Unit 2 Quizzes Flashcards
1
Q
Cells or organs that selectively remove, concentrate, or alter materials in the blood and then secrete them back into the body are called: Select one: a. glands. b. neurotransmitters. c. hormones. d. neoplasms.
A
a. glands.
2
Q
The ilium is defined as the: Select one: a. lower part of the small intestine. b. bony prominence of the pelvis. c. ligament that overlies the femoral vessels. d. structure that overlies the bladder.
A
b. bony prominence of the pelvis.
3
Q
When oxygen levels are low or absent, the cells revert to a process of: Select one: a. anaerobic anabolism. b. anaerobic metabolism. c. aerobic metabolism. d. aerobic catabolism.
A
b. anaerobic metabolism.
4
Q
All of the following are voluntary muscles, except: Select one: a. striated muscle. b. skeletal muscle. c. somatic muscle. d. smooth muscle.
A
d. smooth muscle.
5
Q
The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called: Select one: a. endocytosis. b. diffusion. c. exocytosis. d. osmosis.
A
b. diffusion
6
Q
The second heart sound (S2) represents: Select one: a. closure of the aortic valve. b. closure of the semilunar valves. c. closure of the atrioventricular valves. d. closure of the pulmonic valve.
A
b. closure of the semilunar valves.
7
Q
The respiratory center of the brain is located in the: Select one: a. medulla. b. cerebellum. c. cerebrum. d. hypothalamus.
A
a. medulla.
8
Q
Detoxification of toxic substances, production of bile, and production of certain clotting factors are all functions of the: Select one: a. pancreas. b. liver. c. kidneys. d. gallbladder.
A
b. liver.
9
Q
The most common solvent in the body, in which solutes or other substances will dissolve, is: Select one: a. water. b. bile. c. blood. d. plasma.
A
a. water.
10
Q
The hypoxic drive, a backup system to control breathing, is stimulated when: Select one: a. arterial PaO2 levels decrease. b. arterial PaCO2 levels decrease. c. arterial PaO2 levels increase. d. arterial PaCO2 levels increase.
A
a. arterial PaO2 levels decrease.
11
Q
Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that:
Select one:
a. is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation.
b. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.
c. is moved in or out of the lungs following maximal expiration.
d. remains in the lungs following expiration.
A
b. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath.
12
Q
How do the blood vessels of the skin respond to cold temperatures?
Select one:
a. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin
b. Constriction, which pulls blood to the skin’s surface
c. Dilation, which diverts blood away from the skin
d. Dilation, which pulls blood to the skin’s surface
A
a. Constriction, which diverts blood away from the skin
13
Q
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) targets the adrenal cortex and causes it to secrete: Select one: a. adrenaline. b. cortisol c. calcitonin. d. antidiuretic hormone.
A
b. cortisol
14
Q
Chemicals that become ionic conductors when dissolved in water are called: Select one: a. ions. b. exocytes. c. endocytes. d. electrolytes.
A
d. electrolytes.
15
Q
The movement of a substance against a concentration or gradient, such as the cell membrane, is called: Select one: a. crenation. b. osmosis. c. facilitated diffusion. d. active transport.
A
d. active transport.
16
Q
In response to shock or stress, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes: Select one: a. increased gastrointestinal function. b. vasoconstriction. c. shunting of blood to the extremities. d. slowing of the heart rate.
A
b. vasoconstriction.
17
Q
Phagocytosis is the process by which: Select one: a. phagocytes are destroyed. b. monocytes digest microbes. c. phagocytes are produced. d. microbes destroy monocytes.
A
b. monocytes digest microbes.
18
Q
Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to see in a patient with a pH of 7.50? Select one: a. Bicarbonate retention b. Increased respirations c. Decreased respirations d. Hydrogen ion excretion
A
c. Decreased respirations
19
Q
The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint where the humeral head articulates with the: Select one: a. acetabulum. b. glenoid fossa. c. acromion process. d. popliteal fossa.
A
b. glenoid fossa.
20
Q
If the concentration of H+ increases, the pH of the blood will: Select one: a. decrease. b. increase, then decrease. c. remain unchanged. d. increase.
A
a. decrease.
21
Q
The normal pH of the human body ranges from: Select one: a. 7.25–7.30. b. 7.60–7.75. c. 7.35–7.45. d. 7.50–7.55.
A
c. 7.35–7.45.
22
Q
A buffer is a substance that can absorb or donate: Select one: a. sodium. b. bicarbonate. c. hydrogen ions d. water.
A
c. hydrogen ions
23
Q
The atrioventricular (AV) valves of the heart include the: Select one: a. tricuspid and mitral. b. mitral and aortic. c. tricuspid and pulmonic. d. bicuspid and aortic.
A
a. tricuspid and mitral.
24
Q
The movement of a solvent from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration is called: Select one: a. diffusion. b. passive transport. c. osmosis. d. crenation.
A
c. osmosis.
25
```
The germinal layer contains cells that produce pigment granules, which help to produce:
Select one:
a. skin color.
b. fatty tissue.
c. sebum.
d. sweat.
```
a. skin color.
26
```
Which of the following is an uncontrollable risk factor for disease?
Select one:
a. Poor diet
b. Genetics
c. Stress
d. Smoking
```
b. Genetics
27
What role does the spleen play in the body’s compensatory response to hypoperfusion?
Select one:
a. It releases additional glucose.
b. It releases catecholamines.
c. It releases sequestered red blood cells.
d. It releases pyrogens, which cause fever.
c. It releases sequestered red blood cells.
28
```
Your patient presents with a serum potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would most likely cause this?
Select one:
a. Laxative use
b. Hypovolemia
c. Renal failure
d. Diuretic use
```
c. Renal failure
29
```
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) targets the adrenal cortex, resulting in the release of:
Select one:
a. epinephrine.
b. norepinephrine.
c. cortisol.
d. glucagon.
```
c. cortisol.
30
Relative to other microorganisms, mycobacterium tuberculosis:
Select one:
a. lacks a capsule, yet resists destruction.
b. contains a thick, impenetrable capsule.
c. is not transported in the body by phagocytes.
d. is easily destroyed with antibiotics.
a. lacks a capsule, yet resists destruction.
31
```
Which of the following conditions would cause a proportionate increase in both sodium and water and an increased total body sodium?
Select one:
a. Steroid use
b. Sweating
c. Diuretic use
d. Diarrhea
```
a. Steroid use
32
```
The most common cause of cardiogenic shock is:
Select one:
a. a myocardial infarction.
b. a cardiac dysrhythmia.
c. a ventricular septal defect.
d. pulmonary edema.
```
a. a myocardial infarction.
33
```
White blood cells that develop from B cells and produce large volumes of specific antibodies are called:
Select one:
a. killer T cells.
b. plasma cells.
c. mast cells.
d. lymphocytes
```
b. plasma cells.
34
```
Hypernatremia exists when serum sodium levels are _____ mEq/L or greater.
Select one:
a. 143
b. 134
c. 139
d. 128
```
a. 143
35
```
A patient with liver failure has an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity. This is called:
Select one:
a. lymphatic edema.
b. ascites.
c. sacral edema.
d. anasarca.
```
b. ascites.
36
```
Which of the following clinical signs is a manifestation of fluid leakage into the interstitial spaces?
Select one:
a. Stridor
b. Wheezing
c. Urticaria
d. Tachycardia
```
a. Stridor
37
```
A patient is diagnosed with left ventricular hypertrophy. This means that the left ventricle is:
Select one:
a. small in size.
b. weakened.
c. enlarged.
d. abnormally strong
```
c. enlarged.
38
```
A young female overdosed on heroin and has slow, shallow breathing. Which of the following condition will she develop initially?
Select one:
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Metabolic alkalosis
```
c. Respiratory acidosis
39
```
Blood gas analysis at the hospital reveals that your patient has a pH of 7.29. Which of the following conditions would most likely cause this?
Select one:
a. Hyperventilation
b. Mild hypoglycemia
c. Antacid overdose
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
```
d. Diabetic ketoacidosis
40
```
A full-term neonate has a total body water percentage of:
Select one:
a. 60%.
b. 80%.
c. 50%.
d. 70%.
```
b. 80%.
41
The term metaplasia refers to:
Select one:
a. a decrease in cell size due to a loss of subcellular components, resulting in decreased organ size.
b. an increase in the actual number of cells in an organ or tissue, resulting in increased organ size.
c. an increase in the size of the cells due to synthesis of more subcellular components.
d. the reversible cellular adaptation in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type.
d. the reversible cellular adaptation in which one adult cell type is replaced by another adult cell type.
42
Which of the following is correct?
Select one:
a. Decreased pH = increased hydrogen ion concentration = acidosis
b. Increased pH = increased hydrogen ion concentration = alkalosis
c. Decreased pH = decreased hydrogen ion concentration = alkalosis
d. Increased pH = decreased hydrogen ion concentration = acidosis
a. Decreased pH = increased hydrogen ion concentration = acidosis
43
```
A consistently high level of _______ suppresses the immune system by increasing production
of interleukin-6
Select one:
a. insulin
b. aldosterone
c. cortisol
d. glucose
```
c. cortisol
44
```
The protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot is called:
Select one:
a. a thrombocyte.
b. fibrin.
c. plasminogen.
d. plasmin.
```
b. fibrin
45
```
It has been statistically proven that the lifespan of a person with obesity is decreased by as many as ___ years.
Select one:
a. 13
b. 8
c. 5
d. 18
```
a. 13
46
What three lines of defense does the body have to protect itself against disease-causing agents?
Select one:
a. The renal system, anatomic barriers, and increased red blood cell production
b. Blood coagulation, the parasympathetic response, and anatomic barriers
c. The inflammatory response, blood coagulation, and the immune response
d. Anatomic barriers, the inflammatory response, and the immune response
d. Anatomic barriers, the inflammatory response, and the immune response
47
Which of the following fluid imbalances would result from severe burns?
Select one:
a. Proportionate gain in both water and sodium; increased total body sodium
b. Proportionate loss in both water and sodium; decreased total body sodium
c. Proportionate loss in both water and sodium; increased total body sodium
d. Proportionate gain in both water and sodium; decreased total body sodium
b. Proportionate loss in both water and sodium; decreased total body sodium
48
```
_______ is the general term used to describe diseases of the myocardium that ultimately progress to heart failure.
Select one:
a. Cardiomyopathy
b. Cardiomegaly
c. Atrophy
d. Hypertrophy
```
a. Cardiomyopathy
49
```
The disease process caused by damage to the myelin sheath is called:
Select one:
a. multiple sclerosis.
b. muscular dystrophy.
c. Huntington disease.
d. Alzheimer disease.
```
a. multiple sclerosis.
50
In response to hypoperfusion, the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, along with antidiuretic hormone, causes:
Select one:
a. salt and water excretion and peripheral vasoconstriction.
b. salt and water retention and peripheral vasoconstriction.
c. salt and water retention and peripheral vasodilation.
d. salt and water excretion and peripheral vasodilation.
b. salt and water retention and peripheral vasoconstriction.
51
```
The human body should be functioning at its optimal level between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 25 and 35 years.
b. 18 and 22 years.
c. 21 and 30 years.
d. 19 and 25 years.
```
d. 19 and 25 years.
52
```
By the end of the first year of life, a child's tidal volume typically ranges between:
Select one:
a. 6 and 8 mL/kg.
b. 15 and 20 mL/kg.
c. 10 and 15 mL/kg.
d. 8 and 10 mL/kg
```
c. 10 and 15 mL/kg.
53
Which of the following statements regarding toddlers and preschoolers is correct?
Select one:
a. Toddlers and preschoolers have well-developed lung musculature, even though they have less lung tissue.
b. The normal respiratory rate in toddlers and preschoolers is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.
c. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
d. Muscle mass and bone density decrease in toddlers and preschoolers because of increased physical activity.
c. Toddlers and preschoolers commonly experience upper respiratory infections because of a loss of passive immunity.
54
An infant or small child's airway can be occluded if it is overextended or overflexed because:
Select one:
a. the tongue is proportionately large and the airway is shorter and narrower.
b. he or she has a long neck, which makes the trachea prone to collapse.
c. the tongue is proportionately small and can fall back into the posterior pharynx.
d. the back of the head is flat, which prevents a neutral position.
a. the tongue is proportionately large and the airway is shorter and narrower.
55
Physical changes that typically occur in early adults include an increase in:
Select one:
a. fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
b. muscle strength and reflexes.
c. height because of spinal disc expansion.
d. respiratory rate due to increased metabolism.
a. fatty tissue, which leads to weight gain.
56
Which of the following are noticeable characteristics of a 9-month-old infant?
Select one:
a. Knows his or her name, can walk without any assistance
b. Places objects in the mouth, pulls him- or herself up
c. Walks without help, becomes frustrated with restrictions
d. Responds to his or her name, crawls around efficiently
b. Places objects in the mouth, pulls him- or herself up
57
Infants are often referred to as “belly breathers” because:
Select one:
a. an infant's ribs are brittle and are less able to expand.
b. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
c. their intercostal muscles are not functional at an early age.
d. their diaphragm does not receive impulses from the brain.
b. their rib cage is less rigid and the ribs sit horizontally.
58
In contrast to secure attachment, anxious-avoidant attachment occurs when a child:
Select one:
a. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
b. clings to a parent or caregiver because he or she knows that the person can be trusted.
c. reaches out and explores because he or she knows that the parents are there as a safety net.
d. becomes acutely anxious at the presence of strangers or in unfamiliar surroundings.
a. shows little emotional response to a parent or caregiver following repeated rejection.
59
```
The average pulse rate of individuals between 19 and 60 years of age is typically:
Select one:
a. 70 beats/min.
b. 60 beats/min.
c. 80 beats/min.
d. 90 beats/min.
```
a. 70 beats/min.
60
```
The anterior fontanelle fuses together between the ages of:
Select one:
a. 6 and 8 months.
b. 9 and 18 months.
c. 7 and 14 months.
d. 3 and 4 months.
```
b. 9 and 18 months.
61
```
The decline in cardiac function that commonly occurs in late adulthood is largely related to:
Select one:
a. atherosclerosis.
b. medication use.
c. hypotension.
d. kidney failure.
```
a. atherosclerosis.
62
```
Neonates are defined as children:
Select one:
a. between birth and 1 month of age.
b. who weigh at least 5.5 pounds.
c. during the first few hours of life.
d. who are at least 1 month premature.
```
a. between birth and 1 month of age.
63
```
The high normal body temperature for an infant is:
Select one:
a. 100.3
b. 97.9
c. 98.5
d. 99.6
```
d. 99.6
64
```
At what age does separation anxiety typically peak in infants and small children?
Select one:
a. 6 to 8 months
b. 18 to 24 months
c. 24 to 36 months
d. 10 to 18 months
```
d. 10 to 18 months
65
```
Which of the following factors would have the least effect on a 75-year-old patient’s vital signs?
Select one:
a. Overall health
b. Medical conditions
c. Increased weight
d. Medications
```
c. Increased weight
66
Which of the following statements regarding psychosocial development in the adolescent age group is correct?
Select one:
a. Family conflict decreases as the adolescent gains control of his or her life.
b. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak during the eighth or ninth grade.
c. Because they think rationally, adolescents are at the lowest risk for suicide.
d. Adolescents are less fixated on their public image than younger children.
b. Antisocial behavior and peer pressure peak during the eighth or ninth grade
67
An infant's blood pressure typically increases with age because:
Select one:
a. his or her normal heart rate usually increases with age.
b. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
c. the infant's total blood volume decreases with age.
d. as the infant gets older, his or her blood vessels dilate.
b. blood pressure directly corresponds to body weight.
68
An infant or small toddler would most likely gain trust in an individual who:
Select one:
a. provides a planned, organized, routine environment.
b. frequently changes the infant or toddler's regular routine.
c. maintains eye contact, even if the person is a stranger.
d. stands at a level that is only slightly higher than him or her.
a. provides a planned, organized, routine environment.
69
Factors that contribute to a decline in the vital capacity of an elderly patient include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. a loss of respiratory muscle mass.
b. increased surface area available for air exchange.
c. increased stiffness of the thoracic cage.
d. decreased residual volume.
b. increased surface area available for air exchange.
70
Which of the following is a physical change that typically occurs in the early adolescent age group?
Select one:
a. Muscle and bone growth both decrease.
b. The systolic blood pressure decreases.
c. The normal pulse rate steadily increases.
d. Secondary sexual development begins.
d. Secondary sexual development begins.
71
```
Which of the following medications would the AEMT typically not be allowed to administer to a patient?
Select one:
a. Naloxone
b. Amiodarone
c. Aspirin
d. Glucagon
```
b. Amiodarone
72
```
Subcutaneous injections deliver the medication:
Select one:
a. below the layer of muscle.
b. between the skin and the muscle.
c. into the muscle.
d. deep within the dermis.
```
b. between the skin and the muscle.
73
```
As an AEMT, which of the following medications would you be allowed to administer to a patient?
Select one:
a. Atropine
b. Amiodarone
c. Epinephrine
d. Lidocaine
```
c. Epinephrine
74
```
A known contraindication to the administration of 50% dextrose (D50) is:
Select one:
a. hypertension.
b. dehydration.
c. intracranial hemorrhage.
d. inability to follow commands.
```
c. intracranial hemorrhage
75
```
Factors that alter a patient's response to a drug include:
Select one:
a. over-the-counter versus prescription.
b. the route of administration.
c. the type of drug given.
d. body mass and psychological factors.
```
d. body mass and psychological factors.
76
```
. A 40-year-old man with diabetes has a blood glucose level of 38 mg/dL. However, because he is unconscious and unable to swallow oral glucose, that medication is:
Select one:
a. idiosyncratic.
b. ineffective.
c. contraindicated.
d. indicated.
```
c. contraindicated.
77
```
Which of the following is not a physiologic effect of sympathetic nervous system stimulation?
Select one:
a. Reduced digestion
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Dilated pupils
d. Decreased heart rate
```
d. Decreased heart rate
78
While reading the package insert that accompanies a medication, you note that it has been assigned a pregnancy category D. This means that:
Select one:
a. studies in animals have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus; however, adequate studies have not been performed in humans.
b. risk of adverse effects has clearly been demonstrated in humans; therefore, the drug should not be administered to pregnant women.
c. studies in animals have demonstrated adverse effects; however, studies have not been conducted in humans.
d. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances.
d. risk to the human fetus has been demonstrated; however, administration of the drug may outweigh the risk of potential adverse effects in certain circumstances.
79
Atropine increases the heart rate by:
Select one:
a. increasing sympathetic nervous system discharge.
b. agonizing the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system.
c. blocking the vagus nerve and preventing innervation by ACh.
d. blocking the release of norepinephrine.
c. blocking the vagus nerve and preventing innervation by ACh.
80
```
Medications that the AEMT is authorized to administer are ultimately determined by:
Select one:
a. his or her medical director.
b. the EMS chief or supervisor.
c. the patient's personal physician.
d. his or her scope of training.
```
a. his or her medical director.
81
```
You administer 0.4 mg of nitroglycerin to your 55-year-old patient with chest pain. Which of the following adverse reactions should you be most observant for?
Select one:
a. Palpitations
b. Headache
c. Nausea
d. Hypotension
```
d. Hypotension
82
What is the mechanism of aspirin when given to a patient who is experiencing an acute myocardial infarction?
Select one:
a. Decreases swelling around the infarct site.
b. Increases local vasoconstriction and increases BP
c. Decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction
d. Blocks the body's plasminogen system
c. Decreases platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction
83
```
Which of the following physiologic responses would you expect to occur following administration of a drug that possesses alpha-1 properties?
Select one:
a. Increased cardiac contractility
b. Peripheral vasoconstriction
c. Dilation of the bronchioles
d. Systemic vasodilation
```
b. Peripheral vasoconstriction
84
The Narcotic Control Act of 1956:
Select one:
a. assigned each controlled substance a specific schedule, based on its use and potential for addiction.
b. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana.
c. regulated the import, manufacture, prescription, and sale of several nonnarcotic medications, as well as cocaine and opium.
d. protected the public from mislabeled, poisonous, or otherwise harmful foods and medications.
b. made the possession of heroin illegal and outlawed the acquisition and transportation of marijuana.
85
```
You are unable to establish an IV on a critically injured conscious patient. What route should you use for gaining vascular access?
Select one:
a. Intradermal
b. Intramuscular
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intraosseous
```
d. Intraosseous
86
```
Which of the following signs indicate narcotic-induced CNS depression and would indicate the administration of naloxone?
Select one:
a. Hypoventilation
b. Tachycardia
c. Violent behavior
d. Hyperventilation
```
a. Hypoventilation
87
A drug's therapeutic index refers to:
Select one:
a. how quickly the drug will be excreted from the body.
b. the maximum concentration that can safely be given.
c. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.
d. the minimum dose required to achieve the desired effect.
c. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose.
88
What might happen if a drug is given to a patient with liver disease?
Select one:
a. The drug would be rendered ineffective.
b. Toxic blood levels of the drug
c. Decreased elimination time of the drug
d. Increased detoxification of the drug
b. Toxic blood levels of the drug
89
```
Which of the following drugs dissolves a thrombus and prevents it from entering the bloodstream?
Select one:
a. Diuretic
b. Anticoagulant
c. Antiplatelet
d. Fibrinolytic
```
d. Fibrinolytic
90
```
_______ solutions provide a stable medium for the administration of medications and provide effective fluid and electrolyte replacement.
Select one:
a. Isotonic
b. Hypotonic
c. Colloid
d. Hypertonic
```
a. Isotonic
91
```
Adverse reactions associated with epinephrine include all of the following, except:
Select one:
a. dysrhythmias.
b. bradycardia.
c. anginal pain.
d. headache.
```
b. bradycardia.
92
```
Which of the following medications would the AEMT help a patient self-administer?
Select one:
a. Glucagon
b. 50% dextrose
c. Naloxone
d. Albuterol
```
d. Albuterol
93
```
Which of the following medications is administered in gel form?
Select one:
a. Oral glucose
b. Fentanyl
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Activated charcoal
```
a. Oral glucose
94
```
If you administered naloxone (Narcan) to a patient who overdosed on morphine, what effect would occur?
Select one:
a. Hypersensitivity
b. Cross-tolerance
c. Antagonism
d. Potentiation
```
c. Antagonism
95
```
Benzodiazepines are a classification of medication that are used to:
Select one:
a. reduce fatigue.
b. induce sedation.
c. increase heart rate.
d. relieve pain.
```
b. induce sedation.
96
```
What is the approximate weight in kilograms of a 155-lb patient?
Select one:
a. 74 kg
b. 76 kg
c. 72 kg
d. 70 kg
```
d. 70 kg
97
The term “bolus” is defined as:
Select one:
a. administering a drug in one mass of volume.
b. administering at least 20 mL of volume.
c. administering less than 10 mL of volume.
d. delivering a drug via maintenance infusion.
a. administering a drug in one mass of volume.
98
```
During a long-distance transport, you initiate an IV of normal saline and infuse 125 mL over 2 hours. Using microdrip tubing, how many drops per minute (gtt/min) is your IV flow rate set at?
Select one:
a. 58 gtt/min
b. 63 gtt/min
c. 39 gtt/min
d. 53 gtt/min
```
b. 63 gtt/min
99
An intraosseous line should be inserted in a critical patient if:
Select one:
a. IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.
b. vascular access is not needed for fluid administration.
c. the patient will require a whole blood transfusion.
d. you cannot establish IV access within six attempts.
a. IV access cannot be achieved within 90 seconds.
100
In addition to administering supplemental oxygen, what is the most appropriate management for a patient with circulatory overload caused by excessive IV fluid administration?
Select one:
a. Head lowered, medical control notified
b. Lateral recumbent position, event documented
c. Head elevated, medical control notified
d. Trendelenburg's position, event documented
c. Head elevated, medical control notified
101
```
You have been requested to infuse 1,000 mL of lactated Ringer over 6 hours. You have macrodrip (10 gtts/mL) tubing and a 16-gauge IV catheter. At how many drops per minute will you set the IV flow rate?
Select one:
a. 22
b. 24
c. 26
d. 28
```
d. 28
102
```
A glass drug cartridge and syringe are components of aNo:
Select one:
a. ampule.
b. prefilled syringe.
c. vial.
d. Mix-o-Vial.
```
b. prefilled syringe.
103
```
Which of the following electrolytes is essential for the distribution of water throughout the body?
Select one:
a. Sodium
b. Calcium
c. Chloride
d. Potassium
```
a. Sodium
104
Which of the following formulas is correct for converting a patient's weight in pounds to his or her weight in kilograms?
Select one:
a. Divide the patient's weight in pounds by 2 and subtract 10%.
b. Multiply the patient's weight in pounds by 2.
c. Divide the patient's weight in pounds by 2 and add 10%.
d. Multiply the patient's weight in pounds by 2.2.
a. Divide the patient's weight in pounds by 2 and subtract 10%.
105
While starting an IV on a patient, you see bright red blood quickly traveling up the IV tubing. You should:
Select one:
a. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.
b. lower the IV bag to ensure viability of the IV line.
c. secure the IV line and apply direct pressure.
d. evaluate the puncture site for signs of infiltration.
a. remove the catheter and apply direct pressure.
106
```
When attaching an administration set to a bag of IV fluid and priming the IV tubing, you should ensure that the drip chamber is:
Select one:
a. one half full.
b. completely full.
c. one fourth full.
d. three fourths full.
```
a. one half full.
107
After inserting the needle into the injection port of a saline lock, you pull back on the plunger and observe blood return in the syringe. You should next:
Select one:
a. administer the medication via IM injection instead.
b. remove the needle and prepare a new syringe.
c. flush the saline lock with normal saline before giving the drug.
d. administer the medication and observe for infiltration.
d. administer the medication and observe for infiltration.
108
```
You have set an IV to deliver 250 mL of normal saline over 3 hours using microdrip tubing. How much fluid are you delivering every 30 minutes?
Select one:
a. 64 mL
b. 36 mL
c. 42 mL
d. 56 mL
```
c. 42 mL
109
```
A 7-year-old child has swallowed a bottle of aspirin. Medical control orders you to give the child 0.5 g/kg of activated charcoal. Based on the child's weight of 45 pounds, how much charcoal will you administer?
Select one:
a. 10 g
b. 15 g
c. 5 g
d. 20 g
```
a. 10 g
110
```
Common site for intraosseous cannulation include all of the following, except the:
Select one:
a. sternum.
b. proximal tibia
c. lateral femur.
d. humerus.
```
c. lateral femur.
111
```
You respond to a call for an unresponsive diabetic. Upon arrival, you find a 23-year-old female unresponsive on her couch. During your assessment, you determine that her blood glucose level is 38 mg/dL. You attempt to start an IV, but are unsuccessful after several attempts. Which of the following routes could be used to administer 50% dextrose?
Select one:
a. Rectal
b. Oral
c. Subcutaneous
d. Intralingual
```
a. Rectal
112
Compartment syndrome occurs when:
Select one:
a. fluid leaks out of the bone and engorges the veins in proximity to the bone.
b. fluid leaks out of the bone and into the osteofascial compartment.
c. medication is trapped within the bone canal and causes local destruction.
d. swelling occurs within the canal of the bone and compromises circulation
b. fluid leaks out of the bone and into the osteofascial compartment.
113
```
How many grams are present in 25 mL of 50% dextrose (D50)?
Select one:
a. 50 g
b. 12.5 g
c. 6.25 g
d. 25 g
```
b. 12.5 g
114
You are attempting to start an IV in a vein on the back of your patient's hand. As you insert the catheter, the patient complains of sudden, severe shooting pain followed by numbness in the extremity. You should:
Select one:
a. remove the catheter and choose another site.
b. carefully continue with the venipuncture.
c. lift the IV catheter to a 45° angle.
d. assure the patient the symptoms are normal.
a. remove the catheter and choose another site.
115
```
A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being:
Select one:
a. hypertonic.
b. hyperosmolar.
c. hypotonic.
d. isotonic.
```
c. hypotonic.
116
When starting an IV on an elderly patient, you should be aware that:
Select one:
a. larger IV catheters minimize the risk of extravasation.
b. certain medications can create fragile skin and veins.
c. the patient's skin is often thick and difficult to puncture.
d. varicose veins are often the easiest veins to cannulate
b. certain medications can create fragile skin and veins.
117
Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves:
Select one:
a. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
b. placing at least 10 mL of saline into a vial that contains powdered medication.
c. diluting a medication with at least 20 mL of saline prior to administration.
d. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that contains liquid medication.
a. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder.
118
```
A 66-year-old male with congestive heart failure presents with pulmonary edema and difficulty breathing. His blood pressure is 180/90 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and irregular. When starting an IV, which of the following, if available, would be most appropriate for this patient?
Select one:
a. Butterfly catheter
b. 14-gauge angiocath
c. Intracath
d. Saline lock
```
d. Saline lock
119
```
Intracellular and extracellular fluid account for what percentage of total body weight?
Select one:
a. 70%
b. 80%
c. 50%
d. 60%
```
d. 60%
120
Which of the following statements regarding intraosseous infusion is correct?
Select one:
a. Compared to an IV line, fluid does not flow well into the bone because of resistance.
b. The incidence of osteomyelitis is high following intraosseous infusion.
c. Manual IO insertion is performed by approaching the bone at a 45° angle.
d. Intraosseous needles consist of a solid boring needle inside a hollow Teflon catheter.
a. Compared to an IV line, fluid does not flow well into the bone because of resistance.
121
What is the most significant drawback to cannulating a scalp vein in a child with a butterfly catheter?
Select one:
a. Scalp veins are often difficult to cannulate.
b. It is aesthetically unpleasant.
c. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.
d. It causes apprehension for the family.
c. It does not allow for rapid fluid administration.
122
```
Which of the following is a systemic complication associated with IV therapy?
Select one:
a. Infiltration
b. Hematoma
c. Phlebitis
d. Air embolus
```
d. Air embolus
123
```
If you have an epinephrine concentration of 0.1 mg/mL, how many milligrams would be present in 5 mL?
Select one:
a. 0.5 mg
b. 0.05 mg
c. 0.005 mg
d. 5 mg
```
a. 0.5 mg
124
Which of the following medications or solutions can be administered through an intraosseous line?
Select one:
a. Whole blood and cardiac medications only
b. Anything that you can administer via an IV
c. Hypertonic drugs and fluids only
d. Normal saline and hypotonic drugs only
b. Anything that you can administer via an IV
125
. After inserting the needle into the injection port of an IV line, but before administering the medication, you should:
Select one:
a. pinch off the tubing proximal to the injection port.
b. flush the line with a 20-mL bolus of normal saline.
c. withdraw the plunger of the syringe to detect blood.
d. explain the procedure to the patient and obtain consent.
a. pinch off the tubing proximal to the injection port.
126
You are transporting an elderly man to the hospital because of complications associated with his congestive heart failure. Approximately 20 minutes after starting an IV of normal saline on the patient, he begins to complain of shortness of breath. You auscultate his lungs and hear rales in all lung fields. What should you do?
Select one:
a. Immediately discontinue the IV.
b. Place the patient in a supine position.
c. Check the flow rate of the IV line.
d. Assess him for internal hemorrhage.
c. Check the flow rate of the IV line.
127
```
Which of the following is not a crystalloid?
Select one:
a. Lactated ringer solution
b. 5% dextrose in water
c. Normal saline
d. Whole blood
```
d. Whole blood
128
```
Which of the following electrolytes determines whether or not the body is acidotic or alkalotic?
Select one:
a. Phosphorus
b. Bicarbonate
c. Sodium
d. Calcium
```
b. Bicarbonate
129
When replacing lost volume with crystalloids, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
a. crystalloids do not have the capacity of carrying oxygen.
b. giving too little fluid may interfere with the process of hemostasis.
c. 1 mL should be given for every 3 mL of estimated blood loss.
d. one-third of the fluid will leave the vascular spaces within an hour.
a. crystalloids do not have the capacity of carrying oxygen.
130
```
. A 70-year-old man presents with generalized weakness and dizziness. His blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg when he is sitting, 96/56 mm Hg when he is standing. His heart rate is 120 beats/min, and his skin is flushed and dry. What is the most likely cause of this patient's signs and symptoms?
Select one:
a. Dehydration
b. Overhydration
c. Kidney failure
d. Liver failure
```
a. Dehydration
131
```
The immune response involves which type of white blood cell?
Select one:
a. Eosinophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Lymphocyte
d. Leukocyte
```
c. Lymphocyte
132
```
A 50-year-old patient complains of abdominal muscle cramps and spasms of his hands. Which of the following electrolyte disturbances does this patient most likely have?
Select one:
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypernatremia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypercalcemia
```
c. Hypocalcemia
133
```
A form of solid drug that is stored in a gelatin shell filled with liquid or powder is called a:
Select one:
a. suspension.
b. solution.
c. tablet.
d. capsule.
```
d. capsule.
134
How does lactated Ringer solution help combat intracellular acidosis associated with severe blood loss?
Select one:
a. It has the same chemical components that are contained in bicarbonate.
b. The lactate is metabolized by the liver to form bicarbonate.
c. It overhydrates the patient and forces hydrogen ions from the body.
d. It draws hydrogen ions into the intravascular space and sends them to the kidneys.
b. The lactate is metabolized by the liver to form bicarbonate.
135
```
A solution that has a greater concentration of sodium than the cell is referred to as being:
Select one:
a. hypotonic.
b. isotonic.
c. hyperosmolar.
d. hypertonic.
```
d. hypertonic.
136
You have attempted to cannulate a vein in a patient's hand; however, shortly after inserting the IV catheter, the vein infiltrates. You should:
Select one:
a. reattempt to cannulate the same vein when the swelling subsides.
b. look for a vein that is proximal to the infiltrated vein.
c. attempt to cannulate the distal part of the same vein.
d. search for a vein in the opposite extremity.
b. look for a vein that is proximal to the infiltrated vein.
137
```
Your patient is a 56-year-old man with chest pain. Medical control orders you to assist the patient with his prescribed nitroglycerin. The patient later tells you that the palms of his hands itch. His vital signs, however, remain stable. This peculiar effect of the drug is referred to as aNo:
Select one:
a. therapeutic effect.
b. allergic reaction.
c. idiosyncratic reaction.
d. side effect.
```
c. idiosyncratic reaction.
138
Physiologic effects of catecholamines include:
Select one:
a. negative inotropy.
b. decreased systemic vascular resistance.
c. vasodilation.
d. increased systemic vascular resistance.
d. increased systemic vascular resistance.
139
```
Nitroglycerin relaxes vascular smooth muscle, dilates the coronary arteries, and relieves cardiac chest pain. These properties of nitroglycerin are called:
Select one:
a. idiosyncratic effects.
b. contraindications.
c. therapeutic effects
d. side effects.
```
c. therapeutic effects
140
```
While eating dinner at a restaurant with his wife, a man remembers that he did not take his antianxiety medication. He immediately begins to experience anxiety and tells his wife that they must leave immediately. This response is typical of:
Select one:
a. potentiation.
b. tolerance.
c. dependence.
d. synergism.
```
c. dependence.
141
```
The function of a drug or the particular action of a drug on an organism is called:
Select one:
a. the drug classification.
b. pharmacology.
c. an indication.
d. the mechanism of action.
```
d. the mechanism of action.
