Unit 5 COPY Flashcards
1
Q
What must be done for workers that cannot get a proper fit with any tight-fitting respirator?
A
provided with a positive pressure, loose-fitting face-piece, helmet
2
Q
What criteria should be followed to determine the adequacy of respirator fit before the actual fit-
test?
A
make sure the mask fits correctly
3
Q
What test exercises must the subject perform during a QNFT?
A
Normal breathing, deep breathing, turning head from side-to-side, moving head up and down, talking,
grimacing, bending over, normal breathing.
4
Q
Which supervisors are required to receive initial RP training from BE?
A
The supervisors that have the responsibility of overseeing work activities of one or more persons who must
wear respirators.
5
Q
Rescue teams shall be properly trained on the use of respirators and develop what?
A
A workplace-specific written plan to address respiratory training requirements.
6
Q
Where can respirator training be documented?
A
EESOH-MIS / OEH-MIS.
7
Q
To who does BE report the RP program review/evaluation findings and how often must they be
reported?
A
Aeromedical Council and the Combined Occupational Safety and Health Council; annually.
8
Q
What should be included in the RP program evaluation report?
A
Wearer acceptance of respirators,
inspecting respirator program operation,
assessing protection provided by the respirator.
9
Q
List the personnel required to be members of the installation confined space program team (CSPT).
A
Ground Safety, FES, BE, and various functional managers.
10
Q
What are your primary roles as a member of the CSPT?
A
Evaluating confined spaces for hazards and training personnel.
11
Q
What type of testing is performed by a workplace member before an entry?
A
Verification testing.
12
Q
List the three conditions a space must meet to be considered a confined space.
A
(a) It is large enough and configured such that an individual can bodily enter the space and perform his or
her assigned work.
(b) It has limited or restricted means of entry or exit.
(c) It is not designated for continuous human occupancy.
13
Q
Hazards encountered in confined spaces fall into what categories?
A
Flammability, oxygen, toxicity and other conditions.
14
Q
Confined spaces are separated into what two categories?
A
(a) Permit-required confined spaces
(b) Non-permit confined spaces
15
Q
List the common methods for controlling confined space hazards.
A
Controlling unauthorized entry & using proper protective equipment.
16
Q
What are the benefits of using ventilation as a confined space control?
A
maintains an adequate level of oxygen
17
Q
Why should you never use pure oxygen to ventilate a confined space?
A
cause flammable materials
18
Q
What is a confined space entry permit?
A
administrative tool used to document the completion of a hazard assessment
19
Q
When you have to brief assessment hazards and risks within the chain of command. What should
your briefing be tailored to fit?
A
Situation and conditions.
20
Q
What is the desired outcome of effective communication?
A
Agreement among those involved
21
Q
How does AFI 90−821, Hazard Communication (HAZCOM) Program, minimize the incidence of
chemically induced occupational illnesses/injuries?
A
hazards with using chemicals in the work area.
22
Q
Explain why laboratories are not covered under the AF HAZCOM Program
A
governed by AFOSH Standard 48−22
23
Q
When are consumer products exempt from the HAZCOM Program requirements?
A
depending on how they are used
24
Q
Who provides HAZCOM training to workers when they perform duties outside of their normal
AFSC?
A
The supervisor of the gaining activity.
25
What’s the difference between an SDS and an MSDS?
SDSs are a replacement to the older MSDSs
26
When is HAZCOM training required to take place?
- worker’s initial assignment
- new hazard
27
Name the five items required of written HAZCOM programs by OSHA Standard Title 29 CFR
1910.1200(e).
(1) Inventory of hazardous chemicals.
(2) Obtaining and maintaining SDS.
(3) Labeling requirements for hazardous chemicals.
(4) Procedures for informing/protecting employees conducting non-routine tasks/jobs involving
potentially hazardous chemicals.
(5) Employee training.
28
Which office functions as the OPR for installation SDS/MSDS management?
BE Flight.
29
What can be used to provide descriptions of all routine and non-routine work tasks to include
associate hazard and controls?
TO, job safety standards, BE survey letters, operating instructions or specific task lists.
30
What is the purpose of a shop’s written HAZCOM program?
It indicates/explains how the shop will meet the HAZCOM program requirements.
31
Where must the shop’s written HAZCOM program be maintained?
In a location that is accessible to all workers.
32
When is the only time a shop is not required to label a HAZMATs container?
chemical that is intended for the immediate use
33
What action should you take after you have finished your evaluation of a shop’s HAZCOM
program?
Provide feedback to the workplace supervisor
34
What is the requirement for an NCO to be a CHO?
Must have attained a 7-level qualification in either a laboratory or BE specialty.
35
How often must the employer review and evaluate the effectiveness of the written CHP?
Annually.
36
If a chemical is stored in a non-original container, how must the container be labeled?
The non-original container must be marked with the chemical contents.
37
When must a laboratory comply with the OSHA HAZCOM standard?
If a chemical substance is produced for another user outside of the laboratory.
38
What is one of the main reasons you review the chemical inventory during a routine workplace
assessment?
To ensure the workplace actually uses the chemicals listed on the inventory.
39
What is the value of reviewing shop-specific EESOH-MIS data as part of your workplace
assessment?
It lists and identifies all of the HAZMATs used by all organizations on your base.
40
Why should you review the HMIRS as part of your chemical/HAZMAT request/authorization
process?
Because it contains a lot of value-added information such as chemical names and synonyms, as well as
ingredients and percentages.
41
How do supervisors obtain authorization for first time use of a HAZMAT in their work area?
The supervisor must submit an AF Form 3952.
42
What is your role in the HAZMAT authorization process?
To evaluate the HAZMAT request to determine if there are any occupational health-related concerns.
43
If you approve/authorize HAZMAT for use, what are you telling the workplace?
That you approve how the HAZMAT is being used and the PPE being used to protect workers.
44
What are the factors that make biological agents a significant threat?
(1) Small doses can produce lethal or incapacitating effects over an extensive area
(2) They are difficult to detect in a timely manner.
(3) They are easy to conceal and can be covertly deployed.
(4) The large variety of potential biological agents significantly complicates effective prophylactic and
therapeutic treatments.
45
List the four types of incidents that affect AF operations as outlined in AFI 10–2501.
(1) Natural disaster.
(2) Major accident.
(3) CBRN attack.
(4) Terrorist use of CBRN.
46
The AF fits into the NRF by following what management system?
The NIMS.
47
What are the primary missions of the Air Force Emergency Management Program?
To save lives; minimize the loss or degradation of resources; and continue, sustain, and restore operational
capability in an all-hazards physical threat environment at AF installations worldwide.
48
What role does BE personnel play in the Air Force Emergency Management Program?
BE personnel apply their HRA and OEHSA skills to provide commanders and other decision-makers
critical information for selecting appropriate courses of action.
49
Why are BE personnel included in the installation threat working group?
Because of their expertise with understanding the risk from the various health threats they evaluate during
VAs.
50
Under the emergency management construct, what is the mission of the first responders?
To establish initial command and control, save lives, and control hazards at the accident site.
51
What response element does BE personnel fall under?
Emergency responders.
52
What is the role of the Emergency Operations Center during response operations?
To direct, monitor, and support the installation’s actions before, during, and after an incident.
53
What is the function of the command post within the installation control center?
It functions as the essential command and control node for the installation commander and senior staff.
54
What two common sections make up an incident command structure and what are their functions?
An operations section to conduct tactical incident site operations, and a plans section, where plans for the
incident site operations are developed and reviewed.
55
After responding to an incident, you are tasked with entering the incident site to collect a sample.
What section of the incident command structure are you aligned under?
Operations section.
56
If you are evaluating the incident site sample data and working with a readiness and emergency
management team member to assess the potential health and operation risk to personnel
downwind of the site, then you are likely assigned to what section of the incident command
structure?
Plans section.
57
The EOC is organized into 15 ESFs. What role do they serve?
Provide support, resources, program implementation, and services that are most likely needed during an
emergency response.
58
Describe the role of the CBRN control center within an AF EOC.
Directs CBRN reconnaissance activities to shape the hazards and advises the commander on hazards,
countermeasures, and protective actions.
59
Describe the role of BE personnel within the CBRN control center.
Provide health risk advice to the commander.
60
What prompted Congress to enact EPCRA?
Concerns regarding the environmental and safety hazards posed by the storage and handling of toxic
chemicals.
61
When must a facility comply with the EPCRA emergency planning requirements?
Appoint a State Emergency Response Commission.
62
What is the role of the NRC in the event of a reportable release?
The NRC acts as the single federal point of contact for all pollution incident reporting.
63
What makes TICs/TIMs an attractive improvised weapon?
Chemical production in very large quantities, modes of transportation, large storage facilities, universal
distribution, and potential to cause illness/injury.
64
What document will guide you through performing a TIC/TIM VA?
The US Air Force School of Aerospace Medicine Assessment Methodology for Toxic Industrial
Chemicals/Toxic Industrial Materials Guidance Manual.
65
The assessment process involves collection and evaluation of information regarding what major
components?
(1) Preparation of an inventory of TIC/TIM on or near the AF base.
(2) Characterization of worst-case and alternative scenarios.
(3) Determination of potential severity of toxic releases and radioactive exposures.
(4) Determination of probability of toxic releases and radioactive exposures.
(5) Determination of risk and ranking of scenarios.
66
What type of TICs do you not include when collecting your TIC/TIM data?
Chemical compounds that are flammable/explosive but have little or no acute toxicity.
67
How often is the TIC/TIM VA updated?
Annually.
68
What key elements are needed to ensure a successful shelter program?
a base population familiar with shelter procedures, staff trained in shelter
management, an ability to activate and close shelters at the appropriate times, an abili
69
What are the two primary shelter types within the Air Force Emergency Management Program?
Shelters that are deliberately planned for a particular incident and its hazards and sheltering in-place.
70
Who is responsible for inspecting a facility to determine if it can be used as a shelter?
The base CE.
71
What type of shelter are you working from if you were assigned to the command post during a
CBRN attack?
CBRN attack shelter.
72
When gamma radiation is of concern, what considerations must be given when choosing a
building for sheltering in-place?
Type and thickness of the building material.
73
What is the major difference in shelter planning for terrorist attacks in garrison versus a deployed
location?
For garrison locations - evacuate all non-essential personnel away from the
installation
74
When are ICs most likely to implement shelter-in-place to provide protection to AF personnel?
When it is better for personnel to remain indoors rather than evacuate
75
Cite the three categories that response materials can be separated into?
(1) Threat, vulnerability
(2) Planning materials
(3) Response materials
76
What resource could help BE personnel apply judgment in planning for a chemical warfare agent
risk assessment following a CBRN attack?
USAPHC Report 04
77
What two references are extremely useful tools particularly in response operations where
chemical warfare agents are involved?
CHART and CHEMRAT.
78
What reference material contains detailed information on potential mishap site hazards associated with aircraft mishaps?
TO 00–9.
79
What reference material contains quick reference guides for radio communications and heat stress?
Airman’s Manual (AFTTP 3-4).
80
What is are the functions of the TIC/TIM VA?
(1) Provide a general indication as to the types of events that could occur at your installation, (2)
evaluate/estimate the relative severity and risk of potential consequences from TIC/TIM releases, (3)
provide rough estimates of the potential magnitude of consequences.
81
Who is responsible for ensuring that all workers in a unit are provided a safe and healthy work
environment?
Squadron/unit commanders.
82
When can adequate warning properties for a chemical be assumed?
The respirator does not supply oxygen and must never be used in an oxygen deficient atmosphere.
83
When will the supervisor notify BE to schedule fit testing?
When new employees are assigned, or a current employee has a change affecting the wear of RP.
84
What are the characteristics of an open-circuit SCBA?
These devices release the exhaled air into the surrounding environment. The breathing gas is generally
compressed air and they are typically designed to provide 30 – 60 minutes of air to the user.
85
What is the master respirator inventory?
List all of the workplaces that use RP in an approved OEH-MIS.
86
What are the ideal comfort ranges for CO2 concentration, relative humidity, and temperature?
Inadequate design and maintenance of HVAC systems, insufficient fresh air, and high/low relative
humidity.
87
Under what conditions is a slight positive pressure desirable?
When adjoining rooms are not occupied.
88
What are the two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that are needed to calculate
the Q?
Area and velocity.
89
At what points in a system would you expect the strongest negative SP and the strongest positive
SP?
Strongest negative SP: at the fan inlet. Strongest positive SP: at the fan outlet.
90
How are SP and VP described in terms of energy?
SP is potential energy. VP is kinetic energy.
91
Explain the reason why you don’t normally collect bacteriological samples from a spa/hot tub.
Because conditions change so rapidly research indicates the need to collect a sample only if an illness
occurs.
92
On what four factors does water quality depends?
- efficiency of disinfection
- sanitary conditions
- #bathers in the pool at any one time
- total # bathers per day
93
When is a pre-season swimming pool inspection done and why?
30 days prior to the pool opening.
94
What does the consumer confidence report provide?
A summary of all the water monitoring your BE office conducted at the base over the past year.
95
If a base receives a consumer confidence report from a local water supplier, what is provided to
the base population?
Either a copy of the original report or a modified version.
96
If a water system violates a drinking water standard that does not have a direct impact on human
health, how long does the water supplier have to notify the public?
Up to one year.
97
Why are WVA program review checklists an important part of the WVA process?
uniform way to ensure water security
98
What is the significance (or vulnerability) of a water system that presents numerous access
points?
increased risk for an attack by operatives.
99
Summarize how host nation municipal water source selection should be handled.
must be considered a raw water source until it is approved by PM personnel.
100
Explain the difference between STP standards and LTP standards.
STP standards are water quality standards that must be met to declare a water system potable **DURING ** the first 30 days of field operations
LTP standards are water quality standards that must be met AFTER the first 30 days
101
Why is it vital that a finished water storage facility be properly designed, operated, and
maintained?
protect water from loss of chlorine residual,
bacteria re-growth,
contaminant entry
102
What are BE’s responsibilities in the backflow prevention and cross-connection control program?
assigns hazard classifications to each cross-connection
103
What is a cross-connection in regards to the installation backflow prevention and cross-
connection control program?
any temporary or permanent connection between a public water system and any source or system
104
After the repair of a water main where the slug chlorination method was used, what steps must
follow next?
- water line is flushed
- samples are taken for bacteriological analysis.
105
If a water main had a loss of positive pressure less than 20 psi within the main, what actions are
required?
must be disinfected & tested for coliform bacteria
106
What is the purpose disinfecting water?
To inactivate microorganisms in the water, thereby preventing them from affecting the human body.
107
What is a primacy agency?
The agency of the state or federal government that has primary enforcement responsibility in accordance
with the SDWA.
108
Why is it important to regularly test for microbial pathogens in the water distribution system?
To confirm the effectiveness of the water filtration and disinfection practices.
109
Why must the range of alkalinity in water be controlled?
prevent acidic corrosion & the precipitation of salts
110
Even though much of the undesirable material in groundwater is filtered out during the passage
through underground layers of sand, clay, rock, and gravel, what is a major limiting factor in
using groundwater a source of drinking water?
Excessive mineral content.
