Unit 3 Quizzes

Question 1

When energy impacts a body structure it:
Select one:
a. dissipates locally.
b. penetrates the skin surface.
c. causes a broad area of injury.
d. translates into injury.

Answer 1

d. translates into injury.

Question 2

Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the “P” in the SAMPLE history?
Select one:
a. Has this ever happened to you before?
b. Do you take any prescription medications?
c. What were you doing when this episode began?
d. Are there any medications you cannot take?

Answer 2

a. Has this ever happened to you before?

Question 3

A patient with congenital anisocoria would be expected to have pupils that:
Select one:
a. do not respond to light.
b. dilate when exposed to light.
c. are unequal in size. 
d. are constricted and nonreactive.

Answer 3

c. are unequal in size.

Question 4

A 40-year-old female is unconscious following blunt trauma to the chest. During the rapid trauma assessment (rapid body scan), you auscultate the chest and hear rhonchi. This indicates:
Select one:
a. fluid in the larger airways in the lungs.
b. decreased blood flow to the lungs.
c. bronchospasm and decreased air movement.
d. fluid in the smaller airways in the lungs.

Answer 4

a. fluid in the larger airways in the lungs.

Question 5

You are extricating a conscious and alert 22-year-old female from her car after she struck the rear end of another car while traveling at 40 mph. She complains only of neck pain and has no visible trauma. Her airbag deployed, but she was not wearing a seatbelt. You should:
Select one:
a. lift the airbag and assess for steering wheel deformity.
b. perform a secondary assessment and then transport.
c. assume that her head struck the windshield upon impact.
d. immobilize her spine and perform a focused exam.

Answer 5

a. lift the airbag and assess for steering wheel deformity.

Question 6

Which of the following conditions can cause the skin to be abnormally flushed and red?
Select one:
a. Hypothermia
b. High blood pressure 
c. Liver failure
d. Poor peripheral circulation

Answer 6

b. High blood pressure

Question 7

A 56-year-old female called EMS because of shortness of breath. During your assessment, she tells you that this began four days ago. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask her regarding the duration of her chief complaint?
Select one:
a. Why is this suddenly an emergency today?
b. Why didn’t you call EMS when this began?
c. What prompted you to call EMS today?
d. Why haven’t you called your physician?

Answer 7

c. What prompted you to call EMS today?

Question 8

The formulation of an appropriate treatment plan is ultimately based on the:
Select one:
a. patient’s vital signs and medical history.
b. findings in the primary assessment.
c. AEMT’s differential diagnosis.
d. field impression of the patient.

Answer 8

d. field impression of the patient.

Question 9

During your assessment of a 33-year-old female with an altered mental status, you note a fruity odor on her breath. You should:
Select one:
a. treat her for cyanide poisoning.
b. ask her if she has been drinking.
c. administer a tube of oral glucose.
d. obtain a blood glucose reading.

Answer 9

d. obtain a blood glucose reading.

Question 10

Which of the following patients requires immediate transport following initial stabilization at the scene?
Select one:
a. Patient with large laceration to the arm with controlled bleeding
b. Patient with decreased movement of an extremity following trauma
c. Patient with severe pain to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen
d. Conscious patient involved in a low-speed MVC

Answer 10

c. Patient with severe pain to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen

Question 11

Which of the following skin findings suggest liver dysfunction?
Select one:
a. Flushed and warm
b. Ashen and moist
c. Cyanotic and cool
d. Jaundice and dry

Answer 11

d. Jaundice and dry

Question 12

Indicators to the patient that you are actively listening to him or her include:
Select one:
a. basing your initial questions on the patient’s medical history.
b. asking the patient if he or she has any questions for you.
c. periodically repeating back important points to the patient.
d. taking detailed notes throughout the assessment process.

Answer 12

c. periodically repeating back important points to the patient.

Question 13

You are en route to a trauma center with a victim of a gunshot wound. You reassess his blood pressure and note that it has decreased by 10 mm Hg. After ensuring continued airway patency and adequate ventilation, you should:
Select one:
a. contact medical control for advice.
b. assess his blood pressure again.
c. reassess for any occult bleeding. 
d. give additional IV fluid boluses.

Answer 13

c. reassess for any occult bleeding.

Question 14

The focused assessment of a responsive medical patient is guided by:
Select one:
a. the patient’s reason for calling EMS.
b. information obtained from the dispatcher.
c. your perception of the patient’s problem.
d. your general impression of the patient.

Answer 14

a. the patient’s reason for calling EMS.

Question 15

You arrive at the scene of a motor-vehicle crash where a small car has struck a tree head-on. You see one patient sitting in the driver’s seat with the door open. Prior to exiting the ambulance, you should:
Select one:
a. don the appropriate protective equipment.
b. observe the patient’s mental status.
c. document your observations on the run form.
d. request a rescue team for vehicle extrication.

Answer 15

a. don the appropriate protective equipment.

Question 16

When reassessing a patient during transport, you should:
Select one:
a. begin by repeating the focused history and physical examination.
b. complete your patient care form and document all treatment given.
c. take the patient’s blood pressure at least every 5 minutes.
d. monitor treatment interventions and modify them as necessary.

Answer 16

d. monitor treatment interventions and modify them as necessary.

Question 17

A 59-year-old male presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Upon assessment, you note that his abdomen has an asymmetrical appearance. As you palpate the area, his jugular veins become slightly distended. These clinical findings are most suggestive of:
Select one:
a. a bowel obstruction.
b. an aortic aneurysm.
c. fluid in the peritoneum.
d. liver inflammation.

Answer 17

d. liver inflammation.

Question 18

A 23-year-old female called EMS because of a sudden onset of abdominal pain. During your assessment, you ask her to point to the area of her abdomen that is painful. She encircles a large area of her left lower quadrant with her finger. You would describe this patient's pain as being:
Select one:
a. referred.
b. focal.
c. radiating.
d. diffuse.

Answer 18

d. diffuse.

Question 19

All of the following elements are essential to the AEMT’s critical-thinking ability, except:
Select one:
a. comparing a patient’s complaint to past experiences with similar patients.
b. an understanding of how injuries and illnesses affect the human body.
c. using extraneous data to formulate an appropriate patient care plan.
d. the ability to differentiate between relevant and irrelevant information.

Answer 19

c. using extraneous data to formulate an appropriate patient care plan.

Question 20

Which of the following statements regarding clinical decision making is correct?
Select one:
a. Recalling bad experiences is dangerous and can interfere with your ability to manage the current situation.
b. Effective clinical decision making is based solely on your ability to gather and evaluate patient information.
c. The treatment plan that you formulate for a given patient is based on clinical findings in the primary assessment.
d. Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a patient’s condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care.

Answer 20

d. Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a patient’s condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care.

Question 21

Which of the following injuries or conditions would have the lowest treatment priority during the primary survey?
Select one:
a. Open deformity to the left lower leg with moderate venous bleeding
b. Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding
c. Respirations of 26 breaths/min with markedly reduced tidal volume
d. Secretions in the upper airway and an irregular pattern of breathing

Answer 21

b. Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding

Question 22

Trending a critically injured patient’s vital signs will allow you to determine:
Select one:
a. whether or not a rapid head-to-toe assessment is indicated.
b. if the patient’s condition is stabilizing or deteriorating.
c. whether or not transport to a trauma center is necessary.
d. the underlying injuries that are making the patient unstable.

Answer 22

b. if the patient’s condition is stabilizing or deteriorating.

Question 23

A 21-year-old male complains of acute shortness of breath with sharp chest pain during inspiration. You auscultate his lungs and hear a grating sound over the left lower lobe during inspiration. This patient's clinical presentation is most likely caused by:
Select one:
a. perforation of the lung.
b. a tear in the pleural lining.
c. excessive pleural fluid.
d. pleural inflammation.

Answer 23

d. pleural inflammation.

Question 24

You are assessing the pupils of a patient who was struck in the back of the head. You note that his pupils differ in size by slightly less than 1 mm. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should suspect:
Select one:
a. physiologic anisocoria. 
b. increased intracranial pressure.
c. injury to the pons or medulla.
d. that he ingested an opiate drug.

Answer 24

a. physiologic anisocoria.

Question 25

In general, you should assess the blood pressure in all patients who are at least \_\_\_\_ year(s) of age.
Select one:
a. 1
b. 5
c. 8
d. 3

Answer 25

d. 3

Question 26

The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs by a process of diffusion, in which:
Select one:
a. gas moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
b. gas moves from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration.
c. gases in the cells remain in equal concentration until arterial oxygen levels fall.
d. carbon dioxide is not allowed to move across the pulmonary capillary membrane.

Answer 26

a. gas moves from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.

Question 27

What do snoring respirations in an unconscious patient indicate?
Select one:
a. Blood or other secretions in the upper airway
b. Severe upper airway obstruction from a foreign body
c. Spasm of the larynx and closure of the vocal cords
d. Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue

Answer 27

d. Partial occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue

Question 28

You are treating a 56-year-old man with CPAP. He has a history of congestive heart failure and is experiencing marked respiratory distress. When you reassess him, you note that he is no longer able to follow verbal commands. You should:
Select one:
a. remove the CPAP device and prepare to insert a supraglottic airway.
b. request a paramedic unit because the patient needs to be intubated.
c. discontinue CPAP and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.
d. recheck the mask seal and adjust the amount of PEEP accordingly.

Answer 28

c. discontinue CPAP and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Question 29

In contrast to the dorsal respiratory group, the ventral respiratory group is:
Select one:
a. anatomically located within the pons and functions by terminating the inspiratory phase.
b. responsible for initiating inspiration based on the information received from the chemoreceptors.
c. primarily responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles.
d. controlled by the phrenic nerve, which innervates the diaphragm muscle and allows it to contract.

Answer 29

c. primarily responsible for motor control of the inspiratory and expiratory muscles.

Question 30

What protective function does the Hering-Breuer reflex serve?
Select one:
a. It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.
b. It prevents atrophy of the respiratory muscles.
c. It protects the abdominal organs when the diaphragm descends.
d. It prevents collapse of the alveoli.

Answer 30

a. It prevents overexpansion of the lungs.

Question 31

You respond to a call for an unconscious person. Upon arriving at the scene, you find an unconscious young male lying in a prone position in his front yard. After taking standard precautions, you should:
Select one:
a. roll the patient into a supine position, without twisting his body, and open his airway.
b. maintain control of his c-spine and open his airway while he is in the prone position.
c. assess the quality of the patient’s breathing by looking for rise and fall of his back.
d. apply 100% supplemental oxygen and perform a quick primary assessment.

Answer 31

a. roll the patient into a supine position, without twisting his body, and open his airway.

Question 32

A 40-year-old male is unconscious, has inadequate breathing, and is producing copious, continuous secretions from his mouth. This situation is most effectively managed by:
Select one:
a. continuously suctioning until the secretions are cleared.
b. continuous ventilation until the patient can be intubated.
c. ventilating for 30 seconds and suctioning for 2 minutes.
d. suctioning for 15 seconds and ventilating for 2 minutes.

Answer 32

d. suctioning for 15 seconds and ventilating for 2 minutes.

Question 33

After inserting a King LT airway, you attach the bag-mask device and begin to ventilate the patient. However, you meet resistance with your initial ventilation attempts. You should:
Select one:
a. withdraw the device slightly until ventilations are easy.
b. remove the device and resume bag-mask ventilations.
c. ventilate with greater force until resistance is not felt.
d. deflate the cuffs and advance the device 2 cm further.

Answer 33

a. withdraw the device slightly until ventilations are easy.

Question 34

Partial pressure is the term used to describe the amount of gas that is:
Select one:
a. exchanged in the lungs.
b. in venous blood.
c. dissolved in fluid. 
d. in arterial blood.

Answer 34

c. dissolved in fluid.

Question 35

When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract:
Select one:
a. atmospheric pressure draws air out of the lungs.
b. atmospheric pressure exceeds intrapulmonary pressure.
c. intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure.
d. intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal.

Answer 35

c. intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure.

Question 36

In order for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to be beneficial, the patient must:
Select one:
a. have a slow respiratory rate.
b. be able to follow commands. 
c. not have a history of asthma.
d. weigh more than 110 pounds.

Answer 36

b. be able to follow commands.

Question 37

CPAP produces all of the following physiologic effects, except:
Select one:
a. opening collapsed alveoli and improving respiration.
b. dispersing thick secretions within the lung tissue.
c. forcing interstitial fluid into the pulmonary circulation.
d. pushing more oxygen across the alveolar membrane.

Answer 37

b. dispersing thick secretions within the lung tissue.

Question 38

. If the brain is deprived of oxygen for 4 to 6 minutes:
Select one:
a. respiratory arrest is irreversible.
b. anoxic brain injury may occur.
c. mild tissue hypoxia occurs.
d. the patient will die.

Answer 38

b. anoxic brain injury may occur.

Question 39

Which of the following statements regarding the nonrebreathing mask is incorrect?
Select one:
a. It increases a patient’s tidal volume.
b. It delivers passive oxygen to the patient.
c. It can deliver an FiO2 of up to 90%.
d. It is of no benefit to an apneic patient.

Answer 39

a. It increases a patient’s tidal volume.

Question 40

The preferred initial method for ventilating an apneic patient is the:
Select one:
a. mouth-to-mask with one-way valve.
b. manually triggered ventilation device.
c. bag-mask device with two rescuers.
d. bag-mask device with one rescuer.

Answer 40

c. bag-mask device with two rescuers.

Question 41

Which of the following is a sign that CPAP is improving your patient's clinical status?
Select one:
a. Increase in heart rate
b. Decrease in respiratory rate 
c. The patient becoming combative
d. Increase in respiratory rate

Answer 41

b. Decrease in respiratory rate

Question 42

Chemoreceptors send messages to the brain to increase respirations when the:
Select one:
a. pH of the cerebrospinal fluid increases.
b. arterial oxygen levels increase.
c. arterial carbon dioxide levels increase.
d. arterial blood pressure falls.

Answer 42

c. arterial carbon dioxide levels increase.

Question 43

A supraglottic airway device:
Select one:
a. protects the airway better than an ET tube.
b. does not enter the trachea or esophagus.
c. eliminates the risk of aspiration.
d. features two separate lumens.

Answer 43

b. does not enter the trachea or esophagus.

Question 44

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when:
Select one:
a. blood entering the lungs from the right side of the heart is hyperoxygenated.
b. nonfunctional alveoli inhibit the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
c. a blockage in the pulmonary artery prevents blood from reaching the lungs.
d. blood returning to the left side of the heart is low in carbon dioxide.

Answer 44

b. nonfunctional alveoli inhibit the diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide.

Question 45

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) increases when:
Select one:
a. a patient is hyperventilated with a bag-mask device.
b. a person’s respiratory rate is significantly increased.
c. carbon dioxide moves across the pulmonary capillaries.
d. excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma.

Answer 45

d. excessive carbon dioxide is dissolved in the plasma

Question 46

The condition in which the alveoli collapse is called:
Select one:
a. pneumothorax.
b. atelectasis. 
c. pleuritis.
d. bronchitis.

Answer 46

b. atelectasis.

Question 47

When using CPAP on a patient with respiratory distress, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
a. it often takes at least 10 to 15 minutes before clinical improvement is noted.
b. the patient’s condition is such that he or she will likely need to be intubated.
c. most patients being treated with CPAP experience hypotension at some point.
d. you are not treating the underlying cause of the patient’s respiratory distress.

Answer 47

d. you are not treating the underlying cause of the patient’s respiratory distress.

Question 48

Following severe head trauma, a patient presents with an irregular rate, pattern, and depth of breathing with brief periods of apnea. This breathing pattern is characteristic of:
Select one:
a. Biot's respirations.
b. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.
c. agonal respirations.
d. central neurogenic hyperventilation.

Answer 48

a. Biot’s respirations.

Question 49

A stoma, located superior to the suprasternal notch, is the resultant orifice following a:
Select one:
a. cricothyrotomy.
b. tracheostomy. 
c. thyroidectomy.
d. laryngectomy.

Answer 49

b. tracheostomy.

Question 50

Unresponsive patients most often experience airway obstructions from:
Select one:
a. loose dentures that fall back into the posterior pharynx.
b. foreign bodies, such as food, that block the glottic opening.
c. coagulated blood or thick mucus in the mouth.
d. occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue.

Answer 50

d. occlusion of the posterior pharynx by the tongue.

Question 51

Stimulation of beta1 receptors causes a positive inotropic effect, resulting in:
Select one:
a. increased conduction velocity in the heart.
b. dilation of the bronchioles in the lungs.
c. an increased heart rate.
d. increased cardiac contractility.

Answer 51

d. increased cardiac contractility.

Question 52

Rapid isotonic crystalloid boluses in a patient with cardiogenic shock would most likely result in:
Select one:
a. congestion of blood in the lungs. 
b. decreased right atrial preload.
c. hypertension and possible stroke.
d. a sudden cardiac dysrhythmia.

Answer 52

a. congestion of blood in the lungs.

Question 53

Which of the following statements regarding central chemoreceptors is correct?
Select one:
a. The chemoreceptors are located primarily in the adrenal medulla and aorta.
b. They stimulate an increase in respirations when arterial PaCO2 is decreased.
c. Chemoreceptors adjust blood pressure by sensing changes in arterial pressure.
d. They adjust respirations based on arterial PaCO2 and PO2 levels.

Answer 53

d. They adjust respirations based on arterial PaCO2 and PO2 levels.

Question 54

Signs and symptoms of multiple-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) include:
Select one:
a. tachycardia and dyspnea. 
b. hypertension and bradycardia.
c. excessive urination and fever.
d. marked hypothermia.

Answer 54

a. tachycardia and dyspnea.

Question 55

When cellular perfusion is diminished:
Select one:
a. decreased lactic acid production causes the pH to fall significantly, resulting in alkalosis.
b. the precapillary sphincters constrict in response to lactic acid buildup and vasomotor failure.
c. the cells convert to aerobic metabolism, the byproducts of which are carbon dioxide and water.
d. the postcapillary sphincters remain constricted, causing the capillaries to engorge with fluid.

Answer 55

d. the postcapillary sphincters remain constricted, causing the capillaries to engorge with fluid.

Question 56

A patient who presents with hypotension, jugular venous distention, and a rapid irregular pulse should be suspected of experiencing:
Select one:
a. distributive shock.
b. obstructive shock. 
c. hypovolemic shock.
d. neurogenic shock.

Answer 56

b. obstructive shock.

Question 57

A patient in shock is experiencing tachycardia, among other signs. What physiologic response causes tachycardia during times of decreased perfusion?
Select one:
a. Beta1 receptor stimulation 
b. Beta2 receptor stimulation
c. Alpha2 receptor stimulation
d. Alpha1 receptor stimulation

Answer 57

a. Beta1 receptor stimulation

Question 58

When injury occurs to tissues in the healthy human body:
Select one:
a. blood vessels near the injury site dilate.
b. red blood cells are less able to clump.
c. platelets aggregate at the site of the injury.
d. the breakdown of fibrinogen forms a clot.

Answer 58

c. platelets aggregate at the site of the injury.

Question 59

In most people, a systolic BP of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is sufficient to perfuse the brain and other vital organs.
Select one:
a. 70–80 mm Hg
b. 80–90 mm Hg 
c. greater than 100 mm Hg
d. 90–100 mm Hg

Answer 59

b. 80–90 mm Hg

Question 60

When treating a patient with severe bleeding, you must:
Select one:
a. give high-flow oxygen.
b. obtain frequent vital signs.
c. transport promptly.
d. take standard precautions.

Answer 60

d. take standard precautions.

Question 61

You are dispatched to a football game, where a spectator fell approximately 20 feet from the stands. As you approach the patient, you can see that he has obvious bilateral femur fractures and is not moving. Your initial action should be to:
Select one:
a. begin assisting his ventilations.
b. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.
c. open his airway and assess his breathing.
d. stabilize his legs to prevent further injury.

Answer 61

c. open his airway and assess his breathing.

Question 62

Cellular ischemia results in anaerobic metabolism. What occurs during this process?
Select one:
a. Postcapillary sphincters dilate, causing a release of CO2 from the cells.
b. Blood stagnates in the capillaries and lactic acid is produced.
c. Precapillary sphincters constrict in response to decreased perfusion.
d. Lactic acid is rapidly produced and results in metabolic alkalosis.

Answer 62

b. Blood stagnates in the capillaries and lactic acid is produced.

Question 63

In contrast to afterload, preload is:
Select one:
a. the amount of pressure on the arterial walls at any given time.
b. precontraction pressure caused by blood returning to the heart.
c. the volume of blood that passively fills the ventricles.
d. the force or resistance against which the heart must pump

Answer 63

b. precontraction pressure caused by blood returning to the heart.

Question 64

The goal of IV fluid replacement for the patient in shock is to:
Select one:
a. facilitate the body’s hemostatic effect.
b. maintain adequate perfusion.
c. rapidly increase the blood pressure.
d. increase the blood’s oxygen-carrying ability.

Answer 64

b. maintain adequate perfusion.

Question 65

After blood diffuses across the capillary membrane and perfuses the cells, it:
Select one:
a. returns carbon dioxide to the left side of the heart, starting with the veins.
b. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules.
c. forms lactic and pyruvic acids that are used by the cells to form energy.
d. drops off carbon dioxide and returns oxygenated blood to the heart.

Answer 65

b. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules.

Question 66

What happens when systemic vascular resistance is decreased?
Select one:
a. A reflex bradycardia occurs.
b. Cardiac output is increased.
c. Systolic blood pressure falls. 
d. Right atrial preload is increased.

Answer 66

c. Systolic blood pressure falls.

Question 67

You receive a call for a 66-year-old female who was found unresponsive by her husband. Your primary survey reveals that the patient is responsive to painful stimuli and has rapid, shallow respirations. Her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg and her pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular. The patient’s husband tells you that she complained of chest pressure the previous day, but would not allow him to call EMS. This patient is:
Select one:
a. experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport.
b. likely experiencing an acute myocardial infection. She requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport.
c. significantly hypovolemic and requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask as well as several crystalloid fluid boluses.
d. in shock due to a cardiac dysrhythmia and requires assisted ventilation as well as a 2-liter bolus of an isotonic crystalloid.

Answer 67

a. experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport.

Question 68

Which of the following physiologic responses occurs during irreversible shock?
Select one:
a. Respiratory rate and depth markedly increase to maintain oxygenation.
b. The sympathetic nervous system vigorously compensates.
c. Blood is shunted from the liver and kidneys to the brain and heart.
d. Arterial blood pressure is maintained by constriction of the vasculature.

Answer 68

c. Blood is shunted from the liver and kidneys to the brain and heart.

Question 69

The pressure in the heart immediately before a contraction is called the:
Select one:
a. cardiac output.
b. preload. 
c. stroke volume.
d. afterload.

Answer 69

b. preload.

Question 70

A 50-year-old female with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea complains of intense thirst and generalized weakness. Her blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg and her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and thready. Which of the following interventions would not be appropriate for her?
Select one:
a. Thermal management
b. 20 mL/kg boluses of normal saline
c. Salt-containing solutions by mouth 
d. 100% supplemental oxygen

Answer 70

c. Salt-containing solutions by mouth

Question 71

What is the pulse pressure of a patient with a blood pressure of 104/58 mm Hg?
Select one:
a. 23 mm Hg
b. 81 mm Hg
c. 162 mm Hg
d. 46 mm Hg

Answer 71

d. 46 mm Hg

Question 72

What physiologic response would be expected to occur if a patient’s systolic blood pressure dropped below 80 mm Hg?
Select one:
a. Increased baroreceptor stimulation and subsequent vasodilation
b. Inhibition of the vasomotor center and subsequent vasodilation
c. An inhibitory response from the sympathetic nervous system
d. Vasomotor stimulation with resultant arterial vasoconstriction

Answer 72

d. Vasomotor stimulation with resultant arterial vasoconstriction

Question 73

Baroreceptors, which are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses, help regulate blood pressure by:
Select one:
a. monitoring the contractile state of the myocardium.
b. sensing the levels of oxygen in the arterial blood.
c. stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system.
d. sensing changes in systemic vascular resistance.

Answer 73

d. sensing changes in systemic vascular resistance.

Question 74

Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is:
Select one:
a. solely dependent on systemic vascular resistance.
b. the blood pressure required to sustain organ perfusion.
c. calculated by multiplying heart rate by stroke volume.
d. between 30 and 40 mm Hg in the average person.

Answer 74

b. the blood pressure required to sustain organ perfusion.

Question 75

Which of the following organs is the most tolerant of low blood flow?
Select one:
a. Brain
b. Skin 
c. Lungs
d. Heart

Answer 75

b. Skin

Question 76

Long-term control of blood pressure is regulated by the:
Select one:
a. vasomotor center.
b. renal system. 
c. cardiovascular system.
d. respiratory system.

Answer 76

b. renal system.

Question 77

Anaerobic metabolism is a condition of the cell that results in:
Select one:
a. carbon dioxide elimination, increased blood pH, and metabolic alkalosis.
b. lactic acid destruction, increased blood pH, and metabolic alkalosis.
c. lactic acid production, decreased blood pH, and metabolic acidosis.
d. carbon dioxide production, decreased blood pH, and respiratory acidosis.

Answer 77

c. lactic acid production, decreased blood pH, and metabolic acidosis.

Question 78

Which of the following assessment findings would be the least reliable indicator of inadequate perfusion?
Select one:
a. Diaphoresis and pallor
b. Altered mental status
c. Weak radial pulses
d. BP of 104/60 mm Hg

Answer 78

d. BP of 104/60 mm Hg

Question 79

What is the pathophysiology of psychogenic shock?
Select one:
a. Syncope due to a psychiatric condition
b. Shifting of fluid within the vascular space
c. An acute, but temporary, decrease in heart rate
d. Temporary, generalized vascular dilation

Answer 79

d. Temporary, generalized vascular dilation

Question 80

Ventilating a patient too fast or with too much volume would most likely cause:
Select one:
a. retention of carbon dioxide in the body.
b. an increase in coronary perfusion.
c. decreased blood return to the heart.
d. a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

Answer 80

c. decreased blood return to the heart.

Question 81

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month-old infant?
Select one:
a. 90
b. 120 
c. 100
d. 110

Answer 81

b. 120

Question 82

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant involves:
Select one:
a. blind finger sweeps.
b. back blows. 
c. high-flow oxygen.
d. abdominal thrusts.

Answer 82

b. back blows.

Question 83

A 29-year-old woman, who is 35 weeks pregnant, is in cardiac arrest. You should:
Select one:
a. manually displace her uterus to the left.
b. perform chest compressions at a faster rate.
c. defibrillate only one time with the AED.
d. deliver each rescue breath over 2 to 3 seconds.

Answer 83

a. manually displace her uterus to the left.

Question 84

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ artery.
Select one:
a. radial
b. brachial 
c. temporal
d. carotid

Answer 84

b. brachial

Question 85

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:
Select one:
a. has a pulse but is unconscious and breathing shallowly.
b. is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately.
c. is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately.
d. has experienced trauma but is breathing effectively.

Answer 85

c. is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately.

Question 86

Signs of a sudden severe upper airway obstruction include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. forceful coughing.
b. grasping the throat.
c. acute cyanosis.
d. inability to speak.

Answer 86

a. forceful coughing.

Question 87

After an advanced airway device has been inserted during cardiac arrest, you should ventilate an infant or child:
Select one:
a. with greater force to enhance chest compressions.
b. at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.
c. by giving one breath every 3 seconds.
d. by giving one breath every 6 seconds.

Answer 87

d. by giving one breath every 6 seconds.

Question 88

You should deliver chest compressions to an adult patient in cardiac arrest by:
Select one:
a. depressing the sternum between 1” and 2”.
b. compressing quickly and releasing slowly.
c. compressing over the lower half of the sternum.
d. placing the heel of your hand on the xiphoid.

Answer 88

c. compressing over the lower half of the sternum.

Question 89

Which of the following is not a BLS intervention?
Select one:
a. Automated defibrillation
b. Cardiac monitoring 
c. Abdominal thrusts
d. Chest compressions

Answer 89

b. Cardiac monitoring

Question 90

After an advanced airway has been inserted during two-rescuer CPR, you should:
Select one:
a. pause compressions to deliver ventilations.
b. deliver ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.
c. decrease the compression rate to about 80 per minute.
d. increase rescue breathing to a rate of 12 breaths/min.

Answer 90

b. deliver ventilations at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.

Question 91

A 55-year-old man is found unresponsive in his bed. He is pulseless and apneic. You should:
Select one:
a. insert an oral airway adjunct.
b. move the patient to the floor. 
c. apply the AED immediately.
d. begin chest compressions.

Answer 91

b. move the patient to the floor.

Question 92

You and your partner arrive at the side of a 60-year-old woman who suddenly collapsed about 7 minutes ago. She is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should:
Select one:
a. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.
b. begin CPR at a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2.
c. apply the AED if there is no response after 10 cycles of CPR.
d. immediately apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.

Answer 92

a. begin CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

Question 93

During cardiac arrest, the resuscitation team should maintain a chest compression fraction of at least:
Select one:
a. 80%.
b. 70%.
c. 60%. 
d. 50%.
Feedback
The correct answer is: 60%

Answer 93

c. 60%.

Question 94

The fourth link in the chain of survival includes:
Select one:
a. postarrest care in the hospital.
b. immediate high-quality CPR.
c. activation of the EMS system.
d. basic and advanced EMS care.

Answer 94

d. basic and advanced EMS care.