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Self Test Questions > Unit 5 > Flashcards

Unit 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Why is permeability of the subsurface rock important to the flow of groundwater?

A

It determines how easy or difficult it is for water to move.

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2
Q

Why are materials such as sand and gravel considered to be good aquifers for groundwater?

A

Because of their permeability.

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3
Q

If a well is drilled into a confined aquifer, why is a pump not normally necessary for the water to
get to the surface?

A

Because of the natural or artesian pressure that exists in the aquifer.

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4
Q

Why are unconfined aquifers more vulnerable to contamination from surface activities?

A

They only have one layer of impermeable material beneath the saturated zone.

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5
Q

What is the benefit to an AF base buying drinking water from an adjacent city?

A

The water typically needs little or no additional treatment.

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6
Q

Even though much of the undesirable material in groundwater is filtered out during the passage
through underground layers of sand, clay, rock, and gravel, what is a major limiting factor in
using groundwater a source of drinking water?

A

Excessive mineral content.

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6
Q

Why is groundwater considered to be more advantageous than surface water as a source of
drinking water?

A

more difficult to contaminate.

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7
Q

River water may be safe one day, but significantly contaminated the next. Why is this?

A

Because of the discharge of pollutants into the water.

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8
Q

Why should the nature of a stream or lake be investigated to ensure its dependability as a water
source?

A

The availability of surface water may vary widely with each season of the year.

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9
Q

When are complete studies of a water source for adequacy and dependability necessary?

A

If the water source must supply a large and constant amount of water.

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10
Q

Why must the range of alkalinity in water be controlled?

A

prevent acidic corrosion & the precipitation of salts

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10
Q

What can cause objectionable taste or odor in drinking water?

A

The water probably contains chemicals, minerals, and organic matter such as algae.

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11
Q

Why is it important to have adequate dissolved oxygen levels in drinking water?

A

Adequate levels are necessary to prevent the drinking water from tasting flat.

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12
Q

What effect do chemicals and organisms have in polluted water?

A

They cause the water to exhaust its oxygen.

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13
Q

Why is it important to regularly test for microbial pathogens in the water distribution system?

A

To confirm the effectiveness of the water filtration and disinfection practices.

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13
Q

When might drinking water require additional treatment other than chlorine?

A

there are chlorine-resistant pathogens.

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14
Q

How do primary drinking water standards protect PH?

A

By limiting contaminant levels in drinking water.

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15
Q

Why is it important to know which regulatory agency has primacy for drinking water criteria at
the base?

A

tells you the agency that has the primary responsibility for administering drinking water criteria at your installation.

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16
Q

What base drinking water standard(s) must be complied with for installations outside the
continental United States?

A

DOD FGS or EGS.

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17
Q

Water system classification by the EPA generally depends on what two factors?

A
  • number of people served
  • if system serves the same customers year-round
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18
Q

List four typical areas of concern that a base’s WHPP should address.

A

(1) Runoff from the flight line
(2) entomology shop
(3) potential surface discharges from any base industrial operations,
(4) golf course maintenance operations.

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19
Q

What type of water systems do the NPDWRs apply to?

A

public water systems

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20
Q

What is a PWS?

A

A system that has at least 15 service connections, or regularly serves an average of at least 25 individuals
daily at least 60 days a year.

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21
Q

What is a primacy agency?

A

The agency of the state or federal government that has primary enforcement responsibility in accordance
with the SDWA.

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21
Q

What does water treatment consist of?

A

Adding or removing substances from water in order to produce a desired change in quality.

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22
Q

What is the purpose disinfecting water?

A

To inactivate microorganisms in the water, thereby preventing them from affecting the human body.

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22
Q

What’s the difference between a primary and secondary water disinfectant?

A

1- used to achieve a desired disinfection level to inactivate microorganisms

2- provides longer-lasting protection as the water moves through the distribution system to the consumers.

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23
Q

What is one of the main concerns with adding disinfectants to drinking water?

A

react with natural materials in the water to form byproducts

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24
Q

If a water main had a loss of positive pressure less than 20 psi within the main, what actions are
required?

A

must be disinfected & tested for coliform bacteria

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24
Q

Why is chlorine a preferred method of disinfecting water?

A

leaves a residual in the water
- easily measured
- economical

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25
Q

What are the concerns with adding fluoride to drinking water?

A
  • adults bone effects
  • children teeth stains
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26
Q

After the repair of a water main where the slug chlorination method was used, what steps must
follow next?

A
  • water line is flushed
  • samples are taken for bacteriological analysis.
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26
Q

What is the purpose of having three chlorination methods when installing new water lines?

A
  • provide flexibility in responding to specific
    situations to disinfect new water lines while still ensuring an absence of coliforms.
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27
Q

What is a cross-connection in regards to the installation backflow prevention and cross-
connection control program?

A

any temporary or permanent connection between a public water system and any source or system

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27
Q

What is the responsibility of civil engineering and, specifically, the backflow program manager
(BPM) for the installation backflow prevention program?

A

investigate & document all cross-connections on the installation

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28
Q

What are the general procedures for disinfecting existing lines?

A

(1) Trench treatment.
(2) Swabbing pipes and fittings with hypochlorite solution.
(3) Flushing and chlorination of the line.
(4) Bacteriological sampling.

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29
Q

Why are routine inspections of each cross-connection required?

A

To identify and eliminate potential risks.

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30
Q

What are BE’s responsibilities in the backflow prevention and cross-connection control program?

A

assigns hazard classifications to each cross-connection

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30
Q

Why is a water system sanitary survey conducted?

A

provide safe drinking
water

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31
Q

The results of a sanitary survey provide the installation with what type of valuable information?

A

threats to the water quality and system reliability.

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32
Q

Why is it vital that a finished water storage facility be properly designed, operated, and
maintained?

A

protect water from loss of chlorine residual,
bacteria re-growth,
contaminant entry

32
Q

During the onsite visit of a sanitary survey, why is it important to conduct a review of the water
supply source?

A

source of contaminants, pathogens, and particles.

33
Q

Why does source water dictate the type of treatment processes and facilities used to achieve safe drinking water?

A

contaminated by harmful microorganisms & require treatment

34
Q

Explain why BE personnel must refer to both AFMAN 48–138_IP and AFI 48–144 for field
water?

A

AFMAN 48–138_IP - policy to ensure water used by military for drinking, & sanitation is adequate.

AFI 48–144 - ensure all other AF surveillance requirements are met

35
Q

Identify at least four BE-specific roles outlined in AFMAN 48–138_IP to meet PM field water
objectives.

A

(1) Perform drinking water quality surveillance.
(2) Support investigations of potential drinking water-related illnesses.
(3) Maintain records of drinking water quality surveillance.
(4) Ensure laboratories perform analyses using required analytical methods.

36
Q

Explain the difference between STP standards and LTP standards.

A

STP standards are water quality standards that must be met to declare a water system potable **DURING ** the first 30 days of field operations

LTP standards are water quality standards that must be met AFTER the first 30 days

36
Q

Explain why LTP standards and MEGs are not the same.

A

MEGs do not need to be met for water to be considered potable.

37
Q

Summarize how host nation municipal water source selection should be handled.

A

must be considered a raw water source until it is approved by PM personnel.

37
Q

What does a raw water source sanitary survey involve?

A

examining water source & the surrounding area for existing pollution

38
Q

How many bottled water samples should be tested by PM personnel?

A

1 % of the total # of bottles

39
Q

What is the significance (or vulnerability) of a water system that presents numerous access
points?

A

increased risk for an attack by operatives.

39
Q

Why are WVA program review checklists an important part of the WVA process?

A

uniform way to ensure water security

39
Q

As part of the water vulnerability pre-assessment phase, why is in important to research key
documents and historical records?

A

can provide information concerning threats,

40
Q

Why are subject matter experts a primary focal point for gathering water vulnerability
information?

A

most knowledgeable individuals with program area of concern

41
Q

What is the goal of conducting an “eyes on” physical assessment of water assets and access
points?

A

identify vulnerable assets & access points

42
Q

When are non-AF water mains that transit through areas accessible to the public of special
concern?

A

When the purveyor is relying solely on a fence for security

43
Q

Why must exterior surfaces of a portable storage reservoir/tank be inspected?

A

To check for corrosion and structural defects.

44
Q

Who should use a designated filling station?

A

Contractors, vendors, and others not affiliated with base.

45
Q

Why are fire hydrants of particular concern for water vulnerability?

A

accessibility, large port openings

46
Q

What is the benefit of public notification of drinking water results?

A

ensure that consumers will know if there is a problem with their drinking water.

47
Q

Why and when is a Tier 1 public notice required?

A

24 hours.

48
Q

If a water system violates a drinking water standard that does not have a direct impact on human
health, how long does the water supplier have to notify the public?

A

Up to one year.

48
Q

If a base receives a consumer confidence report from a local water supplier, what is provided to
the base population?

A

Either a copy of the original report or a modified version.

48
Q

What agencies must be consulted to determine if there are more stringent standards (than the
EPA) that must be followed/complied with?

A

State and local regulators.

49
Q

What is the importance of a consumer confidence report?

A

puts the annual drinking water quality report into the hands of customers.

50
Q

What does the consumer confidence report provide?

A

A summary of all the water monitoring your BE office conducted at the base over the past year.

50
Q

When is the consumer confidence report disseminated to the base population?

A

By July 1st each year.

51
Q

If an installation does not purchase its water from a local municipality, who is responsible for
preparing the annual consumer confidence report?

A

BE.

52
Q

If there are microbiological indicators in treated swimming pools or hot tubs, then what does this
indicate?

A

Possible insufficient water exchange, disinfection, and/or maintenance.

53
Q

When is a pre-season swimming pool inspection done and why?

A

30 days prior to the pool opening.

53
Q

On what four factors does water quality depends?

A
  • efficiency of disinfection
  • sanitary conditions
  • # bathers in the pool at any one time
  • total # bathers per day
53
Q

Why are disease transmission hazards greatest among swimmers in fresh water
swimming pools?

A

Because swimmers tend to ingest more water in swimming pools than swimmers in brackish estuarine
water and salt water.

54
Q

Describe the water quality parameters BE team members ensure are met during pre-season
spa/hot tub inspections.

A

Measuring pH, temperature, and the disinfectant residual level.

55
Q

Explain the reason why you don’t normally collect bacteriological samples from a spa/hot tub.

A

Because conditions change so rapidly research indicates the need to collect a sample only if an illness
occurs.

55
Q

Cite the reason why natural bathing areas present significantly more pathogenic organism risks.

A

Natural bathing area water is not chemically treated.

56
Q

Cite the other agencies BE works with to jointly establish safety and warning guidelines for
bathing area hazards?

A

FSS, PH, and ground safety.

57
Q

How are SP and VP described in terms of energy?

A

SP is potential energy. VP is kinetic energy.

57
Q

What is the purpose of the air mover?

A

To create the pressure needed to begin and maintain airflow.

58
Q

Why do we measure TP?

A

In conjunction with SP, it indirectly gives VP.

59
Q

What is the vena contracta?

A

Squeezing the air stream caused by air trying to rush into the confines of the duct from many directions,
thus producing turbulence losses.

60
Q

What are the principal causes of dynamic loss in a ventilation system other than in the hood?

A

Bend in the duct & changes in duct size

61
Q

What are the principal causes of friction losses?

A

Rough duct material, high air velocity, small duct diameter, and long ducts.

62
Q

At what points in a system would you expect the strongest negative SP and the strongest positive
SP?

A

Strongest negative SP: at the fan inlet. Strongest positive SP: at the fan outlet.

62
Q

When should you use a density factor in ventilation work?

A

When air stream temperatures are
30 F

62
Q

Describe capture velocity.

A

The speed of the air at a point in front of the hood that is required to pull contaminants into the hood.

63
Q

The velocity of air across the plane of an inlet or outlet to the system describes which type of
velocity?

A

Face velocity.

64
Q

What are the two parameters at a given point in ventilation systems that are needed to calculate
the Q?

A

Area and velocity.

64
Q

What is important to remember when calculating the Q from your measurements?

A

Calculate using the area in square feet at the point where you measured the velocity.

65
Q

Under what conditions is a slight positive pressure desirable?

A

When adjoining rooms are not occupied.

65
Q

Why can supply alone be used for dilution ventilation far more effectively than exhaust alone?

A

Supply gives more directional air flow for proper mixing with contaminants.

66
Q

What three circumstances would result in a high K factor?

A

Inefficient ventilation (poor mixing), higher contaminant toxicities, and non-uniform evolution of
contaminant.

67
Q

Explain why ventilation for dilution to a LEL or even 25 percent of a LEL would not protect the
health of an exposed person.

A

The LELs for chemicals far exceed the OELs and often the IDLH levels.

68
Q

What is a saturation concentration?

A

The maximum concentration of a chemical vapor that air can hold at a certain temperature.

69
Q

What are the benefits of the lower air volumes handled by local exhaust systems?

A

efficient &
economical

70
Q

How does inadequate makeup air directly affect the performance of a local exhaust system?

A

causes a negative pressure

71
Q

If a new local exhaust system was to be installed in a machine shop, what provision could you
recommend that would ensure the system was always used properly?

A

Interlock the local exhaust system with machinery so that they must be used together.

72
Q

What are the two major advantages to local exhaust enclosures?

A

best contaminant control with the lowest air volumes.

73
Q

What are the two types of key parameters for local exhaust systems?

A

Duct velocity and required Q.

74
Q

What are the four general hood classifications?

A

Open, slot, canopy, enclosing.

75
Q

How does a receiving hood differ from other open hood types?

A

It does not capture contaminants.

Self Test Questions (7 decks)

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