Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Self Test Questions > Unit 2 > Flashcards

Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What AF program is designed to restore health while optimizing and sustaining human
performance?

O

A

OEH program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is AFI 48–145 considered the foundational document for the overall AF OEH program?

In

A

Instructions towards capturing, analyzing, documenting & communicating information risks in the work place.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why are agencies within the federal government such as EPA, OSHA, NRC, DOT, and others,
called regulatory agencies?

enforce

A

enforce rules & regulations that carry the law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If you needed to research a topic dealing with protecting human health and welfare related to a
work place, which CFR title would you need?

L

A

Title 29 CFR, Labor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Within which AF publication series would you find most of the BE-related publications?

4…

A

48 series.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which agency has chemical hazard risk assessments that provide MEGs used for exposures to OEH chemical hazards?

US army

A

US Army Public Health Center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does the acronym DOEHRS-IH stand for?

Defense

A

Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System - Industrial Hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the four DOEHRS-IH modules is used to record complete/potentially complete
exposure pathways?

Env

A

Environmental Health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the primary tool BE uses for identifying and evaluating OEH threats not captured in
Industrial Hygiene?

which survey?

A

OEHSA survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is contained in and individual’s LER?

history of

A

history of
(1) Pre-deployment.
(2) Deployment.
(3) Post-deployment exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the difference between an HRA and HRM?

A

HRA is the process of identifying and defining dose-response relationships and hazard criteria,

HRM is the process of evaluating, and
implementing courses of action to reduce risk to human health.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are the terms HRA and HRM used interchangeably?

both do

A

Individuals who assess OEH risks both evaluate the risk (HRA) and implement courses of action and
conduct follow-up assessments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the four principles for implementing RM?

accept no

A

(1) Accept no unnecessary risk.
(2) Make risk decisions at the appropriate level.
(3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
(4) Anticipate and manage risk by planning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the ultimate goal of the HRA?

provide lead

A

provide leadership with clear health related impacts and advises on how to minimize health risks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is a special OEH assessment typically a qualitative or quantitative assessment?

A

Quantitative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What two goals does the workplace categorization process achieve?

prioritizing

A

(1) Prioritizing places that pose the greatest health risks
(2) Scheduling frequency for routine assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How often are routine OEH assessments performed in Workplace Category 1 shops and Workplace Category 2 shops?

A

Category 1 - Every 12 months
Category 2 - 30 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first step you should take before visiting the work place?

L

A

learn existing OEH data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How is a shop process defined within DOEHRS?

lowest level of

A

As the lowest level of work performed in a shop that may pose a risk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are three acceptable methods for establishing a SEG?

observing

A

(1) Observing work practices.
(2) OEH hazard assessment & define the SEG.
(3) A combination of both activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When is a special OEH assessment required?

routine assesment…

A

1- routine assessment identifies an OEH risk.
2- required on a recurring basis ( expanded standards )
3- requests from workplace supervisors, medical providers, and/or other base agencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Purpose of using the the exposure assessment priority (EAP) ?

prioritize s

A

prioritize special assessments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do you communicate to the work place the results of its OEH assessment?

C

A

closing conference with the workplace supervisor
provide written routine OEH assessment report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the purpose of conducting an occupational illness or injury investigation?

Determine

A

(1) Determine if a worker’s injury or illness is or was related to his/her job.
(2) Identify the reason(s) why a person experienced the illness/injury so future occurrences can be
prevented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between an occupational injury and an occupational illness?

A

injury - evolves over the period a single workday

illness - evolves over more than one work shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are pregnant worker evaluations designed to accomplish?

A

Protect the fetus from chemical, biological,
radiological, or physical substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing the facts and making a determination whether or not to remove
the pregnant individual from current workplace duties?

H

A

health care provider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Air Force Inspection System (AFIS) provide commanders?

a units…

A

(1) A unit’s compliance with established directives
(2) A unit’s ability to report and fix deficiencies.
(3) A unit’s ability to prevent fraud

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of external inspections and evaluations might BE be involved with?

unit effectiveness … and two other

A

unit effectiveness inspection
RAM permit inspection
nuclear surety inspection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What four major grading areas does a unit effectiveness inspection follow?

managing

A

(1) Managing resources.
(2) Leading people.
(3) Improving the unit.
(4) Executing the mission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which external inspection is no-notice?

A

RAM Inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Who will determine the appropriate training and resourcing requirements; assess status of
discipline; evaluate wing readiness; and formulate command welfare strategies?

A

Commander.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What program addresses internal inspections?

c

A

CC’s inspection program (CCIP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who executes the wing inspection program?

A

Wing IG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What two tools are used in the self-assessment program?

s

A

The SAC and MICT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

AF program of record used to accomplish self-assessment of program management

m

A

Management Internal Control Toolset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

List two reasons why we review self-help projects, work order requests, and construction design
plans.

assess

A
  • assess the long-term impact on workplace
  • hazards the construction itself may generate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What types of hazards should you consider when reviewing work orders?

c

A

Chemicals, biological, and physical hazards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Who is responsible for initiating work requests or corrective action in the facility?

A

Facility manager.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When it is the best time to review construction plans and introduce engineering controls?

A

When the facility is in the design phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the five elements of an exposure pathway that must be considered?

source…

A

(1) Source of an OEH threat release.
(2) Environmental media.
(3) Health threat.
(4) Route of exposure.
(5) PAR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What OEHSA tool provides a visual
representation of all OEH threats

A

Conceptual site model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a Complete Exposure Pathway?

all 5

A

All five elements of an exposure pathway are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Major difference in the pre-deployment/baseline activities step of an OEHSA
performed in-garrison versus deployed?

info

A

information available on the site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the objective of site sectoring?

separate

A

separate known OEH threats &
PARs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the recommended radius distance for evaluating off-site OEH threats to the base
population?

A

10 kilometers around installation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the term for a quick qualitative exposure assessment that is used to determine whether or
not an exposure pathway is complete?

A

Initial assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What two RM concepts are used to prioritize a special OEH assessment of CSM exposure
pathways?

P

A

Probability & severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Once you have a consolidated CSM and the OEHSA survey in DOEHRS is complete, to whom
are you required to communicate the outcome and findings of the OEHSA survey?

Oeh..

A

The OEWHG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When recommending engineering controls, what are three approaches that can be used to control
OEH hazards?

sub

A

Substitution, isolation, and ventilation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What three parameters can be applied to assess the effectiveness of a control?

able to

A

(1) able to mitigate the OEH threat exposure
(2) The responsible organization must be able to reasonably implement the control option.
(3) The control must be practical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What four concepts describe the quality of PPE chemical resistance?

P

A

Permeation, breakthrough time, penetration and degradation qualities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Describe permeation as it relates to PPE.

A

chemical dissolves in or moves through a material on a molecular basis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe breakthrough time as it relates to PPE.

A

The time it takes a chemical to permeate completely through a material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are some of the physiological effects of wearing PPE?

Changes in heart…

A

Changes in heart rate, increase water loss, impair vision, mobility and communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the five minimum PPE training requirements that BE is responsible to provide to
workers?

…. is necessary

A

(1) When PPE is necessary.
(2) What PPE is necessary.
(3) How to properly don, doff, adjust, and wear PPE.
(4) The limitations of the PPE.
(5) The proper care, maintenance, useful life and disposal of the PPE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The general guidelines for selecting PPE include what six factors?

clothing …

A

(1) Clothing design, (2) material chemical resistance, (3) physical properties, (4) ease of determination, (5)
cost, and (6) chemical protective clothing standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the best source of information on material compatibility with chemical hazards?

M

A

The manufacturer of the selected clothing.

59
Q

What is a RAC?

Degree

A

degree of risk

60
Q

According to AFI 91–202, who is qualified to evaluate hazards or deficiencies and assign a RAC?

S

A

safety, fire protection, BE, aerospace medicine

61
Q

For a health-related RAC, how is the health hazard severity category (HHSC) determined?

Comibning

A

combining the points for exposure & the effects

62
Q

Describe where viruses are typically found.

in the host…

A

In the host’s bodily fluids.

63
Q

What must happen in order for infection to occur?

Pathogen…

A

pathogen from the source to the host.

64
Q

What is the primary difference between a direct and an indirect mode of transmission?

A

Direct transmission is exposure through direct physical contact

Indirect transmission is not.

65
Q

What process can be used to identify potential biological threats?

oeh…

A

OEHSA process.

66
Q

What sources can be used to identify biological health threats?

d

A

DOEHRS,
National Center for Medical
Intelligence [NCMI])
intelligence reports

67
Q

List five examples of occupations that have a greater chance of coming into contact with
biological threats.

n

A

Nurses, technicians, doctors, laboratory personnel, janitorial staff, and emergency response personnel

68
Q

The formal biological threat assessment will be performed with which other organizations?

med

A

Public health & medical professionals.

69
Q

What is the goal of control measures?

break

A

To break the chain of infection.

70
Q

Which type of controls are methods of isolating, removing, or transmitting the transmission of
biological hazards?

A

Engineering controls.

71
Q

What is the first step before you can make chemical hazard control recommendations?

what makes

A

what makes the chemical hazardous.

72
Q

Why are gases and vapors usually grouped together?

b

A

behave similarly

73
Q

Why is it important to have a working knowledge of a chemical’s physical properties,
nomenclature, and exposure effects?

ensure proper

A

To ensure a proper assessment of a solvent exposure.

74
Q

Why is paint itself not a chemical you can evaluate?

A

is composite mixture

75
Q

If an SDS is not provided with the first shipment of a hazardous chemical, how is one obtained?

supervisor

A

The workplace supervisor must request it from the manufacturer or supplier.

76
Q

When must carcinogenic chemicals be listed on an SDS?

A

If the concentration of the chemical is ≥ 1%.

77
Q

What part of an SDS provides information on how to handle an accidental chemical spill?

acc

A

Accidental release measures.

78
Q

Where on the SDS would you look to determine if there are any PPE requirements when working
with a specific chemical?

exposure

A

Exposure controls section.

79
Q

Why did OSHA develop/publish substance specific standards?

adherence to the…

A

adherence to the PEL is not enough.

80
Q

When must the requirements contained in a substance specific standard be implemented?

if sampling results

A

If air sampling results indicate exposure levels greater than the PEL.

81
Q

On what two factors does the degree of risk of exposure to a given substance depend?

m

A

magnitude& duration of exposure.

82
Q

When do you begin identifying chemical threats?

defining

A

When defining the processes

83
Q

What is the primary source for locating chemical ingredient information?

s

A

SDS

84
Q

After having identified the chemicals that could potentially cause adverse health effects, what is
the next step?

detemine

A

determine if a completed exposure pathway exists.

85
Q

What percentage of occupational skin contact injuries are caused by primary irritants?

A

80 %

86
Q

When would you use indirect dermal monitoring?

high

A

high hazard chemicals where dermal exposure is expected

87
Q

What are the most commonly recognized routes of exposure when considering occupational
hazards?

A

Inhaling chemical substances

88
Q

What effect does high VP or high temperature have on a chemical?

producing

A

producing high vapor concentrations

89
Q

What is the next step to take once it is determined that a chemical process poses a risk to
personnel?

obtain

A

Obtain information needed to formulate potential controls.

90
Q

Simply stated, what is the best way of controlling chemicals that can cause dermatitis?

prevent

A

Prevent skin contact with the offending substance(s).

91
Q

What must be done before you can recommend a specific type of protective glove?

identify

A

Identify the constituents in the chemicals that can potentially contact a person’s skin.

92
Q

Why should direct vented eye goggles not be used for protection against liquid chemical
exposures?

they do not

A

They do not provide the necessary protection.

93
Q

Explain the reason why occupational skin disorders can result in complex impairment to workers.

large surfaces

A

Because large surfaces of skin are often directly exposed to the worker’s environment.

94
Q

When is using substitution as an engineering control not an option?

specific material

A

When a specific material is required by a technical order.

95
Q

What are examples of administrative controls for a chemical absorption hazard?

H

A

Housekeeping & personal hygiene

96
Q

Using a bead blasting booth is an example of what type of engineering control?

I

A

Isolation.

97
Q

Why use caution when implementing worker rotation to reduce or limit exposures to chemical
threats?

Larger numbner

A

A larger number of workers will be exposed to the chemical threat.

98
Q

How does a regulated area limit workers’ exposures?

it res

A

It restricts access

99
Q

What publication would you reference to determine if a work area requires the establishment of a
regulated area?

osha

A

The OSHA standard for specific criteria relevant to the substances or chemicals of concern.`

100
Q

How does a sound source cause variations in atmospheric pressure?

bends

A

The surface of a sound source first bends in one direction and the air molecules next to it become
compressed.

101
Q

Explain the difference between a pure tone and complex sounds.

sound wave

A

A pure tone is a sound wave characterized by one single frequency.

102
Q

What characteristic or quality of a sound wave represents the speed of sound?

A

Velocity.

103
Q

Describe sound pressure and state its unit of measure.

difference between

A

difference between normal atmospheric pressure and the actual pressure

DB

104
Q

What does weighting mean in relation to sound?

calibrated to respond

A

Sound measuring instruments are calibrated to respond to frequencies in the same way as the human ear.

105
Q

Describe auditory effects of noise.

A

hearing loss, tinnitus and acoustic trauma.

106
Q

Describe non-auditory effects of noise.

A

undesirable effects on the body other than hearing effects.

107
Q

What noise levels define potentially hazardous noise?

steady state noise

A

Steady-state noise having an 8-hour TWA noise level greater than or equal to 85 dB(A),

108
Q

Distinguish between criterion level and exchange rate.

A

The criterion level - sound level allowed for an 8-hour exposure

exchange rate - increase of 3 dB, the allowable exposure time is cut in half.

109
Q

What information about the workroom should you gather to help when evaluating noise
sources/areas?

shape

A

shape, size, layout of equipment, workstations, & break
areas.

110
Q

When must you calibrate a SLM?

b

A

Before and after each period of measurement.

111
Q

To what setting do you set the SLM to perform a noise source survey?

a

A

A-weighting, slow response.

112
Q

Where should you position the microphone of a SLM when taking noise source survey
measurements?

at the

A

at the ear but preferably with the operator at least 3 feet away.

113
Q

What measurements do you take with an octave band analyzer?

d

A

Measurements are taken for dB(A), dB flat, and one for each of the octave bands.

114
Q

You have performed an OBA in an audiometric booth. All of your octave band measurements
were below the limits established in AFI 48–127. How often will you monitor the
audiometric booth?

A

Annually.

115
Q

What is the primary purpose for performing noise dosimetry?

quantify

A

To quantify worker exposure and determine if personnel need to be enrolled in the HCP.

116
Q

At what parameters should your dosimeter be set?

criterion -

A

(1) Criterion Level: 85 dB(A).
(2) Threshold Level: 80 dB(A).
(3) Exchange Rate: 3 dB.

117
Q

When do you perform noise dosimetry?

determined

A

determined for all AF workers routinely

118
Q

Name the ways noise can be controlled at the source.

process substitution

A

Process substitution, product substitution and machine treatments.

119
Q

Name ways noise can be controlled in its path.

s

A

Shields and barriers, enclosures, and room treatments.

120
Q

How and where must a hazardous noise area be labeled?

marked where

A

marked where feasible to alert personnel of the potential hazard.

121
Q

When should you use the octave band method for determining HPD noise attenuation?

exceeds

A

When the 8-hour TWA exceeds 94 dB(A).

122
Q

When should you use the NRR method of estimating HPD noise attenuation?

A

When the 8-hour TWA is less than 94 dB(A).

123
Q

Ergonomic risk factors include what type of hazards?

v

A

Vibration, repetition, awkward and/or static postures, forceful exertion and heavy lifting, contact stress,
and temperature.

124
Q

What questions should you ask while gathering information for an ergonomic assessment?

how many

A

How many workers are employed in each job? - caracteristics of the workforce

125
Q

How can you help determine if fatigue influences the way work is performed?

visiting

A

By visiting the shop at different times during the day.

126
Q

List some examples of engineering controls that you might recommend for ergonomic
hazards.

change

A

Change the transportation methods, change the process or product, modify containers or parts
presentation for easier reach, and change workstation layout.

127
Q

What are some benefits of administrative controls?

they can be implemented..

A

They can be implemented quickly, often at low cost, making them useful as temporary measures while
awaiting engineering control implementation.

128
Q

List the signs and symptoms of heat illness.

dizziness

A

(1) Dizziness or confusion.
(2) Nausea or vomiting.
(3) Staggering.
(4) Disturbed vision.
(5) Confusion, collapse or loss of consciousness.

129
Q

What is the most serious heat-related disorder?

A

Heat stroke.

130
Q

List the work-related risk factors to consider when accomplishing a heat stress evaluation.

hot

A

Hot environments, high work demands, and protective clothing requirements.

131
Q

What climatic factors influence the rate of heat exchange between a person and the
environment?

air

A

Air temperature and air speed.

132
Q

What are the physiological responses to cold stress?

A

reducing blood circulation to
the skin
shivering,

133
Q

At what outside daily high temperature are wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) measurements taken and how often?

at

A

At 85 °F, WBGT measurements are to be taken a minimum of four times, evenly spaced, during the
hottest part of the day.

134
Q

What offices/personnel are involved in determining the FITS zones and notifying the
aircrews?

A

Meteorological/weather staffs, BE personnel, and squadron operations flights.

135
Q

Who approves and authorizes unit commanders to reduce the MOPP level?

A

The senior AF commander.

136
Q

List the equipment and supplies needed to perform a WBGT.

A

(1) WBGT apparatus/kit.
(2) Tripod or stand to mount or suspend thermometers for unrestricted airflow.
(3) Distilled water.
(4) Equipment instructions (if using a digital WBGT kit).

137
Q

No matter what device is used to obtain a WBGT, how should it be positioned?

ensure there is un

A

Ensure there is unrestricted airflow around the device.

138
Q

How should the device be oriented if you use the WGBT model with a globe on the end?

towards

A

Orient the instrument so that the globe end is towards the sun.

139
Q

At what temperatures is a red flag is displayed?

A

88–89.9 oF.

140
Q

Which engineering control involves using a fan to reduce the temperature in a work area?

d

A

Dilution ventilation.

141
Q

List the administrative controls for thermal stress.

acc

A

Acclimatization, pace of work, sharing work, scheduling of work, work times, self-determination,
personal monitoring, fluid replacement, diet, life-style, and general health, as well as awareness
training.

142
Q

What form of control is used when a worker varies the amount of clothing worn in a cold
climate?

p

A

PPE.

143
Q

Explain the possible injuries that can occur when personnel don protective masks in
extremely cold temperatures.

frost

A

frostbite on the face.

144
Q

Describe how wearing chemical protective rubber gloves can hinder a person’s protection
from cold weather.

unable to

A

unable to wear cold weather
mittens over the rubber gloves.

Self Test Questions (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions