EMS Operations Ch 39 40 41 42 Flashcards
1
Q
Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, except:
Select one:
a. transferring the patient to the ambulance.
b. checking equipment on the ambulance.
c. emergency care provided at the scene.
d. transport of the patient to the hospital.
A
c. emergency care provided at the scene.
2
Q
Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.
b. assigning tasks to each member of the response team.
c. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher.
d. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
A
d. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
3
Q
The main objective of traffic control at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is to:
Select one:
a. facilitate a route for the media to access the scene.
b. prevent curious onlookers from observing the scene.
c. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
d. get oncoming traffic past the scene as soon as possible.
A
c. warn oncoming traffic and prevent another crash.
4
Q
When transporting a patient to the hospital, you should:
Select one:
a. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.
b. secure the patient to the ambulance stretcher with at least two straps.
c. place the patient on a long backboard, even if no trauma is involved.
d. generally exceed the posted speed limit by 10 to 20 mph.
A
a. be safe and get the patient to the hospital in the shortest practical time.
5
Q
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except:
Select one:
a. informing the dispatcher of your arrival.
b. completing a detailed written report.
c. restocking any disposable items you used.
d. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.
A
d. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.
6
Q
You have just delivered a major trauma patient to the hospital. Shortly after departing the hospital, dispatch advises you of another call. The back of the ambulance is contaminated with bloody dressings and is in disarray, and you are in need of airway equipment and numerous other supplies. You should:
Select one:
a. proceed to the call, functioning only as an emergency medical responder.
b. quickly proceed to the call and clean and restock the ambulance afterwards.
c. have your partner quickly clean the ambulance as you proceed to the call.
d. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
A
d. advise the dispatcher that you are out of service and to send another unit.
7
Q
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: a. sterilization. b. high-level disinfection. c. cleaning. d. disinfection.
A
c. cleaning.
8
Q
After assessing your patient, you determine that his condition is stable. You provide the appropriate treatment and then load him into the ambulance. While en route to the hospital, you should:
Select one:
a. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.
b. use your lights and siren but drive slowly and defensively.
c. keep your emergency lights on but avoid using the siren.
d. drive slowly and remain in the far left-hand lane, if possible.
A
a. turn your emergency lights off and obey all traffic laws.
9
Q
Upon arriving at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash at night, you find that the safest place to park your ambulance is in a direction that is facing oncoming traffic. You should: Select one: a. turn your headlights off. b. place a flare near the crash. c. turn all warning lights off. d. quickly access the patient.
A
a. turn your headlights off.
10
Q
Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance meANSWER:
Select one:
a. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph.
b. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient’s condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway.
c. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror’s blind spots.
d. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side.
A
c. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror’s blind spots.
11
Q
When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should:
Select one:
a. increase your speed to create more distance.
b. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
c. stop the ambulance and confront the driver.
d. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater.
A
b. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.
12
Q
Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance? Select one: a. Vest-style extrication device b. Stethoscope and penlight c. Emergency childbirth kit d. Bleeding control supplies
A
d. Bleeding control supplies
13
Q
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance:
Select one:
a. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance.
b. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way.
c. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.
d. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
A
d. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
14
Q
While using lights and siren, most state laws permit an ambulance to:
Select one:
a. proceed through red lights without stopping.
b. carefully exceed the posted speed limit.
c. disregard all traffic control signals.
d. drive as fast as the department allows.
A
b. carefully exceed the posted speed limit.
15
Q
While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should:
Select one:
a. back up and take an alternate route to the scene.
b. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side.
c. pass the bus only after all the children have exited.
d. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
A
d. stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.
16
Q
Your unit and a fire department vehicle are responding to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest. As you approach an intersection that is highly congested, you should:
Select one:
a. ask the fire department vehicle to remain 1,000 feet behind you.
b. use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle.
c. advise the fire department vehicle to follow you closely.
d. turn off your lights and siren and proceed with safety.
A
b. use a different siren tone than the fire department vehicle.
17
Q
In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when:
Select one:
a. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient’s present condition is stable.
b. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes.
c. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation.
d. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.
A
d. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care.
18
Q
When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should:
Select one:
a. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
b. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5 to 6 feet from the ground.
c. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.
d. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise.
A
a. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
19
Q
Which of the following is an example of regional equipment or supplies? Select one: a. Bronchodilator b. Snake bite kit c. Oral glucose d. Vacuum splint
A
b. Snake bite kit
20
Q
Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least \_\_\_\_ mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. Select one: a. 200 b. 300 c. 400 d. 100
A
b. 300
21
Q
A portable oxygen cylinder should have a capacity of a minimum of \_\_\_\_ of oxygen. Select one: a. 500 L b. 250 L c. 750 L d. 1,000 L
A
a. 500 L
22
Q
A disposable oxygen humidifier should be considered for ambulance services that often transport patients on runs longer than: Select one: a. 3 hours. b. 4 hours. c. 2 hours. d. 1 hour.
A
d. 1 hour.
23
Q
The purpose of a jump kit is to:
Select one:
a. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
b. facilitate defibrillation within 5 minutes after making patient contact.
c. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.
d. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director.
A
a. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.
24
Q
When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should not use: Select one: a. road flares. b. intermittent flashing devices. c. portable floodlights. d. reflective vests.
A
a. road flares.
25
```
For every emergency request, the dispatcher should routinely gather and record all of the following information, except the:
Select one:
a. nature of the call.
b. caller's phone number.
c. location of the patient(s).
d. patient's medical history.
```
d. patient's medical history.
26
When functioning at the scene of a motor vehicle crash in which a patient will require complex extrication, you should enter the vehicle and provide care to the patient:
Select one:
a. only if the patient has experienced a major injury.
b. only after you believe the vehicle has been stabilized.
c. after rescue personnel have cut the battery cables.
d. after receiving approval from the extrication leader.
d. after receiving approval from the extrication leader.
27
```
The process of removing or neutralizing and properly disposing of a hazardous material is called:
Select one:
a. neutralization.
b. chemical containment.
c. antidotal treatment.
d. decontamination.
```
d. decontamination.
28
A 49-year-old man has been removed from his overturned tanker, which was carrying a hazardous material. The tank ruptured and he was exposed to the material. When rescue personnel bring him to the decontamination area, they note that he is unconscious and has slow, shallow breathing. They should:
Select one:
a. defer the decontamination procedure and bring the patient directly to awaiting EMS personnel for immediate treatment.
b. decontaminate the patient as they would any other patient and then move him to the area where EMTs are waiting.
c. cut away all of the patient's clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.
d. request that EMS personnel don standard precautions, enter the warm zone, and begin immediate treatment of the patient.
c. cut away all of the patient's clothing and do a rapid rinse to remove as much of the contaminating matter as they can.
29
After recognizing that an incident involves a hazardous material, you should contact the hazardous materials team and then:
Select one:
a. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others.
b. not allow anyone within 25 to 50 feet of the incident scene.
c. don standard equipment before gaining access to any patients.
d. identify the chemical using the Emergency Response Guidebook.
a. take measures to ensure the safety of yourself and others.
30
```
Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs?
Select one:
a. Nonflammable gases
b. Air-reactive solids
c. Flammable liquids
d. Water-reactive solids
```
d. Water-reactive solids
31
You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state “We have located a victim” over the radio. You should:
Select one:
a. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.
b. immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located.
c. notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility.
d. locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance.
a. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.
32
Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then:
Select one:
a. locate all injured personnel and begin treatment.
b. apprise medical control of the tactical situation.
c. report to the incident commander for instructions.
d. begin immediate triage of any injured personnel.
c. report to the incident commander for instructions.
33
You are standing by at the scene of a hostage situation when the incident commander advises you that one of his personnel has been shot. The patient is lying supine in an open area and is not moving. As the SWAT team escorts you to the patient, you should:
Select one:
a. limit your primary assessment to airway and breathing only.
b. treat only critical injuries before moving him to a safe place.
c. perform a rapid assessment and move him to a place of safety.
d. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
d. grab him by the clothes and immediately move him to safety.
34
A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20 feet from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The most appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to:
Select one:
a. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device.
b. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.
c. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him.
d. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.
b. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.
35
A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should:
Select one:
a. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.
b. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.
c. stabilize her condition before extrication begins.
d. secure her with a short backboard or vest device.
a. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.
36
```
Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is:
Select one:
a. surveying the area for hazards.
b. gaining access to the patient(s).
c. requesting additional resources.
d. immediately beginning triage.
```
a. surveying the area for hazards.
37
A unique consideration when dealing with a hybrid vehicle is that:
Select one:
a. cutting the battery cables often results in an explosion or fire.
b. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery.
c. rescue teams should disconnect the positive battery cable first.
d. you must locate the ignition switch and cut it to prevent a fire.
b. the battery has higher amperes than a traditional vehicle battery.
38
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident:
Select one:
a. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.
b. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry.
c. should be performed by the most experienced AEMT.
d. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
d. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
39
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you can see three patients—one who is entrapped in his car and two who have been ejected from their vehicle. You should:
Select one:
a. immediately request additional resources.
b. begin triage to determine injury severity.
c. request law enforcement for traffic control.
d. call medical control for further direction.
a. immediately request additional resources.
40
```
________ is defined as the ability to reach the patient.
Select one:
a. Rescue
b. Disentanglement
c. Extrication
d. Access
```
d. Access
41
Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team?
Select one:
a. Initial triage and patient prioritization
b. Providing emergency care during extrication
c. Providing safe entry and access to patients
d. Shutting off power to downed electrical lines
c. Providing safe entry and access to patients
42
Common duties and responsibilities of EMS personnel at the scene of a motor vehicle crash include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. assigning all patients a triage category.
b. keeping bystanders at a safe distance.
c. preparing all patients for transportation.
d. continual assessment of critical patients.
b. keeping bystanders at a safe distance.
43
When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. the possibility of vehicle instability.
b. the make and model of the vehicle.
c. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers.
d. the position of the crashed vehicle.
b. the make and model of the vehicle.
44
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should:
Select one:
a. request the rescue team to extricate him.
b. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.
c. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
d. break the window and unlock the door.
c. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
45
A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unconscious, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should:
Select one:
a. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
b. stabilize her fractured femurs with traction splints.
c. obtain baseline vital signs and transport at once.
d. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
a. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance.
46
Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team?
Select one:
a. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
b. An obese patient who must be moved to the ambulance
c. A patient found floating face down in a swimming pool
d. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped
a. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space
47
```
Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot.
Select one:
a. 200 lb
b. 50 lb
c. 100 lb
d. 150 lb
```
c. 100 lb
48
Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should:
Select one:
a. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle.
b. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
c. set up a staging area where fire fighters can be treated if necessary.
d. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation.
b. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged.
49
```
Which of your senses can be safely used to identify a hazardous materials (hazmat) incident?
Select one:
a. Sound and smell
b. Sight and sound
c. Smell and sight
d. Sight and touch
```
b. Sight and sound
50
You are approaching an overturned tanker truck to assess the driver, who appears to be unconscious. As you get closer to the vehicle, you note the smell of noxious fumes and find that you are in the midst of a vapor cloud. What should you do?
Select one:
a. Cover your face with your shirt and quickly extricate the injured driver.
b. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the hazmat team.
c. Remain where you are and perform a visual assessment of the patient.
d. Realize that you are in the danger zone and prevent others from entering.
b. Exit the area immediately and gather information for the hazmat team.
51
Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of:
Select one:
a. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel.
b. the federal government to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism.
c. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team.
d. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.
d. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.
52
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the treatment supervisor?
Select one:
a. Communication with the medical branch director
b. Patient packaging
c. Secondary triage
d. Primary assessment
d. Primary assessment
53
When victims involved in a mass-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area:
Select one:
a. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made.
b. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.
c. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries.
d. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.
d. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.
54
```
The ________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities.
Select one:
a. triage
b. medical
c. treatment
d. transportation
```
d. transportation
55
Which of the following most accurately describes a mass-casualty incident?
Select one:
a. An incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials
b. An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources
c. An incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients
d. An incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured
b. An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources
56
You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene, and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should:
Select one:
a. direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport.
b. assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.
c. transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center.
d. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.
d. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.
57
In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to:
Select one:
a. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable.
b. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.
c. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries.
d. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status.
b. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.
58
Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category?
Select one:
a. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding
b. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities
c. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis
d. 36-year-old female with an open brain injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate
c. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis
59
```
A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, should be triaged with a ________ tag during a mass-casualty incident.
Select one:
a. yellow
b. black
c. red
d. green
```
a. yellow
60
You and your partner arrive at the scene where a truck has crashed into a small building, injuring eight people. You immediately request additional ambulances and begin the triage process. The first patient that you triage is a young female who is unconscious and apneic. She has an open head injury and her pulse is weak and thready. You should:
Select one:
a. assess the severity of her open head injury.
b. place a red tag on her and continue triaging.
c. assign her a low priority and continue triaging.
d. begin ventilating her with a bag-mask device.
c. assign her a low priority and continue triaging.
61
According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing?
Select one:
a. Ventilate the patient for 2 minutes and reassess.
b. Open the airway and reassess breathing status.
c. Triage the patient as “expectant” and move on.
d. Assign the patient in the “immediate” category.
b. Open the airway and reassess breathing status.
62
The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to:
Select one:
a. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale mass-casualty incidents and to restore key infrastructure.
b. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.
c. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impact from such incidents.
d. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity of the incident.
b. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.
63
```
According to the START triage system, what should you do if a patient is found to have a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min?
Select one:
a. Assess his or her neurologic status.
b. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
c. Administer high-flow oxygen.
d. Triage the patient as delayed.
```
b. Assess for bilateral radial pulses.
64
While triaging patients at the scene of a building collapse, you encounter a young child who is conscious, alert, and breathing; has bilateral radial pulses; and has a severely angulated leg, which is not bleeding. According to the JumpSTART triage system, you should:
Select one:
a. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.
b. evacuate him to a designated area and assign him a minimal (green) category.
c. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain baseline vital signs, and continue triaging.
d. quickly bind his legs together to stabilize the fracture, and continue triaging.
a. assign him a delayed (yellow) category and continue triaging the other patients.
65
The first step in the START triage system is to:
Select one:
a. scan the area for patients with severe bleeding.
b. get a quick head count of all the patients involved.
c. move all walking patients to a designated area.
d. focus on the patients who are unconscious.
c. move all walking patients to a designated area.
66
You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category?
Select one:
a. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities
b. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse
c. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities
d. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing
d. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing
67
After primary triage, the triage supervisor should communicate all of the following information to the medical branch officer, except:
Select one:
a. recommendations for movement to the treatment area.
b. the total number of patients that have been triaged.
c. the recommended transport destination for each patient. Correct
d. the number of patients that are in each triage category.
c. the recommended transport destination for each patient.
68
A critical function of the safety officer is to:
Select one:
a. determine the most efficient approach to extricate a victim.
b. brief responders during the demobilization phase of an incident.
c. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger. Correct
d. monitor emergency responders for signs of stress and anxiety.
c. stop an emergency operation whenever a rescuer is in danger.
69
During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the IC would most likely:
Select one:
a. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions.
b. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene.
c. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel.
d. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.
d. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.
70
If an incident increases in scope and complexity, the IC should consider:
Select one:
a. requesting a second IC to assist him or her with the incident.
b. ceasing all operations until a revised plan is established.
c. maintaining responsibility for all of the command functions.
d. relinquishing command to someone with more experience.
d. relinquishing command to someone with more experience.
71
```
At a very large incident, the ________ section is responsible for managing the tactical operations usually handled by the IC on routine EMS calls.
Select one:
a. logistics
b. finance
c. planning
d. operations
```
d. operations
72
```
The development of an incident action plan is the responsibility of the:
Select one:
a. planning section.
b. finance section.
c. logistics section.
d. operations section.
```
a. planning section.
73
```
Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been:
Select one:
a. incident briefing.
b. communication.
c. accountability.
d. lack of personnel.
```
b. communication.
74
```
In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency.
Select one:
a. 48-hour
b. 72-hour
c. 24-hour
d. 96-hour
```
b. 72-hour
75
Which of the following statements regarding communications at a disaster or mass-casualty incident is correct?
Select one:
a. If possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic.
b. When possible, all communication should occur via two-way radio.
c. Ten-codes or signals should be used when communicating via radio.
d. Each command group should utilize a separate radio frequency.
a. If possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic.
76
```
In determining the potential for a terrorist attack, you should routinely observe all of the following on every call, except:
Select one:
a. the type of call.
b. patients’ statements.
c. weather conditions.
d. the location type.
```
c. weather conditions.
77
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because:
Select one:
a. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile.
b. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons.
c. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
d. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.
c. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
78
Which of the following statements regarding blast injuries is correct?
Select one:
a. The gastrointestinal tract is the organ system most sensitive to blast injuries and is the leading cause of death following an explosion.
b. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.
c. Tertiary blast injuries are penetrating or nonpenetrating injuries that result from flying debris, such as ordnance projectiles.
d. Solid organs such as the middle ear, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract are the most susceptible to pressure changes.
b. Solid organs are relatively protected from shock wave injury but may be injured during the secondary or tertiary blast phase.
79
```
Pulmonary hemorrhage and inner ear damage are examples of _______ blast injuries.
Select one:
a. tertiary
b. primary
c. secondary
d. miscellaneous
```
b. primary
80
After eating at a local restaurant, a 20-year-old male complains of blurred vision, difficulty speaking, and difficulty breathing. He is conscious; however, his respirations are profoundly labored and producing minimal tidal volume. You should:
Select one:
a. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen.
b. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
c. request a paramedic to administer atropine.
d. position him supine and elevate his legs.
a. assist his ventilations with 100% oxygen.
81
```
You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The most appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to:
Select one:
a. perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations.
b. use a bag-mask device.
c. request a paramedic unit to intubate.
d. perform mouth-to-mask ventilations.
```
b. use a bag-mask device.
82
Multiple people in a small town began experiencing abdominal cramps, excessive salivation and urination, and muscle twitching shortly after a small crop duster plane made several passes over the community. As you are assessing the patients, you further determine that most of them are bradycardic and have miosis. In addition to 100% oxygen, the most important treatment for these patients includes:
Select one:
a. amyl nitrate and naloxone.
b. activated charcoal and glucose.
c. atropine and pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM).
d. epinephrine and hyperbaric oxygen.
c. atropine and pralidoxime chloride (2-PAM).
83
```
When multiple patients present with an acute onset of difficulty breathing, chest tightness, and hoarseness or stridor, you should be most suspicious of exposure to:
Select one:
a. a nerve agent.
b. sarin or soman.
c. a vesicant agent.
d. phosgene or chlorine.
```
d. phosgene or chlorine.
84
```
All of the following are vesicant agents, except:
Select one:
a. sarin.
b. phosgene oxime.
c. sulfur mustard.
d. lewisite.
```
a. sarin.
85
Which of the following statements regarding the persistency and volatility of a chemical agent is correct?
Select one:
a. VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months.
b. Sarin, a powerful nerve agent, is nonvolatile and can remain on a surface for long periods.
c. Sulfur mustard, a vesicant agent, is generally considered to have a low level of persistence.
d. Lewisite, a vesicant agent, is nonvolatile and evaporates quickly in an optimum temperature.
a. VX, a highly persistent nerve agent, can remain in the environment for weeks to months.
86
If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the AEMT should:
Select one:
a. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
b. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones.
c. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.
d. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task.
a. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.
87
```
An attack on an abortion clinic would most likely be carried out by a:
Select one:
a. single-issue group.
b. extremist political group.
c. violent religious group.
d. doomsday cult.
```
a. single-issue group.
88
As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or WMD incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then:
Select one:
a. direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control.
b. carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices.
c. remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene.
d. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.
d. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.
89
Cross-contamination occurs when:
Select one:
a. two AEMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated.
b. an AEMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident.
c. an AEMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated.
d. an AEMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.
d. an AEMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.
90
```
Exposure to _________ would most likely result in immediate respiratory distress.
Select one:
a. lewisite
b. chlorine
c. soman
d. tabun
```
b. chlorine
91
```
Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds?
Select one:
a. Phosgene oxime
b. Hydrogen cyanide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Organophosphates
```
b. Hydrogen cyanide
92
```
Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. body aches.
b. skin blisters.
c. headaches.
d. high fever.
```
b. skin blisters.
93
```
Initial signs and symptoms associated with viral hemorrhagic fevers include:
Select one:
a. headache and sore throat.
b. severe abdominal muscle spasms.
c. joint pain and unequal pupils.
d. acute onset of double vision.
```
a. headache and sore throat.
94
```
Symptoms of both inhaled and ingested ricin include:
Select one:
a. joint pain and bradycardia.
b. fever and headache.
c. liver necrosis and diarrhea.
d. dehydration and convulsions.
```
b. fever and headache.
95
Which of the following statements regarding a “dirty bomb” is correct?
Select one:
a. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits.
b. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
c. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.
d. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile.
b. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
