mL
d. 690 mL

Answer 64

a. 620 mL

Question 65

The “rule of palms” for estimating the extent of the body surface area (BSA) burned is especially useful with:
Select one:
a. irregularly shaped burns. 
b. partial-thickness burns.
c. circumferential burns.
d. burns to multiple body sites.

Answer 65

a. irregularly shaped burns.

Question 66

Which of the following statements regarding the dermal layer of the skin is correct?
Select one:
a. Cells of the dermis are constantly worn away and replaced.
b. Most of the skin’s melanin granules are contained in the dermis.
c. The dermis forms a watertight covering for the body.
d. Blood vessels in the dermis do not penetrate into the epidermis.

Answer 66

d. Blood vessels in the dermis do not penetrate into the epidermis.

Question 67

You respond to a domestic dispute, where a middle-aged male was stabbed in the chest by his wife. Your assessment reveals that the patient is pulseless and apneic. The knife is impaled in the center of his chest. You should:
Select one:
a. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR.
b. leave the knife in place, control the bleeding, and initiate CPR.
c. turn the patient onto his side, stabilize the knife, and begin CPR.
d. stabilize the knife with bulky dressing, initiate CPR, and transport.

Answer 67

a. carefully remove the knife, control the bleeding, and perform CPR.

Question 68

In contrast to upper-airway injury following a burn, lower-airway injury is usually the result of:
Select one:
a. inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter.
b. interstitial fluid shifts and pulmonary edema.
c. diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.
d. inhalation of superheated gases.

Answer 68

a. inhalation of chemicals and particulate matter.

Question 69

Appropriate management for a patient with a serious closed injury and signs of shock includes all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities.
b. IV fluid boluses to maintain perfusion.
c. high-flow oxygen or assisted ventilation.
d. prompt transport to a local trauma center.

Answer 69

a. 15- to 20-inch elevation of the lower extremities.

Question 70

When a light is shone into the pupil:
Select one:
a. it should become larger in size.
b. the opposite pupil should dilate.
c. it should become smaller in size.
d. both pupils should dilate together.

Answer 70

c. it should become smaller in size.

Question 71

The term “hyphema” is defined as:
Select one:
a. compression of one or both optic nerves.
b. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
c. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens.
d. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye.

Answer 71

b. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.

Question 72

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the:
Select one:
a. sclera.
b. conjunctiva.
c. pupil.
d. cornea.

Answer 72

c. pupil.

Question 73

When caring for a patient with a suspected laryngeal injury, you should:
Select one:
a. apply warm compresses to the neck.
b. discourage the patient from talking. 
c. avoid using an oropharyngeal airway.
d. avoid using a nasopharyngeal airway.

Answer 73

b. discourage the patient from talking.

Question 74

An 82-year-old man experienced a minor facial injury when he tripped and fell. He is conscious and alert and complains of slight pain to his cheekbones. His medical history includes hypertension, blood clots in his legs, hypothyroidism, and type 2 diabetes. During your assessment, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
a. any patient who falls should have their spine immobilized.
b. his blood glucose level should be assessed immediately.
c. patients with hypothyroidism are especially prone to falls.
d. he is at an increased risk for severe posterior epistaxis.

Answer 74

d. he is at an increased risk for severe posterior epistaxis.

Question 75

Significant trauma to the face should increase the AEMT's index of suspicion for a:
Select one:
a. spinal cord injury.
b. displaced mandible.
c. airway obstruction.
d. basilar skull fracture.

Answer 75

a. spinal cord injury.

Question 76

The term “hyphema” is defined as:
Select one:
a. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye.
b. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye.
c. compression of one or both optic nerves.
d. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens.

Answer 76

a. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye

Question 77

The skin and underlying tissues of the face:
Select one:
a. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily.
b. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma.
c. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers.
d. are well protected by the maxillae and mandible.

Answer 77

a. have a rich blood supply and bleed heavily.

Question 78

When a light is shone into the pupil:
Select one:
a. it should become smaller in size.
b. it should become larger in size.
c. the opposite pupil should dilate.
d. both pupils should dilate together.

Answer 78

a. it should become smaller in size.

Question 79

A horizontal fracture of the maxilla that separates the hard palate and lower maxilla from the remainder of the skull is called a:
Select one:
a. blowout fracture.
b. orbital fracture.
c. Le Fort I fracture.
d. Le Fort II fracture.

Answer 79

c. Le Fort I fracture.

Question 80

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should:
Select one:
a. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab.
b. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.
c. transport her to the emergency department.
d. use tweezers to try to remove the object.

Answer 80

c. transport her to the emergency department.

Question 81

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct?
Select one:
a. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.
b. It is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury.
c. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.
d. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost.

Answer 81

a. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.

Question 82

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would most likely be observed in a patient with:
Select one:
a. retinitis.
b. conjunctivitis.
c. a brain injury. 
d. contact lenses.

Answer 82

c. a brain injury.

Question 83

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient’s injury because:
Select one:
a. a specialist may be needed to manage the injury.
b. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital.
c. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.
d. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.

Answer 83

a. a specialist may be needed to manage the injury.

Question 84

. A 30-year-old female was assaulted. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should:
Select one:
a. begin immediate ventilatory assistance.
b. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds.
c. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
d. suction the blood from her oropharynx.

Answer 84

d. suction the blood from her oropharynx.

Question 85

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the AEMT must:
Select one:
a. wear gloves and facial protection.
b. manually stabilize the patient’s head.
c. closely assess the patient’s airway.
d. consider the mechanism of injury.

Answer 85

a. wear gloves and facial protection.

Question 86

. A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include:
Select one:
a. flushing his eye starting laterally.
b. irrigating his right eye laterally.
c. irrigating both eyes simultaneously.
d. covering both eyes and transporting.

Answer 86

b. irrigating his right eye laterally.

Question 87

. Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is most effectively controlled with:
Select one:
a. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point.
b. ice packs and elevation of the patient’s head.
c. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
d. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs.

Answer 87

c. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.

Question 88

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should:
Select one:
a. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water.
b. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing.
c. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing.
d. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

Answer 88

d. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

Question 89

Clinical findings associated with a laryngeal injury include:
Select one:
a. posterior neck deformity, Battle sign, and a dry cough.
b. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.
c. pallor, a mediastinal shift, and tracheal deviation.
d. hematemesis, bulging eyes, and jugular venous distention.

Answer 89

b. hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, and cyanosis.

Question 90

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should:
Select one:
a. apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel.
b. apply direct pressure above and below the wound.
c. circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck.
d. apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point.

Answer 90

b. apply direct pressure above and below the wound.

Question 91

Which cranial nerve is responsible for constriction of the pupil and accommodation of the lens?
Select one:
a. Optic
b. Oculomotor
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Vestibulocochlear

Answer 91

d. Vestibulocochlear

Question 92

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should:
Select one:
a. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab.
b. use tweezers to try to remove the object.
c. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.
d. transport her to the emergency department.

Answer 92

d. transport her to the emergency department.

Question 93

A fracture involving the nasal bone and inferior maxilla, which separates the nasal bone and lower maxilla from the facial skull and remainder of the cranial bones describes:
Select one:
a. a Le Fort II fracture.
b. a Le Fort III fracture.
c. a Le Fort I fracture.
d. craniofacial disjunction.

Answer 93

a. a Le Fort II fracture.

Question 94

Facial injuries must be identified and treated as soon as possible because:
Select one:
a. swelling may mask hidden injuries.
b. of the risk for airway problems. 
c. bleeding must be controlled early.
d. the spine may be injured as well.

Answer 94

b. of the risk for airway problems.