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Self Test Questions > Unit 4B > Flashcards

Unit 4B Flashcards

1
Q

What can changes in the number, arrangement, or energy of nucleons cause?

A

unstable

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2
Q

What happens during the process of radioactive decay?

A

The nucleus emits radiation and transforms the unstable atom into a different nuclide.

throwing off particles or energy.

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3
Q

What is the relatively long-range repulsive electromagnetic force of the proton called?

c

A

coulomb (C) force

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4
Q

What happens during internal conversion?

electron

A

electron being ejected from the atom

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5
Q

What is the term for the splitting of a nucleus into at least two other nuclei that release a large
amount of energy?

F

A

Fission.

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6
Q

What is excitation?

electron

A

electron; jumps to a
higher atomic energy level.

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7
Q

When are alpha particles most dangerous?

A

When they get inside the body.

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8
Q

When is calculating the beta particle range useful?

evaluating

A

evaluating hazards from beta particles
or shielding designs.

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9
Q

For the purposes of radiation safety protection, how is bremsstrahlung avoided?

surrounding

A

surrounding the beta emitter(s) with a low atomic number material.

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10
Q

What is another term for the splitting of a nucleus?

A

Fission.

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10
Q

Why is gamma/X-ray a very serious external hazard?

A

Due to its high penetrating ability.

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11
Q

If an isotope is very unstable, at what rate does it decay?

A

Very fast (within seconds or minutes).

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11
Q

What happens to a photon during pair production?

A

replaced by an electron & positron

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12
Q

Concerning radioactivity, why is it important to know the amount of Cis?

atoms / time

A

amount of atoms are disintegrating in a period of time.

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13
Q

What effect do more transformations(per unit of time) have on the amount of energy that is
emitted?

A

greater amount of radiation emitted.

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14
Q

Why is the absorbed dose (D) a more useful quantity?

absorbing media

A

it is applicable to any type of absorbing media & any type of ionizing radiation.

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14
Q

What is specific activity (SA)?

Ci/g

A

number of curies per gram (Ci/g) of material.

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15
Q

What is used to determine total exposure and estimated dose?

exposure R

A

Exposure rate (R/hr or mR/hr) and the period of exposure.

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16
Q

Although more than one dose equivalent unit exists, which unit of measurement is most likely to be
seen?

ariana

A

rem

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17
Q

How does direct damage to a cell occur from exposure to ionizing radiation?

A

Radiation collides with or passes close enough to a molecule in the DNA to cause it to break apart.

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18
Q

What is meant by the term nonstochastic?

dose must

A

(1) dose must be exceeded before the particular effect is observed.
(2) The magnitude of the effect increases with the size of the dose.
(3) There is a clear, unambiguous causal relationship between exposure to the agent and the observed
effect.

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19
Q

What do the symptoms of ARS depend upon?

A

The dose received over a person’s whole body.

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20
Q

What is the most likely outcome of an acute dose of 450 rem?

A

50% of untreated exposed people are expected to die within 60 days after exposure.

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21
Q

What can happen if the focusing cup on the X-ray machine does not properly control electrons?

A

unnecessary radiation
exposures

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22
Q

If focal spot is small, then what will the image quality of the X-ray be?

A

Its image will be sharper.

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23
Q

What is the effect on the patient if an X-ray technician uses a high kVp setting?

A
  • produces more penetrating X-rays,
  • reduces a patient’s exposure.
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24
Q

What types of RAM are covered by template permits?

x

A

X-ray fluorescence devices & targeting devices

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25
Q

Why is it important that the interior of the glass envelope surrounding the cathode be kept under a
partial vacuum?

A
  • minimizes interactions with air molecules
  • slows down burnout of the tube.
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26
Q

Who can make a no-notice inspection of permit compliance?

A

AFIA & NRC inspector

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26
Q

Where is information found describing the parameters under which RAM may be legally received,
possessed, transferred, stored, used, and disposed?

c

A

“conditions” section of the permit.

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27
Q

What is a key responsibility of the IRSO concerning the USAF Dosimetry Program?

A

Maintain ALARA radiation exposures to personnel.

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28
Q

In what situations would BE interact with public health regarding the Dosimetry Program?

A

pregnant
workers having exposures to ionizing radiation.

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29
Q

If specialty dosimeters such as collar or extremity dosimeters are not worn, what type of
dosimeter is worn to determine dose equivalents for the head, lens of the eye, and extremities?

A

The whole-body dosimeter.

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30
Q

What part of a worker’s body is a collar dosimeter used to evaluate exposures?

A

Head and lens of the eye.

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31
Q

If a worker wears an extremity dosimeter with lead gloves, where is the dosimeter worn?

A

Under the shielded gloves.

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32
Q

What type of dosimeter is used exclusively by WMD responders?

A

The N2.

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33
Q

What steps must be performed before issuing a TLD?

A

(1) Coordinate enrollment information with the USAF RDL.
(2) Establish the exposure history.
(3) Brief the wearer on topics specified in AFMAN 48–125.
(4) Complete the RDL Listing 1523.

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34
Q

If asked to provide a dosimeter to a one-time user (visitor, student, special study, etc.), what is
written on the RDL Listing 1523?

A

In the remarks column of RDL Listing 1523, annotate as “one time”.

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35
Q

If an individual leaves the base without out-processing through BE, what radiation dose is
assigned to the individual?

adm

A

administrative dose.

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36
Q

List the steps for disenrolling an individual from the Dosimetry Program.

A

(1) Determine if the individual wore the dosimeter during the monitoring period.
(2) Complete the personnel information change form.
(3) Submit all dosimeters for individual(s) deleted from the program to the USAF RDL at the end of the
monitoring period.

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37
Q

Most occupational radiation exposure circumstances encountered within the USAF can be
adequately monitored at what frequency of exchange?

A

On a quarterly basis.

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38
Q

What actions are taken prior to repacking and coordinating shipping of dosimeters back to the
RDL?

count

A

count all dosimeters & disassemble

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39
Q

Within how many days after the monitoring period ends must dosimeters be shipped to the USAF
RDL, and which squadron or office should handle the shipment?

A

5 workdays

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40
Q

What must be done with the Listing 1499–1 once it is received in the BE office?

A

signed by the IRSO

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41
Q

If any dose limits are exceeded, what action must be taken and why?

A

removed from duties involving radiation exposure

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42
Q

How do you check to ensure a scintillator instrument does not have any light leaks?

A

By holding the probe up to a light source and checking the readings.

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43
Q

When using a GM detector, what is used to prevent alpha and beta from entering the tube?

s

A

shield on the detector.

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44
Q

How do you ensure radiation measurements are accurate and will provide meaningful results?

A

Ensure your equipment is properly operated and calibrated.

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45
Q

What instrument is used to detect alpha radiation during routine workplace surveys and/or
response to radiological incidents?

A

ADM–300 with the AP.

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46
Q

When using the Victoreen, how is it configured to measure for beta radiation?

A

By first opening the beta window.

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47
Q

What instrument is used to collect air samples to determine the amount of airborne radiological
particulates?

A

RADeCO high volume air sampling kit.

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48
Q

What two types of radiological sources are swipe tested within the AF?

A

Sealed and unsealed.

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49
Q

How often are sealed sources required to be tested for surface contamination and leakage?

A

every 6 months

50
Q

When preparing for a swipe sample, how are background readings determined?

A

filter paper with ADM–300 probe

51
Q

What is the total surface area covered during a swipe sample on a sealed source material?

A

100 cm2

52
Q

Describe the relationship of the NRC and the DOT with regards to the transportation of RAMs.

A

safety regulations
prescribed by DOT

53
Q

External surface readings are not permitted to exceed what value?

A

10 mrem/hr from any point on the external surface of the unpackaged material

0.5 mrem/hr at any point
around the external surface of the package.

53
Q

When monitoring external levels of radiation from a package, at what distance are readings taken
from the surface of the package?

A

10 cm

54
Q

What is the total surface area covered during a swipe sample on a package of RAM awaiting
shipment?

A

Swipe an area of 300 square cm2
.

55
Q

What are the reasons radiation scatter surveys are performed on medical X-ray units?

A

To ensure workers, other patients, and members of the public are not exposed to unnecessary radiation.

56
Q

How often must the inventory of all X-ray producing sources be verified?

A

Annually.

57
Q

What type of instrument is used to conduct medical diagnostic X-ray scatter radiation leakage
surveys?

A

Ion chamber.

58
Q

Why is a one-gallon plastic container filled with H2O used when taking scatter radiation
measurements?

A

To properly recreate the scattering effect that normally takes place during radiographic exposures.

59
Q

Where on the installation will you find the most common application of industrial X-ray units?

A

At NDI.

60
Q

Why must periodic RAM storage and use surveys be performed?

A

To assess the exposure risk to workers and the general public.

61
Q

For NDI unshielded facilities, where should you collect radiation measurements?

A

locations occupied by personnel during exposures

62
Q

Define the terms “abnormal exposure” and “overexposure.”

A

abnormal exposure is acceptable but would result in an overexposure if continued at the same rate.

Overexposure is exceeding
a regulated exposure standard.

63
Q

What initial action should be taken if you suspect a dosimeter worn by a worker has received an
abnormal exposure?

A

Forward the dosimeter to the radioanalytical laboratory with control one

64
Q

What are the steps for investigating an overexposure?

A

(1) Initiate notifications as required by AFMAN 48-148.
(2) Remove the suspected exposed worker from duties.
(3) Investigate suspected overexposure.
(4) Identify corrective action.
(5) Document the investigation.

65
Q

What action must the IRSO take after completing an investigation into an overexposure?

A

written report of investigation through the MAJCOM BEE to
radioanalytical laboratory within 7 calendar days

66
Q

What information is needed to determine the dose of radiation a person has received?

A

The dose rate (intensity) and the exposure time in hours.

67
Q

How is the protection factor determined?

dividing

A

dividing radiation intensity level outside shelter X intensity level inside the shelter.

68
Q

Describe how the ALARA principle applies to radiation protection.

A

exposures to a minumum

69
Q

Who should receive ALARA training?

A

personnel
exposed to 1 mSv (100 mrem) in a year.

70
Q

List the topics that should be covered when conducting ALARA training.

A

Types & characteristics of radiation

71
Q

Since we do not know the minimum dose of radiation that can cause delayed effects, what
approach is taken with regards to radiation protection?

A

Assume the worst case and choose the safest COA.

72
Q

What effective dose limit is established for occupational exposures (both internal and external) to
the whole body in a single year?

A

50 mSv (5 rem).

73
Q

Cite the three most important measures related to controlling exposures to external sources of
ionizing radiation?

A

Time, distance, and shielding.

74
Q

What type of control is time protection?

A

Administrative.

75
Q

Define the principle of the inverse square law as it applies to distance from a radioactive source?

A

Doubling the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 4.

76
Q

What type of control is shielding?

A

Engineering.

76
Q

Describe how shielding works to provide protection against ionizing radiation?

A

radiation loses kinetic
energy

77
Q

What type of radiation particles is primarily emitted by all three naturally occurring uranium
isotopes?

A

Alpha.

78
Q

What is the primary source for DU intake by the general public?

A

Food and drinking H2O.

79
Q

What parts of the body absorb most of the DU once it is ingested or inhaled?

A

bones

80
Q

What types of radiation does radon release as it decays?

A

Alpha, beta and gamma.

81
Q

What disease has the only documented increased risk from exposure to airborne radon and its
decay products?

A

Lung cancer.

82
Q

Which type of natural disaster is radon used to predict?

A

Earthquakes.

83
Q

What AFI provides guidance on the daily management of RAM?

A

AFMAN 40-201.

84
Q

What office is responsible for issues relating to the recycling and disposal of radioactive waste
within the AF?

A

AFRRAD.

85
Q

What do disposition instructions from the AFRRAD office include?

A

Specific packaging, labeling, and shipping requirements.

85
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating recycle and disposal requests at the installation level?

A

The IRSO.

86
Q

How must radioactive waste be stored while awaiting disposal instructions from the AFRRAD
office?

A

enclosed facility with limited access

87
Q

Why is credible nuclear deterrence essential to US security?

A

non-nuclear allies might develop their own nuclear capability.

88
Q

What are the three global delivery platforms for nuclear weapons?

A

ICBMs, bombers, and SLBMs.

89
Q

What is the AF nuclear enterprise?

A

The people, organizations, processes, procedures, & systems used to execute
nuclear operations.

90
Q

What is a fundamental difference and similarity between nuclear and conventional explosions?

A

Nuclear explosions are millions of times more powerful than the largest conventional detonations.

91
Q

What is a nuclear chain reaction?

A

process in which neutrons released in fission produce an additional fission in at least one further nucleus.

92
Q

What effect does weather have on the impact of thermal radiation?

A

Clouds can
reduce damage

93
Q

What effect of a nuclear explosion causes the most damage?

A

blast

93
Q

What is most of the energy of a nuclear weapon used to produce?

A

blast & thermal energy

94
Q

What is residual radiation and what affects the amount produced?

A

Fallout radiation is received from particles that are made radioactive by the effects of the explosion

10%

95
Q

What is initial radiation and how long does it last?

A

radiation that arrives during the first minute after an explosion & mostly gamma /neutron

96
Q

What are the common types of nuclear bombs and how do they initiate a nuclear explosion?

A

(1) Gun-type nuclear bombs use HEs to drive one sub-critical mass of enriched uranium into a stationary sub-critical mass of enriched uranium with enough force to form a critical mass.
(2) Implosion-type bombs where the plutonium is arranged in a spherical shape (as in a core) with HEs driving the sub-critical 239Pu inward using ‘lenses’ to focus the explosion.
(3) The hydrogen bomb is a fission bomb, called the primary, which produces a flood of radiation
including a large number of neutrons.
(4) The neutron bomb is a small hydrogen bomb;
primary lethal effects come from the radiation damage caused by the neutrons it emits.

97
Q

How is the chain reaction controlled in a nuclear power plant?

A

by absorbing neutrons.

97
Q

How does a RDD differ from a RED?

A

dirty bomb

98
Q

How does an “all hazards” approach relate to a radiologic event?

A

radiation may not be the only hazard. The large number of non-radiological (secondary)

99
Q

What term is applied to a nuclear weapons accident?

A

Broken Arrow

99
Q

What is a nuclear weapon incident?

A

An unexpected event involving a nuclear weapon

100
Q

What is it imperative that BE personnel not do at the outset of a radiological incident?

A

dissemination of information to the public

101
Q

What are the three phases of a radiological monitoring at a nuclear device incident/accident site?

A

1- beta-gamma monitoring
2 - define the contaminated areas
3 - continued monitoring of areas,

102
Q

What is the most effective life-saving opportunity for response officials in the first hour following
a nuclear incident/accident?

A

shelter populations in the expected dangerous fallout areas.

102
Q

What is the most probable means of contamination entering the body, and how can personnel be
protected?

A

Inhalation
PPE

103
Q

What are the four pathways victims and the responders will be exposed during a radiological
incident?

A

(1) Cloud shine, which is external gamma radiation from a plume of RAM.
(2) Ground shine, which is external beta/gamma radiation from RAM deposited on the ground.
(3) International radiation exposure, due to inhaling RAM, which is its primary pathway for exposure.
(4) Skin contamination exposure, which is external beta and gamma radiation from RAM deposited on the
skin and is a significant source of external skin exposure.

104
Q

How long are airborne alpha activity guidelines intended for use?

A

until health physics personnel at the scene can develop situation-specific instructions.

105
Q

What is the intention of anticontamination clothing?

A

Although it will not reduce exposure to gamma radiation, it will protect against alpha radiation and help
prevent the spread of contamination.

106
Q

What are some important factors to consider for the selection of anticontamination clothing?

A

Weather conditions
quantity of the contaminant
environment clothing is to be worn.

106
Q

Who is most likely to receive the highest exposure during a radiological incident, and what
monitoring is done for them?

A

personnel involved in
initial rescue

107
Q

What is the difference between external and internal exposure?

A

External dose occurs when standing near a gamma or high-energy beta-emitting source

Internal dose occurs by ingesting or inhaling RAM

108
Q

How does a chelating agent work as a medical countermeasure for RAMs?

A

By binding and holding on to RAMs that get into the body

108
Q

What is the most important factor in determining radiation exposure hazard potential?

A

absorption of radiation in tissue

109
Q

When should medical treatment be delayed for contaminated patients?

A

must NOT be delayed because of possible contamination.

110
Q

What are the two basic types of personnel decontamination stations?

A

1- suitable for small affected populations

2- community centers for large events.

111
Q

What should be done with contaminated bodies with readings greater than 100 mrem/hr with the
probe 1 inch away?

A

be moved to a refrigeration unit at least 30 feet from the work area.

112
Q

What should be done with contaminated waste?

A

stored in an area that is s for contaminated storage with security

113
Q

How does contamination released by a radiologic accident affect the public H2O supply?

A

not affect the safety of public H2O systems with
adequate H2O treatment capability.

113
Q

When do FDA DILs apply?

A

during the first year after an accident.

114
Q

What are initial hazard assessments based on, and what are actions from them focused on?

A

1- based on limited information, assumptions, and worst-case projections of possible radiation doses received.

2- focused on assessing the magnitude of the incident, establishing control zones, and facilitating the continuance of critical missions.

114
Q

When is environmental sampling for a radiologic accident conducted?

A

during the site remediation phase of the cleanup operation

115
Q

When can air sampling be discontinued after a Broken Arrow?

A

If it can be shown that RAM has not been released from a weapon

116
Q

Which type of nuclear plotting supersedes all others?

A

Request, receive, and use IMAAC hazard predictions.

117
Q

Where is all data following a radiological incident/accident maintained?

A

DOEHRS–IR

Self Test Questions (7 decks)

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