Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are three potential uses of exposure assessment results?

determine

A

(1) Determine the need for health hazard controls.
(2) Build or add to the longitudinal exposure record (LER).
(3) Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

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2
Q

According to the American Industrial Hygiene Association (AIHA) exposure assessment model, what actions are taken when an exposure’s
acceptability is uncertain?

gather

A

Gather further information.

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3
Q

What similarities do the AF model and AIHA model share?

rotuine

A

routine & special surveillance,
determine the acceptability of the exposures,
establish controls

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4
Q

What are the results from a screening assessment used for?

determine

A

determine what action should be taken.

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5
Q

What type of sampling requires equal probability of selecting any exposure period for any
worker in the SEG during the interval of the assessment?

A

Random sampling.

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6
Q

Is it possible to assess worker exposure without collecting samples? If so, briefly describe how If
not, briefly describe why collecting samples is always necessary.

exposure may be

A

Yes. Exposure may be estimated using surrogate data and models to make a predictive assessment.

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7
Q

What type of OEL should be selected to determine environmental exposure acceptability for
deployed military personal?

A

Military exposure guidelines (MEG).

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8
Q

Which of the following OELs is most appropriate for assessing exposure acceptability for emergency responders?
a. PEL.
b. PAC.
c. IDLH.
d. MCL.

A

Protective action criteria

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9
Q

What type of sampling method is used to measure exposure over a period of time?

I

A

Integrated.

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10
Q

What is to establish an exposure for a particular worker?

Area

A

Area samples.

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11
Q

What sampling method would be effective for assessing cadmium contamination on shop table
surfaces?

S

A

Swipe sampling.

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12
Q

Under what circumstance is it appropriate to sample selectively the worker with maximum
exposure risk?

C

A

Compliance sampling.

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13
Q

What are two main purposes for using the the data quality objectives (DQO) process for environmental sampling?

ensures

A
  • ensures the type of data is appropriate

-eliminates unnecessary data.

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14
Q

How does an OEHSA conceptual site model (CSM) assist with sampling strategy development?

provides

A

provides data including the who, what, where, for the sampling
strategy.

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15
Q

What is the difference between QA and QC?

broad plan

A

Quality Assurance - broad plan for quality in all aspects of a program.

Quality Control - steps you will take to determine the validity of specific sampling

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16
Q

When is Chain of Custody documentation required?

A

when samples are collected as evidence in the event a crime was committed.

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17
Q

Where are sampling and analysis of source and treated water captured?

s

A

Sampling, analysis, and monitoring plan

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18
Q

Who is responsible for developing and updating the installation specific SAM plan?

be and

A

BE flight and CE.

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19
Q

What are some of the items listed in the sampling procedure section of the SAM plan?

why

A

(1) why the samples are being collected.
(2) step-by-step procedures
(3) Include instructions on filling out forms
(4) preservatives need to be added to sample
(5) shipping requirements

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20
Q

Once a pathway is determined, why would sampling be conducted?

S

A

Sampling will be conducted to determine health risks

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21
Q

Why is sampling conducted in recreational waters?

determine whether

A

Sample to determine whether contaminants or microorganisms could affect human health is present.

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22
Q

What is the primary concern associated with exposure to non-potable liquids?

d

A

dermal contact &
ingestion

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23
Q

What is a sampling strategy?

road map

A

It is the road map which details of the entire sampling process from beginning to end.

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24
Q

What process is used in developing a sampling strategy?

D

A

DQO

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25
Q

Where can you find information on the selections of OELs?

use your

A

Use your chain of command. Also contact USAFSAM/OE for guidance on exposure limits.

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26
Q

What water sampling equipment provides on-scene detection, identification and quantification of
toxic industrial chemicals and chemical warfare agents?

H

A

HAPSITE.

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27
Q

What can the HAPSITE be use to analyze?

vocs

A

VOCs in air, water samples in a gas phase.

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28
Q

What is a major weakness of the HAZMAT ID?

only identify

A

It can only identify unknown substances, it cannot quantity chemicals.

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29
Q

What equipment is used to determine the acidity or alkalinity of a solution?

p

A

pH meter.

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30
Q

What is the benefit of ensuring the proper calibration and operation of water sampling
equipment?

minimize

A

To minimize errors and most accurate drinking water sampling results.

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31
Q

Cite the frequencies when water sampling equipment should be calibrated.

manufactuer

A

According to manufacturer’s operating instructions.

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32
Q

When receiving a new piece of water sampling equipment or you’ve never operated a particular
piece of equipment, what is the first step you should take?

read the

A

Read the instruction manual.

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33
Q

What is the specific order that water samples (required from a specific sampling point) taken?

M

A

Metals, chemicals, microbiological

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34
Q

If water sampling containers are not perfectly clean, what effect can this have on sampling?

Any residue

A

Any residue could kill the bacteria or provide a nutrient medium for their growth.

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35
Q

The final step in cleaning sample bottles is: rinse the containers with sterile or deionized water at
least three times. Why?

removes

A

-removes all minerals
-provides good environment for bacteria

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36
Q

Why is a dechlorinating agent added to a water sample checked for biological quality?

removes

A

It removes the chlorine, which if left in the water, could kill the bacteria resulting in a false negative
sample.

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37
Q

Before conducting any sampling, what installation-specific document should be referenced?

installation

A

Your installation’s SAM plan.

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38
Q

Under what condition can you use either glass or plastic containers for water sample collection?

capable of

A

They must be capable of being sterilized.

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39
Q

What indicators should be looked for to indicate that sodium thiosulfate should not be used?

turbid

A

If it has become turbid or has sediment.

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40
Q

Why is it important not to rinse the bottle prior to collecting a sample to check for biological
quality?

dechlori

A

You will lose the dechlorinating agent.

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41
Q

Why is it even more critical to test for chlorine residuals when evaluating field water supplies?

in the field

A

Because in the field you can’t always analyze for bacteria.

42
Q

What is the most common Air Force sampling device used for measuring chlorine and pH?

color

A

The colcolor comparator method—DPD kit.

43
Q

Explain the benefits of running the faucet water for about 2-3 minutes prior to testing for
chlorine.

flushes

A

It flushes the service connections and ensures your water sample comes from the main water distribution line.

44
Q

What are the effects of low pH on water?

acidic

A

acidic, soft, & corrosive

45
Q

Why is it necessary to have the correct pH level in drinking water?

effective

A

effective disinfection with chlorine and microorganisms

46
Q

What theory is the presence/absence test based on?

no coliforms

A

no coliforms should be present in 100 ml of a drinking water sample.

47
Q

Once it has been determined that a sample contains total coliforms, how can you confirm the
presence of E. coli?

sample

A

If the sample fluoresces when placed within 5 inches of a 6-watt (W) 365 mm UV lamp.

48
Q

Why is routine monitoring performed for swimming pools, spas and hot tubs, and other natural
bathing areas?

provides

A

It provides patrons with sanitary and safe conditions and a safe and healthful workplace for employees.

49
Q

When is the use of a certified laboratory for bacteriological analysis of a natural bathing area not
required?

adhere

A

If you adhere to Standard Methods for Examination of Water and Wastewater.

50
Q

When is bacteriological water sampling of a swimming pool performed?

support

A

In support of a special request.

51
Q

What is the purpose of a QA/QC program?

ensure

A

ensure the integrity of sampling data.

52
Q

What are the minimum requirements of a QA/QC program?

A
  • periodic equipment calibration data,
  • personnel training is relevant and current, incorporating proper sample collection techniques, and implementing chain-
    of-custody tracking of samples.
53
Q

What does the proper preparation and preservation of samples do?

ensure

A

ensure samples are maintained in the condition necessary for proper analysis between the collection
and analysis time.

54
Q

What form is used to track samples?

chain

A

Chain of custody.

55
Q

Explain two factors that can influence the validity of sample results.

how well

A
  • How well the procedures for the specific type of sampling performed
  • cleanliness of the sampling equipment used were followed.
56
Q

What is the importance of decontaminating sampling equipment?

cause

A

cause invalid sampling results.

57
Q

Why must caution be used when using reagents and other chemicals to decontaminate sampling
equipment?

leave

A

leave residue

58
Q

Why is it important to properly interpret sampling results?

results

A

The results are used as the basis to make OEH decisions and recommendations effecting personnel and the environment.

59
Q

Why must you ensure the sample analyzed and standard used both have the same name/spelling?

many chemicals

A

Many chemicals and constituents to have similar names.

60
Q

List the types of air samples.

g

A

Grab and Integrated.

61
Q

Which air sample is taken over a short time?

g

A

Grab.

62
Q

Describe how integrated samples are collected.

collected

A

collected over a period of time

63
Q

List the sampling instruments that are designed to measure one or a group of compounds.

gas

A

Combustible gas monitors, oxygen monitors, carbon monoxide monitors, indoor air quality monitors,
mercury vapor monitors, colorimetric tubes and badges.

64
Q

What kind of sampling device detects airborne contaminants without drawing air into the device?

C

A

Colorimetric tubes.

65
Q

What instrument is designed for on scene detection of chemical warfare agents and toxic
industrial chemicals?

H

A

HAPSITE

66
Q

Describe breakthrough.

backup

A

If the backup section contains a mass greater than 10 percent of the mass of the front section, then
breakthrough has occurred.

67
Q

What is an electrostatic precipitator used for?

required

A

when the required sample volume is large, high collection efficiency is required for very small particles (such as fumes).

68
Q

When considering where to sample, how are sampling locations divided?

area

A

area & personal

69
Q

Briefly explain full-period consecutive samples.

taking

A

Taking two or more samples over the work shift.

70
Q

If you have a recommended flow rate of 0.1 to 0.2 and the minimum volume is 3 liters, how long
will you have to let the sample pump run before collecting enough sample to meet the LOD?

A

15 minutes.

71
Q

Why are minimum and maximum flow rates set?

provide

A

provide the greatest collection efficiency for the chemical being sampled.

72
Q

List the items which require field calibration.

personal

A

Personal sampling pumps, toxic gas monitors, combustible gas monitors, and oxygen meters.

73
Q

What happens to items requiring laboratory calibration?

will be

A

will be entered into a calibration program for periodic recall

74
Q

List the primary standard devices used for calibrating air-sampling pumps.

A

Soap-bubble buret and electronic soap-bubble meter.

75
Q

What is the piece of equipment most commonly used to calibrate sampling pumps?

A

Soap-bubble buret.

76
Q

Why is integrated sampling useful for area sampling?

good indication

A

Integrated sampling can be used to provide a good indication of the airborne concentration of a chemical
contaminant in a room/area over a relatively long time (up to 8 hrs).

77
Q

Where should you place a sampling pump for area sampling?

fixed

A

fixed location that will obtain the most representative air sample

78
Q

What is the goal for area air sampling?

most representative

A

You want to obtain the most representative air sample possible.

79
Q

Why are blanks sent to the laboratory?

determine

A

determine if any
contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory.

80
Q

How should the sampling media be placed?

face

A

faces downward so dust, particles, etc., cannot contaminate the media.

81
Q

Why should you be present when the process ends?

record

A

record the stop time, turn off the pump and
close/secure the media.

82
Q

What is the importance of having a good soil/solid sampling methodology?

sampling

A

sampling will be performed in an organized process.

83
Q

What must you consider if a worker is exposed to two or more chemicals on the same shift?

chemical act together

A

chemicals act together as one chemical in their attack on an organ system.

84
Q

What is the importance of having a good soil/solid sampling methodology?

ensure

A

It will ensure your sampling will be performed in an organized and methodical process.

85
Q

Soil sampling is conducted for what two primary reasons?

hra and

A

Health risk assessment and remediation.

86
Q

Why is an auger not used to sample for VOCs?

augers churn

A

Augers churn the soil which can rapidly release VOCs into the air.

87
Q

Why are tube samplers a good sampling device to collect VOCs?

provide

A

They provide the least disturbed collection method.

88
Q

Trier samplers are primarily used to sample what type of soil?

loose

A

Loose soil on or just under the surface.

89
Q

How can you ensure the data from your soil sampling is representative and usable for the
intended purpose?

be adhering

A

By adhering to a good sampling strategy.

90
Q

Cite some obvious signs of soil contamination.

wet

A

Wet, oily, or discolored soil or dead vegetation; an unpleasant odor.

91
Q

What type of soil sampling strategy uses the theory of random chance probabilities to choose
representative sampling locations?

A

Simple random sampling.

92
Q

If you needed to investigate large sites that encompass a number of soil types, topographic
features, or land uses, which type of sampling should you perform?

A

Stratified random sampling.

93
Q

For unknown contamination, what actions can you take to determine what analytes to sample?

direct

A

direct reading sampling equipment to get an idea what type of CBRN
material might have contaminated the soil.

94
Q

What type of sampling is use to sample for metals before analyzing with an x-ray fluorescence
survey meter?

A

Sieving sampling.

95
Q

Where and why are background soil samples collected?

near the area

A

Near the area where you collected your contaminated soil samples; used as baseline data for comparison to
the contaminated sample results.

96
Q

Where should you collect samples if soil contamination is obvious?

the least

A

From the least contaminated areas first.

97
Q

What effect does soluble contaminates have on soil?

soluble contaminants

A

Soluble contaminants mix with water and travel through soil better than insoluble contaminants.

98
Q

Cite the advantage to taking field readings of the soil you will be sampling.

narrow down

A

It will help narrow down the location and levels of contamination in the soil.

99
Q

When using a PID/FID, what are some factors that could influence the sampling results?

soil

A

Soil temperature, soil adsorption capacity, sampling instrument response factor, and time the borehole has been opened.

100
Q

What are soil sample results used for?

make oeh

A

To make OEH decisions and recommendations effecting personnel and the environment.