Unit 1 Ch 1-6 Flashcards
1
Q
In most states, a person may be denied certification as an AEMT if he or she: Select one: a. has been convicted of a felony. b. is certified in another state. c. is older than 45 years of age. d. is not a certified firefighter.
A
a. has been convicted of a felony.
2
Q
An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:
Select one:
a. demand that the patient be quiet and cooperative during transport.
b. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
c. ignore the patient’s feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint.
d. reassure your patient everything will be all right, even if it will not be.
A
b. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful.
3
Q
The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to:
Select one:
a. assess competence through a valid testing process.
b. set training standards for each EMS provider level.
c. mandate that EMS providers recertify every year.
d. provide continuing education for EMS providers.
A
a. assess competence through a valid testing process.
4
Q
You arrive at the scene of a domestic dispute. You can hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should:
Select one:
a. immediately gain access to the patient.
b. tell the patient to come outside so you can provide care.
c. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured.
d. carefully enter the house and call law enforcement.
A
c. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured.
5
Q
Which of the following is not a standard licensure requirement for AEMTs?
Select one:
a. Proof of immunization against communicable diseases
b. Successful completion of a state-approved AEMT exam
c. Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course
d. Possession of a valid and current driver’s license
A
c. Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course
6
Q
A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a patient administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this? Select one: a. Indirect medical control b. Off-line medical control c. Standing order d. Online medical control
A
d. Online medical control
7
Q
Which of the following is an example of a secondary prevention strategy?
Select one:
a. Advocating childhood vaccinations following CDC guidelines
b. Constructing a guardrail to prevent an accident from occurring
c. Placing childproof locks on cabinets that contain harmful chemicals
d. Educating the public regarding the use of helmets and seat belts
A
d. Educating the public regarding the use of helmets and seat belts
8
Q
A circular system of ongoing internal and external reviews is known as: Select one: a. continuous quality improvement. b. retrospective patient care analysis. c. quarterly audits of EMS systems. d. advanced life support review.
A
a. continuous quality improvement.
9
Q
Authorization to use an automatic transport ventilator when transporting a patient requires which minimum level of EMS provider? Select one: a. AEMT b. EMR c. EMT d. Paramedic
A
c. EMT
10
Q
Roles and responsibilities of the AEMT include:
Select one:
a. diagnosing a patient’s condition based on assessment.
b. providing definitive care for the patient’s condition.
c. performing rapid assessments on all patients.
d. identifying patients who are critically ill or injured.
A
d. identifying patients who are critically ill or injured.
11
Q
While caring for a 40-year-old male with shortness of breath and a history of tuberculosis, the AEMT should place a:
Select one:
a. HEPA respirator on the patient and a surgical mask on him- or herself.
b. HEPA respirator on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.
c. surgical mask on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.
d. surgical mask on him- or herself and a nasal cannula on the patient.
A
b. HEPA respirator on him- or herself and a nonrebreathing mask on the patient.
12
Q
You have just established an IV on a critically injured patient. As you prepare to dispose of the needle in the appropriate container, you get stuck with the needle. You should:
Select one:
a. ignore the wound, because this was not a significant exposure.
b. immerse your wound in water or a sterile saline solution.
c. cease patient care and immediately seek medical attention.
d. report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible.
A
d. report the incident to your supervisor as soon as possible.
13
Q
Critical incident stress management is a program designed to:
Select one:
a. debrief press and media on details of a critical incident.
b. evaluate personnel performance during a critical incident.
c. confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.
d. investigate civilian complaints during a critical incident.
A
c. confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them.
14
Q
You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you should:
Select one:
a. use binoculars to try to read the placard.
b. carefully assess the driver of the truck.
c. decontaminate the driver of the truck.
d. rapidly extricate the driver from the truck.
A
a. use binoculars to try to read the placard.
15
Q
Body armor with a threat level of Type IIA would provide protection from which of the following weapons? Select one: a. Armor-piercing bullets b. High-velocity 9 mm c. .40 Smith & Wesson d. .44 Magnum
A
c. .40 Smith & Wesson
16
Q
Which of the following is not a typical warning sign of stress? Select one: a. Inability to concentrate b. Increased appetite c. Isolation d. Irritability toward coworkers
A
b. Increased appetite
17
Q
The AEMT should wear double gloves when caring for a patient who:
Select one:
a. is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.
b. has widespread abrasions and capillary bleeding.
c. is infected with HIV or hepatitis B.
d. is coughing and has a history of tuberculosis.
A
a. is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration.
18
Q
A man is experiencing significant anxiety and depression regarding the impending death of his wife. However, the wife is trying to comfort her husband by telling him that she loves him and is prepared to die. What stage of the grieving process is the patient experiencing? Select one: a. Denial b. Depression c. Acceptance d. Bargaining
A
c. Acceptance
19
Q
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the family’s reaction to the death of a loved one who had an extended or terminal illness?
Select one:
a. They rarely blame themselves because of the patient’s death.
b. They usually seek immediate care because of severe guilt.
c. They often feel relieved that the illness is over.
d. They initially express guilt but then experience relief.
A
c. They often feel relieved that the illness is over.
20
Q
After being told of the death of her husband, a middle-aged woman asks, “Why are you lying to me?” What stage of the grieving process is this typical of? Select one: a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression
A
a. Denial
21
Q
When establishing negligence, which of the following factors is not a consideration?
Select one:
a. The AEMT had a legal duty to act.
b. The AEMT deviated from the standard of care.
c. An injury occurred due to the AEMT’s actions.
d. The patient’s injury was life threatening.
A
d. The patient’s injury was life threatening.
22
Q
While triaging patients at a multiple-casualty incident, you encounter a 40-year-old female with an obvious fracture of her right forearm and multiple abrasions to her face and arms. She is responsive and alert and does not appear to have any airway or breathing problems. You note that she is wearing an organ donor bracelet. You should:
Select one:
a. apply a splint to her arm injury and continue triaging the other patients.
b. give her high-flow oxygen in order to keep her vital organs viable.
c. assign her an appropriate triage category and move to the next patient.
d. place her in a high-priority treatment category because of her donor status.
A
c. assign her an appropriate triage category and move to the next patient.
23
Q
A direct relationship between a patient's injury and the AEMT's actions or inactions is called: Select one: a. gross negligence. b. proximate cause. c. slander. d. libel.
A
b. proximate cause.
24
Q
A certified AEMT is a prehospital care provider who has:
Select one:
a. met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice.
b. successfully completed a state-approved AEMT training program.
c. been granted permission to engage in emergency medical care.
d. the authority to practice emergency medicine without physician oversight.
A
a. met certain predetermined standards to ensure safe and ethical practice.
25
```
When treating an anxious and uncooperative patient with chest pain, you state, “If you don't settle down, I am going to put a large IV in your arm.” What is this an example of?
Select one:
a. Battery
b. Libel
c. Slander
d. Assault
```
d. Assault
26
During transport of a patient with a possible fractured arm, you come upon a major car accident involving multiple patients. Your patient is responsive, alert, and has stable vital signs. What should you do?
Select one:
a. Radio the dispatcher to send ambulances to the scene and continue transport.
b. Quickly triage the patients and wait for other ambulances to arrive at the scene.
c. Notify the dispatcher of the major accident once you have arrived at the hospital.
d. Ask a bystander to stay with your patient as you and your partner begin triage.
a. Radio the dispatcher to send ambulances to the scene and continue transport.
27
In which of the following situations would the AEMT have a legal duty to act?
Select one:
a. You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction.
b. Arriving at a motor-vehicle crash outside your jurisdiction.
c. Encountering a man in cardiac arrest while you are off duty.
d. At all times, whether you are on duty or off duty.
a. You initiate CPR on a young child outside of your jurisdiction.
28
In most instances, a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order must meet which of the following requirements?
Select one:
a. It must be signed by at least three physicians.
b. It must clearly state the patient's medical condition.
c. It must be dated within the previous 24 months.
d. It must be signed by a close relative.
b. It must clearly state the patient's medical condition.
29
You and your team attempted to resuscitate a young male who hung himself in his garage. Despite your best efforts, the patient did not survive. When the medical examiner arrives at the scene, you should:
Select one:
a. allow the patient's family to spend some time with the body before the medical examiner begins his or her duties.
b. advise the medical examiner that he or she cannot examine the body without your medical director's permission.
c. remove any airway adjuncts from the patient before the medical examiner begins his or her examination of the patient.
d. provide information to the medical examiner, such as the position in which the patient was found upon your arrival.
d. provide information to the medical examiner, such as the position in which the patient was found upon your arrival.
30
You and your partner are the first to arrive at a potential crime scene involving a critically injured patient. The scene is safe. Your first priority is to:
Select one:
a. contact medical control for guidance.
b. wait for a crime scene investigation team.
c. preserve potential evidence.
d. provide emergency care to the patient.
d. provide emergency care to the patient.
31
You arrive at the scene where an older man inadvertently overdosed on his blood pressure medication. He is unresponsive with shallow respirations. The patient's wife is unavailable. You should:
Select one:
a. contact medical control and obtain permission to treat.
b. begin treatment and transport the patient to the hospital.
c. treat the patient under the law of expressed consent.
d. attempt to contact the wife prior to initiating care.
b. begin treatment and transport the patient to the hospital.
32
You respond to a nursing home's call regarding an older patient who fell. During your assessment, you note injuries that are not consistent with the mechanism described. You should:
Select one:
a. document that you believe the patient was abused.
b. transport the patient and report your suspicions.
c. notify the police before initiating care.
d. ask the staff if the patient was abused.
b. transport the patient and report your suspicions.
33
```
Which of the following defines your scope of practice within your local response area?
Select one:
a. The National Registry of EMTs
b. American Heart Association guidelines
c. Local protocols and standing orders
d. The US Department of Transportation
```
c. Local protocols and standing orders
34
```
The manner in which you are required to act or behave while providing emergency care is called:
Select one:
a. standard of care.
b. scope of practice.
c. duty to act.
d. local protocol adherence.
```
a. standard of care.
35
While treating a man with severe chest pain and difficulty breathing, you are presented with a valid do not resuscitate (DNR) order by the patient's wife. She tells you that her husband does not want any “heroics.” How should you manage this situation?
Select one:
a. Obtain a signed refusal from the wife and return to service.
b. Provide supportive care and transport the patient.
c. Be prepared to start CPR if the patient develops cardiac arrest.
d. Provide no treatment and transport the patient to the hospital.
b. Provide supportive care and transport the patient.
36
The Good Samaritan law is designed to afford legal protection for providers who:
Select one:
a. provide good faith care while not on duty.
b. exceed their respective scope of practice.
c. act inconsistently with the standard of care.
d. accept payment in exchange for providing care.
a. provide good faith care while not on duty.
37
Which of the following scenarios is most consistent with abandonment?
Select one:
a. You give a verbal report to the charge nurse in the emergency department.
b. A paramedic assumes care of a critical cardiac patient from an AEMT.
c. Emergency medical responders provide an AEMT with a patient's vital signs.
d. A report is given to a hospital clerk because you must respond to another call.
d. A report is given to a hospital clerk because you must respond to another call.
38
```
When you arrive at an accident scene where a child has been seriously injured, you are unable to locate the child's parents. What type of consent is involved in treating and transporting this child?
Select one:
a. Expressed
b. Informed
c. Implied
d. Actual
```
c. Implied
39
Which of the following scenarios most accurately depicts assault?
Select one:
a. Taking a patient's blood pressure when they are refusing care.
b. Telling a patient to calm down or you will start an IV.
c. Starting an IV without the patient's consent.
d. Telling a violent patient that you may have to restrain him if necessary.
b. Telling a patient to calm down or you will start an IV.
40
```
Which of the following information is not considered confidential?
Select one:
a. The time of dispatch
b. Treatment provided
c. Assessment findings
d. Patient history
```
a. The time of dispatch
41
Which of the following is your best protection against being accused of defamation of character?
Select one:
a. Documenting objective findings only
b. Documenting personal opinions in quotation marks
c. Not speaking with anyone regarding a call
d. Reporting patient information only to a physician
a. Documenting objective findings only
42
When documenting medical terminology on a patient care form, you should:
Select one:
a. avoid the use of medical abbreviations.
b. spell the word to the best of your ability.
c. use abbreviations unique to your protocols.
d. use only standard medical abbreviations.
d. use only standard medical abbreviations.
43
```
You are caring for a patient with a possible myocardial infarction. When communicating with medical control, you are able to speak to the physician and send an ECG tracing at the same time. What type of radio system is required to do this?
Select one:
a. Uniplex system
b. Full duplex mode
c. Trunking system
d. Simplex system
```
b. Full duplex mode
44
```
You are requesting an order to perform an invasive intervention on a critically ill patient from medical control when the radio system suddenly fails. You should:
Select one:
a. reattempt to contact medical control.
b. follow standing orders.
c. perform the invasive intervention.
d. continue BLS and transport.
```
b. follow standing orders.
45
When responding to the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you should:
Select one:
a. notify medical control and request orders prior to arrival.
b. ask the dispatcher to notify all of the hospitals in the area.
c. contact the hospital after you know the extent of the incident.
d. avoid communication with the dispatcher to free up air time.
b. ask the dispatcher to notify all of the hospitals in the area.
46
You are assessing a middle-aged man who complains of nausea and a headache. Before you physically move closer to him, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
a. he will take this as a sign of your compassion.
b. a greater sense of trust must be established first.
c. eye contact will likely make him uncomfortable.
d. most people's intimate space is between 18 inches and 4 feet.
b. a greater sense of trust must be established first.
47
Your assessment of a 40-year-old male with an altered mental status (AMS) reveals the obvious odor of alcohol on his breath. When documenting the events of the call, you should state that:
Select one:
a. the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath.
b. the patient's blood alcohol concentration is high.
c. the patient appeared to be acutely intoxicated.
d. alcohol cannot be ruled out as the cause of his AMS.
a. the smell of alcohol was noted on the patient's breath.
48
When documenting your assessment of a patient with a headache, you should include pertinent negatives, which are:
Select one:
a. findings associated with other disease processes.
b. symptoms the patient had with previous episodes.
c. signs that are not consistent with the condition.
d. expected signs or symptoms that are not present.
d. expected signs or symptoms that are not present.
49
You must be careful when speaking to the family members about a patient because:
Select one:
a. the family may sue you for slander.
b. it is a violation of the patient's rights.
c. the patient may misinterpret what you said.
d. they are not a reliable source of information.
c. the patient may misinterpret what you said.
50
The transfer of patient care officially occurs when you:
Select one:
a. complete all documentation regarding the call.
b. arrive at the receiving hospital or facility.
c. give an oral report to a nurse or physician.
d. advise the hospital of the situation via radio.
c. give an oral report to a nurse or physician.
51
Which of the following is the most significant consequence of inappropriate documentation?
Select one:
a. Litigation due to negligence or slanderous comments
b. Punitive action by your supervisor or medical director
c. Subsequent patient care that is inappropriate
d. Revocation of your EMS certification or license
c. Subsequent patient care that is inappropriate
52
You are dispatched to a residence for a 5-year-old child with fever. During your assessment, the child becomes irritable and starts crying. You should:
Select one:
a. encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child.
b. limit your assessment to a visual inspection of the child.
c. ask the parent or caregiver to leave the room.
d. carefully restrain the child and continue your assessment.
a. encourage a parent or caregiver to hold the child.
53
Which of the following statements regarding age, culture, and personal experience is correct?
Select one:
a. An elderly person with chronic pain usually cannot cope with their condition.
b. The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences.
c. Regardless of culture, people are taught to openly express their emotions.
d. Generally speaking, a person's age has little or no influence on their behavior.
b. The thoughts of people are greatly influenced by their personal experiences.
54
```
Which of the following information is generally not reported to the dispatcher during a call?
Select one:
a. Acknowledgement of the situation
b. The patient's clinical condition
c. Your arrival at the hospital
d. Your departure for the hospital
```
b. The patient's clinical condition
55
How does an enhanced 9-1-1 system function?
Select one:
a. It prevents the dispatcher and the caller from being disconnected.
b. It provides the caller with initial emergency care for the patient.
c. It displays the caller's information on the dispatcher's computer.
d. It is a universal number that can be accessed from any phone.
c. It displays the caller's information on the dispatcher's computer.
56
Which of the following situations requires reporting to the authorities?
Select one:
a. A minor who was injured during a school event
b. An inadvertent overdose by an elderly patient
c. An adult who was bitten by a stray dog
d. Any EMS call involving more than two patients
c. An adult who was bitten by a stray dog
57
```
A patient who was stung on the left leg by a scorpion develops a rash on the ipsilateral side. This means that the rash is:
Select one:
a. on the left side of the body.
b. to the left and right of the sting.
c. above and below the sting.
d. on the right side of the body.
```
a. on the left side of the body.
58
```
A patient has a gunshot wound to the left side of the chest. How should you describe the anatomic location of the injury?
Select one:
a. Inferolateral
b. Inferoposterior
c. Anterolateral
d. Anteromedial
```
c. Anterolateral
59
```
A young female is experiencing an ectopic pregnancy. This means that the embryo developed:
Select one:
a. in the retroperitoneum.
b. within the uterus.
c. in a fallopian tube.
d. outside of the uterus.
```
d. outside of the uterus.
60
```
A lack of oxygen or excess of carbon dioxide in the body that results in unconsciousness is called:
Select one:
a. hypoxia.
b. hypoxemia.
c. hypercarbia.
d. asphyxia.
```
d. asphyxia.
61
```
Myasthenia means:
Select one:
a. muscle weakness.
b. heart enlargement.
c. muscle paralysis.
d. heart weakening.
```
a. muscle weakness.
62
```
The prefixes nephr/o- and ren/o- are synonymous with the:
Select one:
a. brain.
b. kidneys.
c. heart.
d. lungs.
```
b. kidneys.
63
```
McBurney point is an example of aNo:
Select one:
a. synonym.
b. homonym.
c. eponym.
d. antonym.
```
c. eponym.
64
```
The nose and navel are found along which anatomic plane?
Select one:
a. Axial
b. Midsagittal
c. Coronal
d. Transverse
```
b. Midsagittal
65
```
An abbreviation is considered an acronym if it:
Select one:
a. is spelled the same backward.
b. exists in the English language.
c. is pronounced as a word.
d. is spelled out.
```
c. is pronounced as a word.
66
```
How many millimeters are in two centimeters?
Select one:
a. 200
b. 20
c. 2,000
d. 20,000
```
b. 20
67
```
Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is:
Select one:
a. inferior.
b. anterior.
c. posterior.
d. lateral.
```
c. posterior.
68
```
What prefix is used to describe something that is between?
Select one:
a. Intra-
b. Iso-
c. Inter-
d. Infra-
```
c. Inter-
69
```
The wrist is ________ to the elbow.
Select one:
a. medial
b. lateral
c. distal
d. proximal
```
c. distal
70
```
One meter equals how many millimeters?
Select one:
a. 1,000
b. 100
c. 10
d. 10,000
```
a. 1,000
71
```
An unconscious, adequately breathing patient should be placed in the recovery position, which is:
Select one:
a. semi-sitting.
b. supine.
c. prone.
d. laterally recumbent.
```
d. laterally recumbent.
72
```
The prefix ortho- means:
Select one:
a. forward.
b. deform.
c. bone.
d. straight.
```
d. straight.
73
In which of the following situations would a direct ground lift be the most appropriate method of moving a patient?
Select one:
a. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
b. An unconscious patient with a possible ischemic stroke
c. A patient who complains of hip pain following a fall
d. A pedestrian with back pain after being struck by a car
a. A conscious patient complaining of abdominal pain
74
```
With proper technique, the AEMT and his or her partner should be able to safely lift a patient who weighs up to _______ lb.
Select one:
a. 190
b. 220
c. 175
d. 150
```
b. 220
75
Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
Select one:
a. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
b. It is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient.
c. The spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move.
d. The patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move.
a. An emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment.
76
When moving a conscious, weak patient down a flight of stairs, you should:
Select one:
a. secure the patient to a scoop stretcher and carry him or her headfirst down the stairs to the awaiting stretcher.
b. collapse the undercarriage of the wheeled stretcher and carefully carry the patient down the stairs on the stretcher.
c. assist the patient in walking down the stairs and place him or her on the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs.
d. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
d. place the wheeled stretcher at the bottom of the stairs and carry the patient down the stairs with a stair chair.
77
Which of the following statements regarding the neonatal isolette is correct?
Select one:
a. The safest type of isolette is one that takes the place of the ambulance stretcher.
b. The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects from excess handling.
c. A freestanding isolette should be used, not one that is secured to the stretcher.
d. If an isolette is not available, the neonate can safely be transported on the stretcher.
b. The isolette serves to keep the neonate warm and protects from excess handling.
78
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
Select one:
a. apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag.
b. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
c. slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.
d. apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient.
b. direct your partner to apply manual in-line support of the patient's head.
79
An 81-year-old female fell and struck her head. You find the patient lying on her left side. She is conscious and complains of neck and upper back pain. As you are assessing her, you note that she has a severely kyphotic spine. What is the most appropriate method of immobilizing this patient?
Select one:
a. Apply a cervical collar and place her in a sitting position on the wheeled stretcher.
b. Immobilize her in a supine position on a long backboard and secure her with straps.
c. Move her to a supine position and immobilize her with a scoop stretcher and padding.
d. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.
d. Leave her on her side and use blanket rolls to immobilize her to the long backboard.
80
The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:
Select one:
a. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
b. with multiple long bone injuries.
c. who cannot be placed on a backboard.
d. with a possible cervical spine injury.
a. from a bed to the ambulance stretcher.
81
```
When carrying a patient on a backboard up or down stairs:
Select one:
a. keep the head end elevated.
b. keep your palms facing down.
c. carry the patient headfirst.
d. keep the foot end elevated.
```
a. keep the head end elevated.
82
In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:
Select one:
a. increased stability due to a wider wheelbase.
b. a collapsible undercarriage.
c. a weight capacity of up to 650 lb.
d. two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher.
a. increased stability due to a wider wheelbase.
83
The proper technique for using the power grip is to:
Select one:
a. rotate your palms down.
b. position your hands about 6 inches apart.
c. hold the handle with your fingers.
d. lift with your palms up.
d. lift with your palms up.
84
When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:
Select one:
a. the muscles of the back experience increased strain.
b. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
c. the risk of back injuries is significantly increased.
d. the hands can be held further apart from the body.
b. the weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae.
85
When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:
Select one:
a. bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power.
b. avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than 5 minutes.
c. extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible.
d. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.
d. kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over.
86
```
The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
Select one:
a. confusion among team members.
b. causing patient anxiety or fear.
c. unnecessarily wasting time.
d. injury to you or your patient.
```
d. injury to you or your patient.
87
A folding or portable stretcher is most beneficial when:
Select one:
a. a patient requires full spinal immobilization when spinal injury is suspected.
b. an injured patient cannot be placed on a long board due to severe back pain.
c. a conscious, alert patient must be carried down several flights of steep stairs.
d. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
d. a second patient must be transported on the squad bench of the ambulance.
88
```
You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 lb with fewer than _______ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.
Select one:
a. three
b. five
c. four
d. six
```
c. four
89
You and your partner enter the residence of an elderly couple, both of whom are found unconscious in their bed. There is no evidence of trauma. As you begin your assessment, you and your partner notice the smell of natural gas in the residence. Which of the following should be your most appropriate action?
Select one:
a. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.
b. Perform a rapid assessment and then move the patients from their residence.
c. Quickly exit the residence and request the fire department to move the patients.
d. Request another ambulance to assist with lifting and moving the patients.
a. Rapidly remove the patients from their residence using a blanket or clothes drag.
90
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
Select one:
a. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
b. use a direct carry whenever possible.
c. avoid the use of log rolls or body drags.
d. flex at the waist instead of the hips.
a. keep the weight as close to your body as possible.
91
Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct?
Select one:
a. The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits x-rays while the patient is on it.
b. You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.
c. Both sides of the patient must be accessible in order for a scoop stretcher to be used.
d. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column.
d. A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient's spinal column.
92
The first rule of safe lifting is to:
Select one:
a. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
b. always lift with your palms facing down.
c. keep your back in a slightly curved position.
d. spread your legs approximately 20 inches apart.
a. keep your back in a straight, vertical position.
93
```
The suffix -ostomy means:
Select one:
a. drainage from a body cavity.
b. surgical creation of a hole.
c. surgical incision.
d. release of pressure.
```
b. surgical creation of a hole.
94
You have two patients who were involved in a motor vehicle crash when their SUV struck a tree—one with neck and back pain, and the other with a deformed left femur. The patient with the deformed femur states that he does not want to be placed on a hard board, nor does he want a collar around his neck. What is the most appropriate and practical method of securing these patients and placing them into the ambulance?
Select one:
a. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the squad bench; allow the patient with the deformed femur to sit on the wheeled stretcher.
b. Immobilize both patients with a cervical collar and long backboard based on the mechanism of injury; place one on the wheeled stretcher and the other on the squad bench.
c. Apply a traction splint to the patient with the deformed femur and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with neck and back pain on the squad bench immobilized with a cervical collar and scoop stretcher.
d. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.
d. Immobilize the patient with neck and back pain on a long backboard and place him on the wheeled stretcher; place the patient with the deformed femur on a folding stretcher secured to the squad bench.
95
Which of the following behaviors may be considered abusive?
Select one:
a. Placing a grandparent in nursing care when the burdens of extended care become unmanageable.
b. Requiring a child to help out with chores around the house to earn their allowance.
c. Withholding of asthma medication from a child who refuses to finish eating dinner.
d. Insisting a high school senior work a weekend job to earn money toward her college education.
e. Placing a child on "time-out" when they misbehave.
c. Withholding of asthma medication from a child who refuses to finish eating dinner.
96
A patient has a condition called dextrocardia. This means that:
Select one:
a. the coronary arteries are abnormally dilated.
b. the coronary arteries are abnormally narrowed.
c. the heart is on the right side of the chest.
d. the heart is abnormally inverted in the chest.
c. the heart is on the right side of the chest.
97
While en route back to your station after delivering a patient to the hospital, you realize that you made an error on the front page of the patient care report. You should:
Select one:
a. mark through the error with a black marker to ensure it is completely covered.
b. place an “X” across the error and write an addendum to include the correction.
c. draw a straight line through it with different colored ink and date and initial it.
d. completely mark through the error and write the correct information beside it.
c. draw a straight line through it with different colored ink and date and initial it.
98
How should EMS units respond to violent situations to ensure safety?
Select one:
a. Enter as quickly as possible because every patient needs prompt treatment.
b. Enter the scene before law enforcement to avoid any potential confrontation.
c. Remain away from the scene until law enforcement arrives and secures the scene.
d. Remain away from the scene and have law enforcement bring the patient to you.
c. Remain away from the scene until law enforcement arrives and secures the scene.
99
You arrive at the scene of a shooting. The patient, a young man, was shot in the head and has exposed brain matter. He is pulseless and apneic. What should you do?
Select one:
a. Provide immediate treatment and transport.
b. Take necessary precautions not to disturb the scene.
c. Look for the weapon and turn it over to law enforcement.
d. Perform a thorough hands-on assessment of the patient.
b. Take necessary precautions not to disturb the scene.
100
```
HIPAA legislation relates primarily to which medicolegal issue?
Select one:
a. Consent
b. Duty to act
c. Abandonment
d. Confidentiality
```
d. Confidentiality
101
A 68-year-old female with a history of Alzheimer disease complains of acute abdominal pain. As you prepare to start an IV on her, she becomes verbally abusive. You should:
Select one:
a. remain patient and explain the procedure to her.
b. gently restrain her and continue with the IV.
c. attribute her aggression to the Alzheimer disease.
d. discontinue the IV attempt and transport her.
a. remain patient and explain the procedure to her.
102
```
Which of the following conditions or injuries would most likely require transfer to a specialty facility?
Select one:
a. Thermal burns
b. Open fracture
c. Severe headache
d. Abdominal pain
```
a. Thermal burns
103
What should you do when you suspect child abuse?
Select one:
a. Remove the child from the abuser's care.
b. Report your suspicions to the appropriate authorities
c. Confirm your suspicions of abuse.
d. Question the parent about the events leading to the injury.
b. Report your suspicions to the appropriate authorities
104
A patient vomits blood onto your uniform at the hospital. Your service has no more ambulances available. What should you do?
Select one:
a. Rinse your uniform out in the sink and notify dispatch of your location.
b. Alert dispatch that you are out of service for the next 6 hours.
c. Thoroughly clean yourself, the ambulance and don a pair of scrubs.
d. Wash your uniform only if your patient had a communicable disease.
c. Thoroughly clean yourself, the ambulance and don a pair of scrubs.
105
You respond to the scene of a 16-year-old pregnant woman with abdominal pain. Her friend called EMS because she was concerned. As you begin your assessment, the patient tells you that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. You should:
Select one:
a. contact the patient's parents to obtain consent.
b. explain the consequences of refusal of care.
c. advise the patient that she cannot refuse care.
d. have the patient sign a Refusal for Care form.
b. explain the consequences of refusal of care.
106
If you use a waterless handwashing substitute in the field, it is important to:
Select one:
a. thoroughly wash your hands with water as soon as possible.
b. allow the solution to evaporate without rubbing your hands together.
c. avoid washing your hands with water because it will deactivate the waterless substitute.
d. immediately dry the waterless substitute from your hands with a paper towel.
a. thoroughly wash your hands with water as soon as possible.
107
```
Common hazards associated with a structural fire include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. decreased oxygen availability.
b. carbon dioxide deficiency.
c. the risk of building collapse.
d. high ambient temperatures.
```
b. carbon dioxide deficiency.
108
The National EMS Information System (NEMSIS) has identified minimum data to be included in a patient care report. Which of the following is not included in the minimum data?
Select one:
a. Time and date that you were dispatched
b. Level of consciousness or mental status
c. Chief complaint and vital signs
d. Weather forecast at the time of dispatch
d. Weather forecast at the time of dispatch
109
```
A 25 year old female is found lying in the shrubs on a college campus. Her clothing is torn and she is covered in dirt. She does not remember how she got there and cannot answer all of your questions. What should you do?
Select one:
a. Notify her parents
b. Call for police assistance
c. Perform a detailed assessment
d. Check her blood glucose
```
b. Call for police assistance
110
You are dispatched for a young male who, according to witnesses, is “not acting right.” The patient is found sitting on the ground outside of a grocery store, rocking back and forth. He has blood on his arm from an apparent wound to his wrist. You should:
Select one:
a. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent.
b. recognize that his movements are purposeful and do not suggest violence.
c. quickly make contact with him and control the bleeding from his wrist.
d. ask the patient to stand up so you can assess his balance and coordination.
a. talk to him as you approach him, but be prepared for him to turn violent.
